HESI

Helpfulness: +1
Set Details Share
created 5 years ago by kaylafeathers
3,506 views
Radiology tech review of HESI exit exam
updated 5 years ago by kaylafeathers
show moreless
Page to share:
Embed this setcancel
COPY
code changes based on your size selection
Size:
X
Show:
1

What is the best strategy for communicating health care information to a patient who is completely deaf?

Call for an interpreter certified in sign language

2

Identify the proper medical record documentation of medication administration.

5 mcg/min, Epinephrine, IV, 11/12/2007, 0940

date, time, drug name, dosage, and route of administration

3

Which guideline is recommended for safely lifting a patient from a seated position?

Stand with feet apart to establish a wide base of support

4

Which guideline is most effective for reducing the number of nosocomial infections?

Position urinary catheter bags below the level of the patients bladder

5

Which value represents a normal respiratory rate for a pediatric patient?

25 breaths per minute

6

According to the American Heart Association (AHA) guidelines, which is the correct rate of chest compressions when administering cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) to a 6-month-old patient?

At least 100 per minute

7

Which is the most appropriate response to a patient who asks what the term "peritonitis" means?

peritonitis is an inflammation of the abdomen

8

What route of transmission is responsible for transmitting a disease to a patient through an improperly cleaned x-ray table?

fomite

9

According to the ARRT Standards of Ethics, a radiographer may be subject to sanctions including revocation of certification for which actions? (Select the three that apply.)

  • failing to report a medical error because the patient was unharmed
  • performing a medical procedure without appropriate training of supervision
  • performing duties while under the influence of illegal drugs or alcohol
10

Which is the best way to control severe bleeding from a deep laceration of the upper arm?

apply direct pressure to the wound and raise the patients arm above the level of the heart

11

Consider the contrast media label shown here. What does the "Not for parenteral use" warning mean?

It must be administered orally of rectally

12

A patient is slumped over in his wheelchair and is non-responsive. After easing the patient to the floor, the radiographer finds no carotid pulse. The patient is experiencing which condition?

Cardiac Arrest.

Cardiac arrest is the complete cessation of heart function. Myocardial infarction is the death of heart tissue due to lack of blood supply.

13

Which general guideline is the most appropriate for determining when to use standard precautions?

When performing exams on all patients

14

Which guideline represents the best approach for examining patients who are mentally impaired?

assess each patients ability to follow instructions prior to the exam

15

When obtaining a blood pressure reading, systolic and diastolic values are determined by monitoring which pulse point?

brachial

Radial and carotid points are commonly used to assess the rate and quality of a patient's pulse.

16

A trauma patient arrives to the emergency department unconscious with tachycardia and hypotension. The patient has lost a significant volume of blood. The patient is experiencing which condition?

Hypovolemic shock

17

Which is considered a major contraindication for intravenous urography?

hypersensitivity to contrast media

18

When transferring a patient with hemiparalysis from a wheelchair to the x-ray table, in which position should the wheelchair be placed?

parallel to the x-ray table, with the patients strong side closest to the table

19

What are the six right of drug administration that radiographers should follow?

  1. patient
  2. drug
  3. amount
  4. route
  5. documentation
  6. time
20

Washing hands with soap and water disrupts the chain of infection by which process?

decreasing the number of pathogens present

21

What is the most appropriate response if a patient asks about the risks of radiation exposure from a CT exam?

A CT results in a much higher radiation dose than x-ray, but your physician believes the benefits outweigh the risks

22

This image is a medical record entry lacking important information. Place the cursor on the portion of this entry that is incorrect and left click.

All medical record entries must include the printed name and credentials of the radiographer.
The image shows "M. Stevens"

23

What precautions should a radiographer take when entering the room of a patient with varicella virus?

Wear a particulate respirator mask, gloves, and gown

Varicella is chickenpox, so airborne and contact precautions

24

Place the cursor on the contrast media that should be administered for an intravenous urogram and left click.

Isovue

25

Which condition requires a patient to be placed in a negative pressure room, and healthcare workers to wear respiratory protection when entering?

Tuberculosis

26

Which example of nonverbal communication is most effective fr helping a patient overcome anxiety and apprehension prior to an exam?

maintain direct but appropriate eye contact with the patient

27

During a routine radiographic examination, a patient complains of dizziness and appears anxious and diaphoretic. while checking the patients vital signs, the radiographer note a rapid heart rate, shaky hands, and clammy skin. Which is the most likely explanation for this presentation?

hypoglycemia

28

during the medical history assessment prior to an upper GI study, the patient reports he is taking an AC inhibitor, Vasotec. This suggests the patient is being treated for which condition?

hypertension

29

Which item must be discarded in a biohazard bag?

bed sheet saturated with blood

30

What type of shock is caused by a reaction to contrast media?

vasogenic

31

When a radiographer asks a patient to lie down on the imaging table and the patient complies, which type of consent has the patient given?

Simple consent

32

Which describes the proper technique for needle insertion during venipunture?

