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Exam 3

front 1

Homeostasis is the production of formed elements of blood.

back 1

False

front 2

Blood viscosity stems mainly from electrolytes and monomers dissolved in plasma.

back 2

False

front 3

Lymphoid hemopoiesis occurs mainly in the bone marrow.

back 3

False

front 4

Oxygen and carbon dioxide bind to different parts of hemoglobin.

back 4

True

front 5

The liver stores excess iron in ferritin.

back 5

True

front 6

The most important components in the cytoplasm of RBCs are hemoglobin and carbonic anhydrase.

back 6

True

front 7

A person develops anti-A antibodies only after he is exposed to antigen A, and anti-B antibodies only after he is exposed to antigen B.

back 7

False

front 8

Incompatibility of one person's blood with another results from the action of plasma antibodies against the RBCs' antigens.

back 8

True

front 9

Rh incompatibility between a sensitized Rh+ woman and an Rh- fetus can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn.

back 9

False

front 10

Circulating WBCs spend most of their lives in the bloodstream.

back 10

False

front 11

Lymphocytes secrete antibodies, coordinate action of other immune cells, and serve in immune memory.

back 11

True

front 12

Monocytes differentiate into large phagocytic cells.

back 12

True

front 13

Coagulation starts with a vascular spasm and ends with the formation of a platelet plug.

back 13

False

front 14

Clotting deficiency can result from thrombocytopenia or hemophilia.

back 14

True

front 15

After a wound is sealed, tissue repair is followed by fibrinolysis.

back 15

True

front 16

Which of the following is not a function of blood?

back 16

Produces plasma hormones

front 17

Which of the following is not contained in the buffy coat?

back 17

Erythrocytes

front 18

A normal hematocrit is __________ of the total blood volume

back 18

37% to 52%

front 19

Which of the following is not normally found in plasma

back 19

Glycogen

front 20

Which of the following proteins is not normally found in plasma

back 20

Hemoglobin

front 21

What is the most abundant protein in plasma?

back 21

Albumin

front 22

Which of the following would not decrease the blood colloid osmotic pressure (COP)?

back 22

A diet predominantly based on red meat

front 23

Serum is essentially identical to plasma except for the absence of __________.

back 23

Fibrinogen

front 24

Tissues can become edematous (swollen) when which of the following occurs?

back 24

There is a dietary protein deficiency.

front 25

Where does myeloid hemopoiesis take place in adults?

back 25

Red bone marrow

front 26

The viscosity of blood is due more to the presence of __________ than to any other factor.

back 26

erythrocytes

front 27

Erythrocytes transport oxygen and __________.

back 27

transport some carbon dioxide

front 28

Most oxygen is transported in the blood bound to __________.

back 28

heme groups in hemoglobin

front 29

What would happen if all of the hemoglobin contained within the RBCs became free in the plasma?

back 29

It would significantly increase blood osmolarity.

front 30

An increased erythropoietin (EPO) output by the kidneys would lead to all of the following except __________.

back 30

increased hypoxemia

front 31

Where do most RBCs die?

back 31

Spleen and liver

front 32

Which of the following would not lead to polycythemia?

back 32

Iron deficiency

front 33

Which of the following is most likely to cause anemia?

back 33

Renal disease

front 34

Which of the following is not true of a patient with anemia?

back 34

Their blood viscosity is increased.

front 35

What is the final product of the breakdown of the organic nonprotein moiety of hemoglobin?

back 35

Bilirubin

front 36

Correction of hypoxemia is regulated by __________.

back 36

a negative feedback loop

front 37

A deficiency of __________ can cause pernicious anemia.

back 37

vitamin B12

front 38

Which of the following is not true regarding sickle-cell disease?

back 38

It is a cause of malaria.

front 39

The ABO blood group is determined by __________ in the plasma membrane of RBCs.

back 39

glycolipids

front 40

A person with type A blood can safely donate RBCs to someone of type __________ and can receive RBCs from someone of type __________.

back 40

AB; O

front 41

A person with type AB blood has __________ RBC antigen(s).

