Exam 3

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1

Homeostasis is the production of formed elements of blood.

False

2

Blood viscosity stems mainly from electrolytes and monomers dissolved in plasma.

False

3

Lymphoid hemopoiesis occurs mainly in the bone marrow.

False

4

Oxygen and carbon dioxide bind to different parts of hemoglobin.

True

5

The liver stores excess iron in ferritin.

True

6

The most important components in the cytoplasm of RBCs are hemoglobin and carbonic anhydrase.

True

7

A person develops anti-A antibodies only after he is exposed to antigen A, and anti-B antibodies only after he is exposed to antigen B.

False

8

Incompatibility of one person's blood with another results from the action of plasma antibodies against the RBCs' antigens.

True

9

Rh incompatibility between a sensitized Rh+ woman and an Rh- fetus can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn.

False

10

Circulating WBCs spend most of their lives in the bloodstream.

False

11

Lymphocytes secrete antibodies, coordinate action of other immune cells, and serve in immune memory.

True

12

Monocytes differentiate into large phagocytic cells.

True

13

Coagulation starts with a vascular spasm and ends with the formation of a platelet plug.

False

14

Clotting deficiency can result from thrombocytopenia or hemophilia.

True

15

After a wound is sealed, tissue repair is followed by fibrinolysis.

True

16

Which of the following is not a function of blood?

Produces plasma hormones

17

Which of the following is not contained in the buffy coat?

Erythrocytes

18

A normal hematocrit is __________ of the total blood volume

37% to 52%

19

Which of the following is not normally found in plasma

Glycogen

20

Which of the following proteins is not normally found in plasma

Hemoglobin

21

What is the most abundant protein in plasma?

Albumin

22

Which of the following would not decrease the blood colloid osmotic pressure (COP)?

A diet predominantly based on red meat

23

Serum is essentially identical to plasma except for the absence of __________.

Fibrinogen

24

Tissues can become edematous (swollen) when which of the following occurs?

There is a dietary protein deficiency.

25

Where does myeloid hemopoiesis take place in adults?

Red bone marrow

26

The viscosity of blood is due more to the presence of __________ than to any other factor.

erythrocytes

27

Erythrocytes transport oxygen and __________.

transport some carbon dioxide

28

Most oxygen is transported in the blood bound to __________.

heme groups in hemoglobin

29

What would happen if all of the hemoglobin contained within the RBCs became free in the plasma?

It would significantly increase blood osmolarity.

30

An increased erythropoietin (EPO) output by the kidneys would lead to all of the following except __________.

increased hypoxemia

31

Where do most RBCs die?

Spleen and liver

32

Which of the following would not lead to polycythemia?

Iron deficiency

33

Which of the following is most likely to cause anemia?

Renal disease

34

Which of the following is not true of a patient with anemia?

Their blood viscosity is increased.

35

What is the final product of the breakdown of the organic nonprotein moiety of hemoglobin?

Bilirubin

36

Correction of hypoxemia is regulated by __________.

a negative feedback loop

37

A deficiency of __________ can cause pernicious anemia.

vitamin B12

38

Which of the following is not true regarding sickle-cell disease?

It is a cause of malaria.

39

The ABO blood group is determined by __________ in the plasma membrane of RBCs.

glycolipids

40

A person with type A blood can safely donate RBCs to someone of type __________ and can receive RBCs from someone of type __________.

AB; O

41

A person with type AB blood has __________ RBC antigen(s).

A and B

42

Why are pregnant Rh- women given an injection of Rh immune globulin?

Antibodies in the injection bind fetal RBC antigens so they cannot stimulate her immune system to produce anti-D antibodies

43

The universal donor of RBCs, but not necessarily plasma, is blood type __________.

O, Rh-negative

44

An individual has type B, Rh-positive blood. The individual has __________ antigen(s) and can produce anti-__________ antibodies.

B and D; A

45

The main reason why an individual with type AB, Rh-negative blood cannot donate blood to an individual with type A, Rh-positive blood is because __________.

anti-B antibodies in the recipient will agglutinate RBCs of the donor

46

A woman's first pregnancy is normal but her second pregnancy results in hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN). The second child needed a transfusion to completely replace the agglutinating blood. The mother is most likely type __________ and both children are most likely __________.

A, Rh-negative; B, Rh-positive

47

What are the least abundant of the formed elements?

Basophils

48

What are the most abundant agranulocytes?

Lymphocytes

49

The number of __________ typically increases in response to bacterial infections.

neutrophils

50

Which cells aid in the body's defense processes by secreting histamine and heparin?