Insert needle into vein at a 15-degree angle with bevel facing upward

33

Which practices are considered violations of HIPAA? (two)

  1. accessing medical images of a coworker
  2. looking up test results of a family member
34

Which is the most likely result if an exposure is made without the use of a focusing cup?

Increased off focus radiation

35

Which term refers to the removal of an electron from the orbital shell of an atom?

ionization

36

How is the process of thermionic emission described?

electrons are released when the filament is heated

37

which type of interaction results in the production of bremsstrahlung -rays?

a projectile electron slows down near the nucleus of the target atom

38

Which term is used to describe the intensity of the x-ray beam?

quantity

Quantity refers to the intensity, or total number of x-ray photons in the primary beam.

39

what is the primary controlling factor for x-ray beam quality?

kVp

40

Which type of radiation is produced when an outer shell electron fills an inner shell vacancy?

Characteristic

41

What is the minimum recommended filtration for general diagnostic x-ray units?

2.5 mm Al

42

In which position should the patient be placed in order to demonstrate the right intervertebral foramina of the cervical spine while minimizing radiation dose to the thyroid gland?

RAO

43

What is the advantage of using high kVp, low mAs technique with DR systems?

patient exposure decreases

44

With all other factors remaining the same, a decrease in kVp with cause an increase in which x-ray beam characteristic?

wavelength

45

Which fluoroscopic mode results in the lowest patient dose?

Digital pulsed progressive

46

A six year old pediatric patient arrives in the radiology suite for a radiograph of the abdomen. Which st of technical factors provides the best radiation protection?

82 kVp, 7.5 mAs

47

What is the maximum allowable tabletop intensity in high level control (HLC) fluoroscopic procedures?

20 R/min

48

A radiographer performs an abdomen examination with a mobile DR system. In order to reduce the likelihood of a repeat exposure, he decides to increase the technical factors slightly more than necessary. Which term refers to this undesirable practice?

Dose creep

49

Which is the required amount of inherent filtration for general purpose x-ray tubes?

0.5 mm AL equivalent

50

According to the FDA, what is the maximum air kerma rate for fixed fluoroscopic units?

10 cGy/min

51

A radiographer stands six feet from the x-ray source when performing a portable chest exam and receives an exposure of 2 mGy. If the radiographer performs a repeat exam using the same technical factors standing at a distance of three feet from the source, how much exposure will be received?

8 mGy

According the inverse square law, when the distance is halved, the exposure increases by a factor of four. In this scenario, the radiographer will receive 8 mGy at a distance of three feet, compared to 2 mGy at a distance of six feet. The equation is old intensity/new intensity equals the square of the new distance/old distance. The other answers result from incorrect application of the inverse square law.

52

Which factors will impact the radiation barrier calculations for an x-ray room?

(3)

  1. people in adjoining rooms
  2. types of exams performed in the room
  3. how often the room is ued
53

Which procedures should imaging personnel perform in order to reduce exposure time during fluoroscopic procedures?

(3)

  1. use the last image hold feature
  2. use pulsed progressive mode
  3. reset the cumulative time before the procedure
54

Which organ has the highest tissue weighting factor?

gonads

The gonads are the most radiosensitive organ, with a weighting factor of 0.20. The weighting factor for both the thyroid and breast is .05. The weighting factor for lung tissue is .12.

55

Which minimum thickness of lead shielding is required to cover the bucky slot during fluoroscopic exams?

0.25 mm

56

Which value represents the annual maximum dose limit for exposure to the extremities in medical imaging personnel?

500 mSv

57

Which is the maximum allowable exposure to the embryo or fetus each month?

0.5 mSv

58

A 14 year old female patient arrives in the radiology department for a scoliosis series. Which option provides both the bst image quality and lowest radiation dose for this patient?

Employ shadow shields

59

For which lumbar spine projections should a shaped contact shield be applied to provide protection for the gonads of a male patient? (3)

  1. L5-S1 lateral spot
  2. AP
  3. AP oblique, RPO
60

How will dose area product (DAP) be affected during a 4 Roentgen exposure is the collimated field is reduced from 8 X 8 cm to 4 X 4 cm?

DAP will be 1/4 of the original

61

Which statement correctly describes the amount of kinetic energy required for a photon to remove an inner shell electron from its orbit?

The same or greater than the electron binding energy

62

In the diagnostic energy range, which substances possesses the greatest ability to absorb radiant energy through the process of photoelectric absorption?

bone

63

Which are by-products of photoelectric absorption?

photoelectric and characteristic photon

64

Which interaction with matter contributes to the majority of occupational exposure?

compton scattering

65

Which describes the relationship between LT and RBE?

As LET increases, RBE increases

66

Which describes a linear, non-threshold dose-response relationship?

No dose may be considered completely safe

67

Which term is an alternate name for the prodromal stage of ARS?

Initial stage

68

Which whole body dose most closely approximates the LD 50/30 for humans?