back 41

A and B

front 42

Why are pregnant Rh- women given an injection of Rh immune globulin?

back 42

Antibodies in the injection bind fetal RBC antigens so they cannot stimulate her immune system to produce anti-D antibodies

front 43

The universal donor of RBCs, but not necessarily plasma, is blood type __________.

back 43

O, Rh-negative

front 44

An individual has type B, Rh-positive blood. The individual has __________ antigen(s) and can produce anti-__________ antibodies.

back 44

B and D; A

front 45

The main reason why an individual with type AB, Rh-negative blood cannot donate blood to an individual with type A, Rh-positive blood is because __________.

back 45

anti-B antibodies in the recipient will agglutinate RBCs of the donor

front 46

A woman's first pregnancy is normal but her second pregnancy results in hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN). The second child needed a transfusion to completely replace the agglutinating blood. The mother is most likely type __________ and both children are most likely __________.

back 46

A, Rh-negative; B, Rh-positive

front 47

What are the least abundant of the formed elements?

back 47

Basophils

front 48

What are the most abundant agranulocytes?

back 48

Lymphocytes

front 49

The number of __________ typically increases in response to bacterial infections.

back 49

neutrophils

front 50

Which cells aid in the body's defense processes by secreting histamine and heparin?

back 50

Basophils

front 51

Leukopoiesis begins with the differentiation of __________.

back 51

pluripotent stem cells

front 52

Some lymphocytes can survive as long as __________.

back 52

decades

front 53

A patient is diagnosed with leukocytosis if they have more than __________ WBCs/μL.

back 53

10,000

front 54

Which of the following has not been implicated in causing leukopenia?

back 54

Dehydration

front 55

What is the largest leukocyte that contains small cytoplasmic granules and typically a kidney- or horseshoe-shaped nucleus?

back 55

Monocyte

front 56

Which of the following are not secreted by platelets?

back 56

Thrombopoietin

front 57

The cessation of bleeding is specifically called __________.

back 57

hemostasis

front 58

What is the function of thromboplastin in hemostasis?

back 58

It initiates the extrinsic pathway of coagulation.

front 59

When a clot is no longer needed, fibrin is dissolved by __________.

back 59

plasmin

front 60

Which of these does not prevent the spontaneous formation of a clot?

back 60

The presence of tissue thromboplastin

front 61

Platelets release __________, a chemical vasoconstrictor that contributes to the vascular spasm.

back 61

serotonin

front 62

The structural framework of a blood clot is formed by __________.

back 62

a fibrin polymer

front 63

Most strokes and heart attacks are caused by the abnormal clotting of blood in an unbroken vessel. Moreover, a piece of the __________ (clot) may break loose and begin to travel in the bloodstream as a(n) __________.

back 63

thrombus; embolus

front 64

During coagulation, which of the following is found in the extrinsic mechanism only?

back 64

Thromboplastin

front 65

Where are most clotting factors synthesized in the body?

back 65

Liver

front 66

A patient is suffering from ketoacidosis caused by an unregulated high protein diet. Which function of the blood has been compromised?

back 66

Stabilizing the body's pH

front 67

Where in the body are hemopoietic stem cells found?

back 67

Red bone marrow

front 68

Which of the following might be injected into a patient who is prone to forming blood clots and therefore at risk of a heart attack or stroke?

back 68

Heparin

front 69

Blood clots in the limbs put a patient most at risk for __________.

back 69

pulmonary embolism

front 70

Blood groups are made up of any surface antigen on formed elements, not just ABO and Rh, and include over 500 known antigens.

back 70

True

front 71

Blood groups are used for legal purposes and in anthropology.

back 71

True

front 72

The pulmonary circuit is supplied by both the right and the left sides of the heart.

back 72

False

front 73

The systemic circuit contains oxygen-rich blood only.

back 73

False

front 74

The fibrous skeleton of the heart serves as electrical insulation between the atria and the ventricles.

back 74

False

front 75

Blood in the heart chambers provides most of the myocardium's oxygen and nutrient needs.