Basophils

51

Leukopoiesis begins with the differentiation of __________.

pluripotent stem cells

52

Some lymphocytes can survive as long as __________.

decades

53

A patient is diagnosed with leukocytosis if they have more than __________ WBCs/μL.

10,000

54

Which of the following has not been implicated in causing leukopenia?

Dehydration

55

What is the largest leukocyte that contains small cytoplasmic granules and typically a kidney- or horseshoe-shaped nucleus?

Monocyte

56

Which of the following are not secreted by platelets?

Thrombopoietin

57

The cessation of bleeding is specifically called __________.

hemostasis

58

What is the function of thromboplastin in hemostasis?

It initiates the extrinsic pathway of coagulation.

59

When a clot is no longer needed, fibrin is dissolved by __________.

plasmin

60

Which of these does not prevent the spontaneous formation of a clot?

The presence of tissue thromboplastin

61

Platelets release __________, a chemical vasoconstrictor that contributes to the vascular spasm.

serotonin

62

The structural framework of a blood clot is formed by __________.

a fibrin polymer

63

Most strokes and heart attacks are caused by the abnormal clotting of blood in an unbroken vessel. Moreover, a piece of the __________ (clot) may break loose and begin to travel in the bloodstream as a(n) __________.

thrombus; embolus

64

During coagulation, which of the following is found in the extrinsic mechanism only?

Thromboplastin

65

Where are most clotting factors synthesized in the body?

Liver

66

A patient is suffering from ketoacidosis caused by an unregulated high protein diet. Which function of the blood has been compromised?

Stabilizing the body's pH

67

Where in the body are hemopoietic stem cells found?

Red bone marrow

68

Which of the following might be injected into a patient who is prone to forming blood clots and therefore at risk of a heart attack or stroke?

Heparin

69

Blood clots in the limbs put a patient most at risk for __________.

pulmonary embolism

70

Blood groups are made up of any surface antigen on formed elements, not just ABO and Rh, and include over 500 known antigens.

True

71

Blood groups are used for legal purposes and in anthropology.

True

72

The pulmonary circuit is supplied by both the right and the left sides of the heart.

False

73

The systemic circuit contains oxygen-rich blood only.

False

74

The fibrous skeleton of the heart serves as electrical insulation between the atria and the ventricles.

False

75

Blood in the heart chambers provides most of the myocardium's oxygen and nutrient needs.

False

76

Desmosomes form channels that allow each cardiomyocyte to electrically stimulate its neighbors.

False

77

Parasympathetic stimulation reduces heart rate.

True

78

The cardiac plexus and cardiac nerves dominate the innervation of the heart and contains both parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers.

True

79

Cardiac muscle can only use glucose as a source of organic fuel.

False

80

If the SA node is damaged, nodal rhythm is sufficient to sustain life.

False

81

Repolarization of a ventricular cardiomyocyte takes longer than repolarization of a typical neuron.

True

82

Atrial hypertrophy would probably cause an enlarged P wave on an electrocardiogram.

True

83

Papillary muscles prevent the AV valves from prolapsing (bulging) excessively into the atria when the ventricles contract.

True

84

The ventricles are almost empty at the end of ventricular diastole.

False

85

Ventricular pressure increases the fastest during ventricular filling.

False

86

Hypercapnia and acidosis have positive chronotropic effects.

True

87

Endurance athletes commonly have a resting heart rate as low as 40 bpm, and a stroke volume as low as 50 mL/beat.

False

88

Exercise causes the ventricles to hypertrophy.

True

89

Which of the following carry oxygen-poor blood?

Venae cavae and pulmonary arteries

90

Which of the following belong to the pulmonary circuit?

Pulmonary arteries and pulmonary veins

91

Which of the following is the most superficial layer enclosing the heart?

Parietal pericardium

92

The heart is located in the space called the __________.

mediastinum

93

The apex of the heart is found __________ of the midline of the body.

to the left

94

Pericardial fluid is found between the __________ and the __________.

parietal; visceral membranes

95

The __________ are the superior chambers of the heart and the _________ are the inferior chambers of the heart.

atria; ventricles

96

The shallow depression seen on the external surface of the heart between the left and right ventricles is called the __________.

interventricular sulcus

97

The area where the major vessels lead to and from the heart's chambers is called the __________ of the heart. The pointy, inferior portion is called the ___________.

base; apex

98

The __________ performs the work of the heart.

myocardium

99

The right atrioventricular valve (tricuspid) regulates the opening between the _________ and the _________.

right atrium; right ventricle

100

Oxygen-poor blood passes through the _________.

right AV (tricuspid) and pulmonary valves

101

Opening and closing of the heart valves is caused by _________.

pressure gradients

102

The __________ valve regulates the flow of blood between the right ventricle and the vessels leading to the lungs.

pulmonary

103

The __________ carry blood toward the lungs.

pulmonary trunk and arteries

104

Which of the following blood vessels receives blood directly from the right ventricle?