300 rad

The LD 50/30 refers to the whole-body dose that can be lethal to 50% of the population over 30 days; for humans, this dose is reached is between 300 and 400 rad

69

At which energy range dose photodisentegration occur?

above 10 megaelectron volts (mEv)

70

For which purpose is gonadal shielding recommended?

To reduce the probability of genetic mutations

71

Which combination of technical factors is recommended to reduce patient dose?

high kVp low mAs

72

What is the primary purpose of beam filtration?

To protect patient from low energy x-rays

73

Patient dose during fluoroscopy can be minimized by which methods? (3)

  1. restrict beam size
  2. use larger diameter modes
  3. use last image hold
74

When a pregnant patient must undergo a radiographic procedure, which practices will minimize radiation exposure? (3)

  1. select appropriate exposure factors for the part being imaged
  2. shield the abdomen and pelvis whenever this does not interfere with the image
  3. collimate to include only the area of interest
75

Which method should be the first choice to reduce exposure to the reproductive organs in every radiographic exam?

collimate to include only the anatomy of interest

76

How should the radiology manager schedule a pregnant radiographer?

Maintain the employees same schedule before declaration of pregnancy

77

how many millimeters of lead equivalency is recommended for lead aprons worn by pregnant radiographers?

0.5

78

How should a mobile C-arm fluoroscope be positioned to provide maximum radiation protection to the operator?

With the tube under the patient and as far away from the patient as possible

79

If all other factors remain constant, how is radiation dose related to SOD?

by the inverse square law

80

Over the entire gestational period, what is the fetal exposure limit?

0.5 rem (5 millisievert)

81

Which term means the loss or change of a nitrogenous base in the DNA chain?

Mutation

82

Which human cell is the most resistant to the effects of radiation?

neurons

83

Which dose may cause temporary sterility of both males and females?

2 Gy

84

Biologic damage resulting from the ionization of key atoms causing these molecules to become inactive or functionally altered is much more likely to occur after exposure to which type of radiation?

High LET radiation such as alpha particles

85

Place the following actions in order of greatest to least impact for reducing occupational exposure during fluoroscopy.

  1. film badge
  2. TLD
  3. OSL
  4. Pocket ionization chamber
86

Place the following actions in the order of greatest to least impact for reducing occupational exposure during fluoroscopy.

  1. Stand behind control panel
  2. double distance from x-ray source or patient
  3. cut exposure time in half
  4. wear a lead apron
87

Which post processing action is always acceptable?

Annotating with an upright marker to show the patient was in an erect position

88

How does a wide window width affect an image?

decreases contrast

89

In CR systems, the photostimulable phosphor plate is made of which material?

Barium Fluorohalide

90

Which radiopaque marker is image appropriate after micturition has taken place?

Post-void

91

Which procedure is most effective for reducing localized image blurring caused by involuntary patient motion?

Decrease exposure time

92

Assuming that AEC is to be used, what backup mAs are sufficient for a large adult AP lumbar spine done at 80 kVp?

100 mAs

93

The radiographer is using AEC on a sinus examination. The quality control technologist directs the radiographer to repeat the Water's projection with increased contrast. Thus the radiographer changes the kVp from 85 to 72. What change to AEC settings or positioning is needed?

No change

94

Which x-ray tube orientation represents the correct application of the anode heel effect?

The anode end is positioned toward the head for an AP thoracic spine projection

95

A lateral lumbar spine image was obtained with a field size of 11X14 inches at 95 kVp and AEC with the center detector selected. The resulting image demonstrates excessive quantum noise. Which is the most likely cause for this appearance?

The patient was not accurately centered

96

Which effect does switching to the small focal spot size have on a manifest image?

Image unsharpness decreases

97

Which acronym describes a network of computers that manages digital images?

PACS

98

How will raising the window level affect the digital image?

increases brightness

99

A fixed kVp variable mA chart recommends exposure factors of 70 kVp and 32 mAs for an AP abdomen projection on an average-size patient. Based on this chart, which fixed kVp technique is most appropriate for an AP projection of a double contrast upper GI image?

90 kVp, 8 mAs

15% kVp rule

100

Which mA station with result in a mAs value of 44 if the exposure time is 0.11 seconds?

400 mA

101

Which image, when performed according to normal standards, will demonstrate the greatest magnification of the anatomy of interest?

Lateral cervical spine

102

Which term refers to a graphical representation of pixel values?

Histogram

103

The collimator light must be aligned to the radiation field within what percent of the SID?

2%

104

With all other factors remaining the same, which SID results in the greatest exposure to the IR?

40 inches

105

How are AEC devices for mammo different than those used with diagnostic radiography?

Greater accuracy required

106

Which set of exposure factors is most likely to provide clear visualization of the upper cervical spine through the mandible when performing an AP wagging jaw projection?

75 kVp 25 mA and 2 seconds

107

When using digital imaging, which has the greatest influence on contrast?

LUT

108

The mobile chest image lacks which required element?

anatomical markers

109

The center of the x-ray beam must be aligned to the center of the bucky tray to within what percent of the SID?