back 75

False

front 76

Desmosomes form channels that allow each cardiomyocyte to electrically stimulate its neighbors.

back 76

False

front 77

Parasympathetic stimulation reduces heart rate.

back 77

True

front 78

The cardiac plexus and cardiac nerves dominate the innervation of the heart and contains both parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers.

back 78

True

front 79

Cardiac muscle can only use glucose as a source of organic fuel.

back 79

False

front 80

If the SA node is damaged, nodal rhythm is sufficient to sustain life.

back 80

False

front 81

Repolarization of a ventricular cardiomyocyte takes longer than repolarization of a typical neuron.

back 81

True

front 82

Atrial hypertrophy would probably cause an enlarged P wave on an electrocardiogram.

back 82

True

front 83

Papillary muscles prevent the AV valves from prolapsing (bulging) excessively into the atria when the ventricles contract.

back 83

True

front 84

The ventricles are almost empty at the end of ventricular diastole.

back 84

False

front 85

Ventricular pressure increases the fastest during ventricular filling.

back 85

False

front 86

Hypercapnia and acidosis have positive chronotropic effects.

back 86

True

front 87

Endurance athletes commonly have a resting heart rate as low as 40 bpm, and a stroke volume as low as 50 mL/beat.

back 87

False

front 88

Exercise causes the ventricles to hypertrophy.

back 88

True

front 89

Which of the following carry oxygen-poor blood?

back 89

Venae cavae and pulmonary arteries

front 90

Which of the following belong to the pulmonary circuit?

back 90

Pulmonary arteries and pulmonary veins

front 91

Which of the following is the most superficial layer enclosing the heart?

back 91

Parietal pericardium

front 92

The heart is located in the space called the __________.

back 92

mediastinum

front 93

The apex of the heart is found __________ of the midline of the body.

back 93

to the left

front 94

Pericardial fluid is found between the __________ and the __________.

back 94

parietal; visceral membranes

front 95

The __________ are the superior chambers of the heart and the _________ are the inferior chambers of the heart.

back 95

atria; ventricles

front 96

The shallow depression seen on the external surface of the heart between the left and right ventricles is called the __________.

back 96

interventricular sulcus

front 97

The area where the major vessels lead to and from the heart's chambers is called the __________ of the heart. The pointy, inferior portion is called the ___________.

back 97

base; apex

front 98

The __________ performs the work of the heart.

back 98

myocardium

front 99

The right atrioventricular valve (tricuspid) regulates the opening between the _________ and the _________.

back 99

right atrium; right ventricle

front 100

Oxygen-poor blood passes through the _________.

back 100

right AV (tricuspid) and pulmonary valves

front 101

Opening and closing of the heart valves is caused by _________.

back 101

pressure gradients

front 102

The __________ valve regulates the flow of blood between the right ventricle and the vessels leading to the lungs.

back 102

pulmonary

front 103

The __________ carry blood toward the lungs.

back 103

pulmonary trunk and arteries

front 104

Which of the following blood vessels receives blood directly from the right ventricle?

back 104

Pulmonary trunk

front 105

The chordae tendinae of the AV valves are anchored to the __________ of the ventricles.

back 105

papillary muscles

front 106

After entering the right atrium, the furthest a red blood cell can travel is the _________.

back 106

superior vena cava

front 107

Which of the following directly stems from the ascending aorta before it branches into the circumflex branch and anterior interventricular branch?

back 107

left coronary artery

front 108

Obstruction of the ___________ will cause a more severe myocardial infarction (MI) than the obstruction of any of the others.

back 108

left coronary artery

front 109

Which of the following is a feature shared by cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle?

back 109

Muscle fiber striations

front 110

The __________ is the pacemaker that initiates each heart beat.

back 110

sinoatrial (SA) node

front 111

Which of the following is not part of the cardiac conduction system?

back 111

Tendinous cords

front 112

Which of the following is not a feature of cardiac muscle?

back 112

They have about the same endurance as skeletal muscle fibers.

front 113

Which is the correct path of an electrical excitation from the pacemaker to a cardiomyocyte in the left ventricle (LV)?