Pulmonary trunk

105

The chordae tendinae of the AV valves are anchored to the __________ of the ventricles.

papillary muscles

106

After entering the right atrium, the furthest a red blood cell can travel is the _________.

superior vena cava

107

Which of the following directly stems from the ascending aorta before it branches into the circumflex branch and anterior interventricular branch?

left coronary artery

108

Obstruction of the ___________ will cause a more severe myocardial infarction (MI) than the obstruction of any of the others.

left coronary artery

109

Which of the following is a feature shared by cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle?

Muscle fiber striations

110

The __________ is the pacemaker that initiates each heart beat.

sinoatrial (SA) node

111

Which of the following is not part of the cardiac conduction system?

Tendinous cords

112

Which of the following is not a feature of cardiac muscle?

They have about the same endurance as skeletal muscle fibers.

113

Which is the correct path of an electrical excitation from the pacemaker to a cardiomyocyte in the left ventricle (LV)?

Sinoatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) node → atrioventricular (AV) bundle → Subendothelial conducting network → cardiomyocyte in LV

114

The pacemaker potential is a result of _________.

Na+ inflow

115

The plateau in the action potential of cardiac muscle results from the action of __________.

slow Ca2+ channels

116

When sodium channels are fully open, the membrane of the ventricular cardiomyocyte _________.

sharply depolarizes

117

Cells of the sinoatrial node __________ during the pacemaker potential.

depolarize slow

118

Any abnormal cardiac rhythm is called a(n) __________.

arrhythmia

119

If the sinoatrial (SA) node is damaged, the heart will likely beat at __________ bpm.

40 to 50

120

The __________ provides most of the Ca2+ needed for myocardial contraction

sarcoplasmic reticulum

121

Atrial systole begins __________.

immediately after the P wave

122

Atrial depolarization causes the _________.

P wave

123

The long plateau in the action potential observed in cardiomyocytes is probably related with __________ staying longer in the cytosol.

Ca2+

124

The long absolute refractory period of cardiomyocytes _________.

prevents tetanus

125

An extended period of time between the P wave and the QRS complex may indicate which of the following?

The signal is taking too long to get to the AV node.

126

In a normal ECG, the deflection that is generated by ventricular repolarization is called the __________.

T wave

127

When the left ventricle contracts, the __________ valve closes and the __________ valve is pushed open.

mitral; aortic

128

Mitral valve prolapse causes blood to leak back into the __________ when the ventricles contract.

left atrium

129

Isovolumetric contraction occurs during the __________ of the electrocardiogram.

R wave

130

During isovolumetric contraction, the pressure in the ventricles __________.

rises rapidly

131

Mitral valve prolapse (MVP) generates a murmur associated with the __________ heart sound that occurs when the __________.

lubb (S1); ventricles contract

132

When the aortic semilunar valve closes and blood bounces off of it, it produces the __________ heart sound that is ultimately related to when the __________.

dupp (S2); ventricles relax

133

Which is the correct sequence of events of the cardiac cycle?

Ventricular filling → isovolumetric contraction → ventricular ejection → isovolumetric relaxation

134

Most of the ventricle filling occurs __________.

during atrial diastole

135

When the ventricles relax, the __________ valve prevents backflow of blood into the left ventricle.

aortic

136

Congestive heart failure (CHF) of the right ventricle __________.

can cause systemic edema

137

Assume that the left ventricle of a child's heart has an EDV=90mL, and ESV=60mL, and a cardiac output of 2,400 mL/min. His SV is __________ mL/beat and his HR is __________ bpm.

30; 80

138

Stroke volume is increased by __________.

increased venous return

139

The volume of blood ejected by each ventricle in one minute is called the __________.

cardiac output

140

Cardioinhibitory centers in the __________ receive input from __________.

medulla oblongata; chemoreceptors in the aortic arch

141

The Frank-Starling law of the heart states that stroke volume is proportional to __________.

the end-diastolic volume

142

Mercury is used to measure blood pressure because it is __________ compared to other liquids.

more dense

143

The ventricles are the thicker more powerful chambers of the heart. They pump blood to the lungs and body.

True

144

Electrical signals pass between cardiomyocytes through the _____.

gap junctions

145

Blood pressure is usually measured in millimeters of mercury (mmHg) but could be measured with any liquid, such as water (mm H20).

True

146

The amount of blood pumped through the pulmonary circuit is less than the amount pumped through the systemic circuit.

True