1%

110

Which mAs setting is most likely to produce quantum mottle?

2.5 mAs

111

Opening the collimators wider than necessary using digital radiography has which effect on image quality?

increased image noise

112

Consider these different abdomen images of the same patient. What most likely caused the difference in these images?

Image A was produced at a shorter SID

Image A was blacker, or more dense, so it makes sense that a shorter SI was used.

113

How does aliasing appear radiographically when using CR?

Two superimposed images, slightly out of alignment

114

Which is an advantage of digital imaging systems compared to traditional film screen systems?

Improved contrast resolution

One advantage digital systems have over film-screen receptors is improved contrast resolution, or a greater ability to distinguish between structures of similar densities (this is also termed improved dynamic range). Digital systems are no less susceptible to image noise than traditional film-based systems. Spatial resolution is decreased relative to film-screen imaging due to the size of the pixel. Digital systems are more sensitive to scatter radiation than film-screen receptors.

115

Which mAs value should be selected for a patient measuring 30 cm if 22 mAs is optimal for a patient measuring 25 cm?

44 mAs

When using fixed kilovolts peak techniques, an increase in patient thickness of 4 to 5 cm requires that the mAs be increased by a factor of 2. In this example, an increase of 5 cm would require in increase from 22 mAs to 44 mAs. The other values represent increases of 25%, 40%, and 80%, respectively.

116

Which scenario causes foreshortening of the anatomy on the image?

The humerus in contact with the IR, the forearm lifted off the image receptor, and the central ray directed perpendicular to the long axis of the humerus

Foreshortening occurs when the part is angled in relationship to the central ray, or when the forearm is lifted off the IR, but the central ray is still directed perpendicular to the long axis of the humerus

117

Which is the best way to avoid excessive quantum noise when using cassette based digital systems?

Increase the amount of exposure to the IR

118

Which is a primary advantage of a rotating anode?

less heat is generated at the target

119

Which factor will have the greatest impact on decreasing recorded detail or spatial resolution?

Motion

120

At which location is the ionization chamber located in the AEC device?

between the grid and IR

121

A portable chest x-ray is taken at 56 inches using 12 mAs at 72 kVp. Which technique should the radiographer use if the chest x-ray is repeated in the radiology dept at 72 inches to maintain density?

24 mAs at 72 kVp

In order to maintain density when distance is changed, the radiographer should adjust mAs using the exposure/density maintenance formula (mAs1/mAs2 = D1 squared/D2 squared)

122

Which technical factor increases the number of x-ray photons reaching the IR?

increase mA

123

Which term refers to the positive electrode of the x-ray tube?

anode

124

all other factors remaining the same, how will increasing the SID from 40 to 60 inches affect the appearance of a radiographic image?

decrease magnification

125

Which device provides the required amount of voltage for x-ray production?

transformer

126

Which factors affect spatial resolution in digital imaging? (2)

  1. greater number of pixels
  2. smaller pixels
127

Which substance is added to the x-ray tube housing to increase heat dissipation?

oil

128

Which combination results in an image with the greatest recorded detail?

2 inch object-to-image-receptor-distance (OID), 72 inch source-to-image-receptor-distance (SID), 0.6 mm focal spot size (FSS). Correct

129

An image of the abdomen demonstrates appropriate density and scale of contrast, but motio blur is present due to peristalsis. If the original image was obtained with a 200 mA station and an exposure time of 0.35 seconds, which set of technical factors will produce a comparable exposure while minimizing motion artifact?

500 mA and 0.14 Seconds

130

Which device is located in the primary section of the general x-ray circuit?

timer circuit

131

which device in the x-ray circuit changes alternating current to direct current?

rectifier

132

which effect does a step up transformer have on voltage and current?

voltage is increased and current is decreased

133

Which effect will a low SNR have on the appearance of a digital radiographic image?

decreased contrast resolution

SNR is largely dependent on the number of photons available for image formation. Fewer available photons results in a low SNR, which in turn results in higher image noise and decreased contrast resolution.

134

A radiograph of optimal density is produced at 15 mAs and a SID of 40 inches. Which mAs value is required to produce the same radiographic density if this exam is repeated at an SID of 48 inches?

22

The density maintenance formula, mAs1/mAs2 = D1 squared/D2 squared, provides a method of compensating for changes in SID. In this instance, 15/x = (40)2/(48)2; 1600x = 34,560; x = 34,560/1600 = 22 mAs. The other answers result from math errors.

135

Which post processing techniques may be used with digital imaging? (3)

  1. smoothing
  2. filtering
  3. electronic masking
136

Which advantage is gained by increasing the standard SID from 40 to 48 inches?

increased image resolution

137

Beginning with the patients head in true lateral position, which positioning method is recommended for demonstrating the mandibular body without foreshortening on an axiolateral oblique method of the mandible?

Rotate the patients head 30 degrees toward the IR

138
card image

Consider this oblique hand image. Which statement correctly describes this image?