back 113

Sinoatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) node → atrioventricular (AV) bundle → Subendothelial conducting network → cardiomyocyte in LV

front 114

The pacemaker potential is a result of _________.

back 114

Na+ inflow

front 115

The plateau in the action potential of cardiac muscle results from the action of __________.

back 115

slow Ca2+ channels

front 116

When sodium channels are fully open, the membrane of the ventricular cardiomyocyte _________.

back 116

sharply depolarizes

front 117

Cells of the sinoatrial node __________ during the pacemaker potential.

back 117

depolarize slow

front 118

Any abnormal cardiac rhythm is called a(n) __________.

back 118

arrhythmia

front 119

If the sinoatrial (SA) node is damaged, the heart will likely beat at __________ bpm.

back 119

40 to 50

front 120

The __________ provides most of the Ca2+ needed for myocardial contraction

back 120

sarcoplasmic reticulum

front 121

Atrial systole begins __________.

back 121

immediately after the P wave

front 122

Atrial depolarization causes the _________.

back 122

P wave

front 123

The long plateau in the action potential observed in cardiomyocytes is probably related with __________ staying longer in the cytosol.

back 123

Ca2+

front 124

The long absolute refractory period of cardiomyocytes _________.

back 124

prevents tetanus

front 125

An extended period of time between the P wave and the QRS complex may indicate which of the following?

back 125

The signal is taking too long to get to the AV node.

front 126

In a normal ECG, the deflection that is generated by ventricular repolarization is called the __________.

back 126

T wave

front 127

When the left ventricle contracts, the __________ valve closes and the __________ valve is pushed open.

back 127

mitral; aortic

front 128

Mitral valve prolapse causes blood to leak back into the __________ when the ventricles contract.

back 128

left atrium

front 129

Isovolumetric contraction occurs during the __________ of the electrocardiogram.

back 129

R wave

front 130

During isovolumetric contraction, the pressure in the ventricles __________.

back 130

rises rapidly

front 131

Mitral valve prolapse (MVP) generates a murmur associated with the __________ heart sound that occurs when the __________.

back 131

lubb (S1); ventricles contract

front 132

When the aortic semilunar valve closes and blood bounces off of it, it produces the __________ heart sound that is ultimately related to when the __________.

back 132

dupp (S2); ventricles relax

front 133

Which is the correct sequence of events of the cardiac cycle?

back 133

Ventricular filling → isovolumetric contraction → ventricular ejection → isovolumetric relaxation

front 134

Most of the ventricle filling occurs __________.

back 134

during atrial diastole

front 135

When the ventricles relax, the __________ valve prevents backflow of blood into the left ventricle.

back 135

aortic

front 136

Congestive heart failure (CHF) of the right ventricle __________.

back 136

can cause systemic edema

front 137

Assume that the left ventricle of a child's heart has an EDV=90mL, and ESV=60mL, and a cardiac output of 2,400 mL/min. His SV is __________ mL/beat and his HR is __________ bpm.

back 137

30; 80

front 138

Stroke volume is increased by __________.

back 138

increased venous return

front 139

The volume of blood ejected by each ventricle in one minute is called the __________.

back 139

cardiac output

front 140

Cardioinhibitory centers in the __________ receive input from __________.

back 140

medulla oblongata; chemoreceptors in the aortic arch

front 141

The Frank-Starling law of the heart states that stroke volume is proportional to __________.

back 141

the end-diastolic volume

front 142

Mercury is used to measure blood pressure because it is __________ compared to other liquids.

back 142

more dense

front 143

The ventricles are the thicker more powerful chambers of the heart. They pump blood to the lungs and body.

back 143

True

front 144

Electrical signals pass between cardiomyocytes through the _____.

back 144

gap junctions

front 145

Blood pressure is usually measured in millimeters of mercury (mmHg) but could be measured with any liquid, such as water (mm H20).

back 145

True

front 146

The amount of blood pumped through the pulmonary circuit is less than the amount pumped through the systemic circuit.

back 146

True