The hand is under-rotated

139

Which lumbar spine structures are best demonstrated with the patient in a 45 degree LPO?

Left Z joints

lumabar intervertebral foramina are shown on laterals

140

Which type of pathology is defined as inflammation of an outpouching of the colon?

diverticulitis

Diverticulitis is an inflammation of the outpouching of the colon. Diverticulosis is simply the condition of having outpouchings in the colon

141

The Holmblad method is performed to demonstrate which radiographic appearance?

Open intercondylar fossa

142

In which position should the patient be placed for insertion of the enema tip during a barium enema procedure?

Sims'

143

Which body plane is positioned perpendicular to the IR on a lateral chest projection?

Midcoronal plane

144

Which radiographic appearance results when the anterior surface of the patients elbow is rotated 45 degrees medially for an AP elbow projection?

card image

The coronoid process is seen in profile

145

Which bones make up the ankle mortise?

card image

tibia, fibula, and talus

146

Where should the CR be directed for a lateral lumbosacral spine projection when using a 14X17in IR?

Iliac crest

147

Which statement most accurately describes the position of the kidneys within the abdominal cavity of an average patient?

card image

The left kidney is positioned slightly higher than the right kidney

148

Which finding is demonstrated most clearly by a left lateral decubitus image of the abdomen?

card image

free air over the liver

149

Which is the correct central ray location for an AP knee?

1/2 inch below the apex of the patella

150

An AP shoulder image acquired with the epicondyles perpendicular to the image receptor with demonstrate which radiographic appearance?

card image

The lesser tubercle is seen in profile medially

151

How far should the upper border of the IR extend above the shoulders for a PA chest?

1.5-2 inches

152

How many posterior ribs should be visable above the diapragm on a PA chest?

10

153
card image

Based on the appearance of the image, in which position was the patient placed for this postfluoroscopy image?

RAO

The RAO position, shown here, demonstrates the stomach rotated clear of the vertebral column with air in the fundus and barium in the body and pylorus. The right lateral position shows the vertebral column lateral, the LPO position demonstrates barium is in the fundus and the air is in the pylorus and the supine position shows the vertebral column in its anterior perspective.

154

Which structure is demonstrated without superimposition on a properly position medial oblique foot?

card image

cuboid

155

Place the parts of the respiratory tract in order from the most proximal to the most distal.

  1. trachea
  2. primary bronchi
  3. bronchioles
  4. alveolar sacs
156

Which statement describes the presence of patient rotation on a lateral C spine image?

card image

anterior to posterior displacement of Z joint

157

Which describes the appearance of a PA axial projection of the skull using the Caldwell method?

petrous pyramids in lower 1/3 or orbit

158

Which portion of the small intestine is most commonly affected by Crohns disease?

Ileum

Cecum is part of large intestine

159

Which positioning procedure is performed to demonstrate the right intervertebral foramina of the C spine?

LPO

160

Which appearance is demonstrated by a lateral projection of the shoulder obtained using the Lawrence method?

card image

The proximal humerus is projected through the lung field

161

Which radiographic finding is characteristic of C spine trauma resulting in a jefferson fracture?

card image

Open mouth view demonstrates a bilateral displacement of the lateral masses of C1

162

When is a cross table later preferred over a recumbent left lateral when obtaining images for a myelogram?

Contrast may move out of the area of interest when rolling into the lateral position

163

For which purpose is orthoroentgenography performed?

long bone measurement

164

Which method of respiration will demonstrate the maximum number of ribs above the diaphragm when performing an AP projection of the upper ribs?

suspended deep inspiration

165

A PA axial projection of the coccyx is performed because the patient is unable to tolerate the supine position due to injuries sustained after falling backward. How should the CR be adjusted for this projection?

10 degrees cephalad

166

Which anatomical structure is the most medial?

card image

Coronoid tubercle

167

If a radiographic image is requested to show the nephrogram phase of an intravenous urogram, how long after IV contrast administration should this image be obtained?

30 seconds to 1 minute

The nephrogram phase of an IVU should be obtained within the first 30 seconds to one minute post injection in order to show the initial blush as contrast enters the nephrons, but has not yet reached the collecting tubules.Â

168

An AP pelvis image shows evidence that the patient is rotated toward the right hip. Which statement below best describes the appearance of this image?

Right iliac wing appears larger than the left iliac wing

169

In which exam is contrast introduced in to the area of interest in a retrograde fashion?

ERCP

170

Which is the correct CR location for a PA hand projection?

3rd MCP

171

The right RPO chest position may be used instead of the LAO position to demonstrate the heart and great vessels. How will using the RPO position affect the appearance of these structures?

The left lung appears shorter than the right

172

Which alternative procedure is recommended when positioning a patient for a Swimmers lateral of the cervicothoracic region if the shoulder away from the image receptor cannot be fully depressed

angle the central ray 3-5 degrees caudad

173

Which anatomical structure is the most distal?

card image

Radial tuberosity

174

Which tarsal bone is best seen when the plantar surface of the foot is positioned perpendicular to the image receptor, and a 40 degree cephalic CR is directed to the base of the third metatarsal?

Calcaneus

175

Where should the CR enter the patient on an AP projection of the chest with the patient in the lateral decubitus position?

three inches below the jugular notch

176

Which method of respiration is recommended for a soft tissue neck exam to evaluate the trachea?

shallow breathing

177

What should be demonstrated on a properly exposed supine image of the abdomen?

perirenal fat

178

Which statement describes a properly positioned lateral foot image?

superimposition of the first and fifth metatarsal heads

179

Which wrist projection best demonstrates a Colles' fracture?

card image

Lateral Wrist

180
card image

...

181

In which position is the knee placed in order to demonstrate the head of the fibula without superimposition?

45 degrees medial rotation

182

Which anatomical landmark coincides with the level of CR entrance point for a PA chest radiograph?

inferior border of scapula

183

The alexander method is used to demonstrate dislocation of which joint?

acromioclavicular

184

After contrast has been administered into the hip joint during arthrography, what should the patient do?

Exercise the joint to allow the contrast to completely fill the joint space

185

Which is the CR location for an AP oblique projection of the urinary bladder during a cystogram?

2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis and 2 inches medial to the elevated ASIS

186

Which CR orientation is recommended for a standard AP axial projection of the skull to demonstrate the dorsum sellae within the foramen magnum

30 degrees to the OML

A standard AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull is performed with the CR positioned at a 30-degree angle to the OML.

187

How should the CR be angled to compensate for a patient who is unable to assume the erect lordotic position for an AP axial lordotic projection of the chest?

15-20 degrees cephalic

188
card image

Which skull positioning line is situated perpedicular to the IR when performing a Water's method of the facial bones?

card image

MML

this projects the petrous pyramids below the maxillary sinuses.

189

The appendix is connected anatomically to which structure?

card image

cecum

190

Which CR angle is recommended to demonstrate the coronoid process of the elbow using the Coyle Method?

45 degrees away from the shoulder

191

How are the patients hand and fingers positioned for a PA wrist projection?

hand pronated with fingers flexed

192

At which location is the CR directed for an AP projection of the thoracic spine?

midway between the sternal notch and the xiphoid process

193

How should the radiographer rotate the patients lower leg and foot for an AP oblique projection of the second toe?

30-45 degrees medially

194

Which position/projection of the elbow best demonstrates the trochlear notch of the ulna?

card image

lateral

195

Which x-ray tube orientation is used to create a 90 degree angle between the CR and the metatarsals for an AP axial projection of the foot

10 degrees posteriorly

196

Where should the CR enter the patient for a lateral sacrum projection?

3-4 inches posterior to the ASIS

197

Which projection demonstrates the Right kidney in profile?

30 degree LPO

198

Which projection of the foot demonstrates the cuboid bone in profile with the least bony superimposition?

card image

medial oblique

199

If a patient is to undergo a small bowel series without a preceding upper upper GI series, how much barium sulfate suspension should be given?

two 250cc cups

200

Which is the proper amount and direction of heel rotation recommended for a PA projection of the patella?

5-10 degrees laterally

201

Study the four digital images of both shoulders. What best describes the quality of these images?

card image

the degree of internal rotation was inadequate on both sides

Neither image shows the lesser tubercle in profile medially

202

On a radiograph of a shoulder, the greater tubercle is visualized in profile. Which projection was taken?

card image

External rotation

203

There are several methods to overcome sagging of the lumbar spine in the lateral position. Where should the radiographer begin?

Assessing the line connecting spinous processes relative to the table top

204

Which CR angle is recommended for an AP axial projection of the toes?

15 degrees toward the heel

205

When performing a RAO of the sternum, a radiographer will rotate the pt 15-20 degrees. Why is this done?

to prevent superimposition of the vertebra and the sternum

A 15-20 degree rotation is used to prevent superimposition of the vertebrae and sternum. If this rotation is not used, then the spine will be blocking the sternum. Rotating the patient will not move the sternum from the shadow of the heart. The heart shadow will still be superimposed on the sternum.

206

Which condition may increase bowel motility?

Malabsorption syndrome

207

Which projection of the stomach demonstrates the duodenal bulb filled with barium and free of superimposition?

RAO

Duodenum is on right side

208

Place the parts of the GI tract in order from proximal to distal.

  1. duodenum
  2. jejunum
  3. ileum
  4. cecum
209

Which projection is freest of bony superimposition over the TMJ?

Schuller

210

which projection will clearly show a clay shovelers frature?

card image

lateral cervical

211

What is the angle between the intervertebral foramina and the midsaggital plane in the thoracic spine?

card image

90

212

Which position of the elbow will clearly demonstrate the radial neck free of ulnar superimposition?

card image
213

According to Merrills Atlas where should the central be centered to best demonstrate the rami for a posteroanterior mandible projection?

acanthion

214

This 45 degree oblique ankle image demonstrates the calcaneus obscuring the distal aspect of the lateral mortise and distal fibula. How should the radiographer correct this image?

Dorsiflex foot

215

On a lateral radiograph of a patients leg, where will the patients tibia be in relation to the fibula?

card image

partially superimposed

Only the proximal and distal ends of the two bones should be superimposed.

216

Which describes correct positioning for a PA chest projection? (3)

  1. the midcoronal plane is parallel with the IR
  2. The shoulders are depressed
  3. The shoulders are at equal distances from the IR
217

Correct positioning for an AP pelvis requires the lower limbs to be internally rotated until which structures are parallel with the IR?

Femoral necks

218

While reviewing an AP portable chest exam on the display a radiographer notices the medial ends of the clavicles are demonstrated just below the top of the apices of the lungs. Which positioning error has occurred?

The central ray angle was angled towards the head

219
card image

Can the positioning of this open mouth odontoid view be improved?

No, its the best that can be achieved with this patient

220

On a fan lateral radiograph of a left hand, which group of bones is best visualized?

Phalanges

221
card image

A radiographers critiques an AP ankle. The medial mortise joint is open while the lateral mortise joint is closed. How can the radiographer adjust the ankle to correct this image?

No correction needed

222

A radiographer critiques an AP image of the ribs. The left SC joint is demonstrated without vertebral column superimposition. What should the radiographer do?

Rotate patient to the right

223

What is the correct position of the midsagittal plane with respect to the IR when performing a true lateral projection of a skull?

parallel to the IR

224

Where should the radiographer direct the CR for a PA chest?

MSP 18-20 cm below the vertebral prominens

225
card image

How should the radiographer correct this image of a medial oblique foot?

Increase medial rotation

226

Where is the anterior arch of C1?

card image
227

Which exam may be used to assess cruciate ligament pathology?

card image

knee arthrogram

228

Why are dorsal decubitus projections of the abdomen obtained?

card image

to see free gas or fluid levels in the abdomen

229

Which bony landmark is commonly used for central ray location on an AP chest projection?

jugular notch

230

Which procedure is most appropriate when performing a cervical spine exam for suspected trauma on a patient on a backboard with the head immobilized?

Obtain a cross table lateral for the physician prior to further imaging

231
card image

A lateral scapula image demonstrates the lateral border of the scapula next to the ribs and the vertebral border of the scapula demonstrated posterolaterally. How should the radiographer correct this image?

decrease patient obliquity

232

A trauma patient arrives in the radiology department on a backboard with possible trauma to the anterior chest wall. Which is the best method for obtaining an oblique sternum radiograph in this setting?

place the patient in a 15-20 degree LPO

233

Which position is used to demonstrate the left kidney in profile for an IVU?

30 degree RPO

234

When imaging the toes, how much is the central ray angled for the AP axial image?

15 degrees

235

What can be demonstrated with a left lateral decub position of the thorax?

Air in the Right pleural space and fluid in the left pleural space

Air up fluid down

236

An 82 year old female patient is transported to the x-ray dept for an exam of the right hip. The ordering physician informs the radiographer that the patient fell at home, and there is high suspicion for a femoral neck fracture. Which positioning guideline is best for the radiographer to follow?

Do not move the affected leg

237

Which type of fracture results from a direct blow to the front of the orbit?

Blowout

238

Body habitus can affect many things, including the position of the gallbladder. Place the body habitus in order from which habitus will cause the gallbladder to occupy the highest position in the abdominal cavity to the habitus that will cause the gallbladder to occupy the lowest position in the abdominal cavity.

card image
  1. hypersthenic
239

What is the proper amount of internal leg rotation for the ankle mortise joint to appear open?

15-20 degrees

240

For a lateral femur, if a patient is rotated too far anteriorly, what will happen to the condyles on the distal femur?

medial condyle will be anterior to lateral condyle

241

Which anatomy is well visualized when the foot is is properly positioned and exposed in an axial plantodorsal projection of the heel?

an open middle talocalcaneal joint

242

An image demonstrates the patella superimposing the medial condyle of the knee and little superimposition between the head of the fibula and the proximal tibia. Which projection of the knee has been correctly performed?

AP with medial rotation

243

Which is the best projection to evaluate the coronoid process in profile?

card image

Medial oblique elbow

244

To demonstrate scoliosis, which procedure is best?

Erect AP of the entire spine

245

A lateral knee image reveals that the femoral condyles are not superimposed with the medial condyle situated posteriorly. How should the radiographer correct this image?

card image

Position patella closer to the IR

246

While performing an AP Projection of the scapula, what should be done to the patients are to move the patients scapula in a lateral direction?

abduction

247

What should the radiographer do to correct this image?

card image

No correction needed

248

Which CR angulation is recommended to prevent foreshortening of the sacrum on an AP projection?

15 degrees cephalad

249

What should be done to correct positioning on an AP elbow with lateral rotation when the radial head is slightly superimposed over the proximal ulna on the first effort?

card image

The elbow joint should be rotated laterally

The AP with lateral rotation should demonstrate the radial head, neck and tuberosity free from superimposition of the ulna

  1. AP
  2. lateral
  3. medial oblique
  4. lateral oblique
250

Which projection is a radiographer performing if the patients hand is turned in extreme internal rotation, with the central ray directed perpendicular to the first MCP joint?

AP thumb

251

Which finding is considered a contraindication for myelography?

blood in CSF

Blood in the cerebrospinal fluid indicates that there is an irritation within the subarachnoid space, which can be exacerbated by the injection of contrast medium.

252

Which describes the correct positioning for demonstrating the right SI joint, with the joint space open?

25 degree LPO

Upside joint is imaged

253

When attempting to demonstrate air-fluid levels, what is the correct central ray orientation for an AP semierect chest projection?

parallel to the floor

254
card image

Which position was used to produce the image of the stomach?

LPO fundus

This is undeniably the case, as the bulk of the barium is seen in the fundus of the stomach which is the lowest part of the stomach in that position.

255

Where should the radiographer center to demonstrate the only point of articulation between the upper limb and the trunk?

Level of T2/T3 and 1 to 2 inches lateral from the MSP

256

Identify the medical condition in a patients history which should be cleared by the radiologist before the injection of an ionic, water soluble, injectable contrast agent.

Diabetes

257

A patient with advanced Alzheimer's disease needs to have a lung biopsy. Which condition is involved in legally obtaining informed consent to perform this procedure?

A guardian has been fully informed

258

Which disease is contracted by exposure to infected blood and blood products?

Hepatitis B

Contact with infected blood or blood products is necessary to transmit Hepatitis B. Tuberculosis, Smallpox, and Rubella are transmitted via airborne or airborne droplet methods.

Hep B affects the liver and is transmitted by dirty needles, sex, tattoos, razors and toothbrushes

259

A patient become unresponsive after receiving an injection of iodinated contrast media. The patients blood pressure is 80/50. what has likely occured?

anaphylactic shock

260

Which type of contrast is recommended if the patient has a perforated bowel?

Gastrografin

Gastrografin or other water soluble contrast media is used, because it is safer for Gastrografin to leak out of the bowel and into the peritoneal cavity. Isovue is expensive

261

If a patient with a compound fracture has an immobilization device in place, what is the best action by the radiographer?

Leave the device in place unless directed by a physician to remove it

262

Which condition could lead to neurogenic shock?

Head trauma

neurogenix shock is the failure of arterial resistance and causes a pooling of blood in periphery vessels

263

During a myelogram, a patient on the table stops breathing, and cardiac arrest is suspected. In an emergency like this where would needed equipment and supplies be found?

crash cart

264

Which normal effect of aging is a common obstacle to communication with elder adults?

hearing impairment

265

which example represents a violation of HIPAA?

Patients condition is discussed by staff in the break room

266

Which is an example of a violation of patients privacy?

A named patient is called for his barium enema

267

A patient with a history of stroke and hemiparalysis is transported to the x-ray dept by wheelchair. Which action should be taken first by the radiographer?

Place the patients strong side next to the table

268

A patient with a wound infection cause by MRSA should be under which precation?

Contact

Patients infected with multidrug-resistant infections such as MRSA are placed under contact precautions, which are designed to prevent the transmission of pathogens by direct skin-to-skin contact

it protects the patient

269

Which statement most accurately explains the typical reaction a patient can expect following the IV administration of low osmolar iodinated contrast?

You might feel a warm sensation

270

How can a radiographer be less intimidating to a child?

Squat down to the childs level

271

If a patient contracts an infectious microorganism from soiled linen, which term refers to this method of disease transmission?

Fomite

272

What is the proper sequencing of exams if the patient needs a BE, IVU, and thyroid uptake on the same day?

Thyroid uptake, IVU and BE

273

What contrast would be used for a patient who has asthma?

Iodinated nonionic

274

What are the three common sites for measuring the pulse of an adult patient?

Brachial radial & carotid

275

What is the term for the pressure in the arterial blood vessels when the left ventricle contracts?

Systolic

276

A step up transformer with 300 turns in the primary coil is supplied with 220 volts to this primary. How many secondary turns are needed to produce 66,000 volt output?

90,000 turns

277

What is the result if the total lead content of a grid is decreased?

decreased scatter absorption

278

In tomography, the radiographer is able to control the thickness of the slice by altering which of the following?

exposure angle

The exposure angle (A) is the arc formed by the movement of the x-ray tube

279

What statement is correct regarding the relationship of patient dose to EI?

EI gives an approximation of the patients dose

280

If all of the images from one radiographic room seem to appear excessively noisy, what might the radiographer suspect?

The AEC is set an inappropriate speed class

281

Which component of a diagnostic x-ray tube restricts the primary beam to the area of interest?

collimator

282

What is a method of electronic display resolution and quality control testing?

SMPTE

283

A finished radiograph has marked quantum mottle. positioning, collimation and, identification markers are correct. Which action should the radiographer take?

increase exposure factors