Human Anatomy & Physiology: Anatomy and Physiology II Comprehensive Final Flashcards


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1

Of the following senses, which accounts for the majority of sensory receptors in the body?

a) hearing

b) olfaction

c) vision

d) gustation

c) vision

2

Which of the following terms is a synonym for eyelids?

a) commissures

b) palpebrae

c) caruncles

d) tarsal plates

b) palpebrae

3

In order to turn the eye straight down, the actions of the ________ muscle(s) is (are) required

a) Superior rectus and superior oblique

b) inferior rectus

c) inferior rectus and lateral rectus

d) inferior rectus and superior oblique

d) inferior rectus and superior oblique

4

The cornea is actually part of the ______ layer of eye

a) fibrous

b) vascular

c) Sensory

d) scleral

a) fibrous

5

Sympathetic fibers innervating the iris of the eye cause which response?

a) constriction

b) dilation

c) papillary decrease

d) rapid blinking

b) Dilation

6

Focusing an object on the ______ provides the highest visual acuity.

a) rods

b) blind spot

c) fovea centralis

d) choroid

c) fovea centralis

7

The formation of rainbows reflects the fact that:

a) during rain showers, an abundance of electromagnetic energy is available

b) visible light consists of multiple wavelengths of light

c) light travels in a linear fashion

d) X rays become visible by reflecting off of raindrops

b) visible light consists of multiple wavelengths of light

8

Sympathetic innervation is more predominant during _______.

a) distant vision

b) close vision

c) accommodation of the lenses

d) myopic vision

a) distant vision

9

Functional differences between rod vision and cone vision can be explained because:

a) in cones, the disc membrane is continuous with the plasma membrane

b) in rods, the discs are discontinuous

c) rods participate in converging pathways where as many as 100 rods connect with a single ganglion cell

d) rods have one of three different pigments sensitive to different wavelengths of light

c) rods participate in converging pathways where as many as 100 rods connect with a single ganglion cell

10

Visual pigments are differentiated based on the identity of the _____ protein.

a) retinal

b) vitamin a

c) 11-cis-isomer

d) opsin

d) opsin

11

The detection of light is ultimately communicated to the brain because of _______.

a) photoreceptor cell depolarization

b) photoreceptor cells releasing neurotransmitter

c) photoreceptor cell hyperpolarization

d) bipolar cells receiving excitatory postsynaptic potentials

c) photoreceptor cell hyperpolarization

12

During light adaptation:

a) the cone system turns off and the rod system turns on

b) we lose retinal sensitivity but gain visual acuity

c) the pupils dilate to allow more light to enter the eye

d) rhodopsin accumulates and transducing returns to the outer segment

b) we lose retinal sensitivity, but gain visual acuity

13

Which structures are the visual reflex centers controlling the extrinsic muscles of the eyes?

a) lateral geniculate nuclei

b) pretectal nuclei

c) superior colliculi

d) suprachiasmatic nuclei

c) superior colliculi

14

The hearing receptors are located in the _____.

a) external ear

b) middle ear

c) internal ear

d) tympanic cavity

c) internal ear

15

The _______ of sound waves is interpreted as differing pitches, whereas the _______ of sound waves is interpreted as loudness.

a) frequency; amplitude

b) quality; decibels

c) amplitude; frequency

d) decibels; quality

a) frequency; amplitude

16

The middle ear ossicles serve to ______ the sound waves onto the oval window.

a) bypass

b) amplify

c) transduce

d) interpret

b) amplify

17

Transduction of sound stimuli occurs as a result of:

a) bending of the hair cells, which stimulates the opening of the mechanically gated ion channels in their membrane

b) a receptor potential generation

c) release of the neurotransmitter glutamate

d) all of the above

d) all of the above

18

Dynamic and static equilibrium transduction both use the principle of _____.

a) mechanoreception

b) chemoreception

c) thermoreception

d) photoreception

a) mechanoreception

19

Which group of messengers is defined as acting on cells within the same tissues?

a) autocrines

b) hormones

c) paracrines

d) eicosanoids

c) paracrines

20

A major difference between nuerotransmitters and hormones is that hormones reach their destination via ______.

a) direct contact on their target cell

b) cerebrospinal fluid

c) ducts

d) the blood

d) the blood

21

A major determinant of a hormones mechanism of action is _______.

a) whether the hormonal molecule is hydrophobic or hydrophilic

b) its size

c) whether it is rapid acting or slow acting

d) if it activates gene activity or not

a) whether the hormonal molecule is hydrophobic or hydrophilic

22

Receptors or steroid hormones are commonly located _______.

a) inside the target cell

b) on the plasma membrane of the target cell

c) in the blood plasma

d) in the extracellular fluid

a) inside the target cell

23

Interaction with a membrane-bound receptor will transduce the hormonal message via ____.

a) depolarization

b) direct gene activation

c) a second messenger

d) endocytosis

c) a second messenger

24

Second messenger activating hormones circulate in minute quantities because:

a) they are not important signal molecules

b) small concentrations of hormone can activate many intracellular signals via amplification

c) they are continuously released from the gland

d) neurotransmitters also bind to hormone receptors

b) small concentrations of hormone can activate many intracellular signals via amplification

25

Which of the following molecules act as second messengers?

a) cAMP

b) Ca2+

c) inositol triphosphate

d) all the above

d) all the above

26

In order for a hormone to activate a target cell, the target cell must possess ______.

a) a receptor

b) a second messenger

c) the hormone

d) a chaperone

a) a receptor

27

When the pancreas releases insulin in direct response to blood glucose, this is an example of a ___ stimulation.

a) humoral

b) neural

c) hormonal

d) negative feedback

a) humoral

28

When an infant suckles at his mothers breast, the mothers nuerohypophysis releases oxytocin. This is an example of _____ neural stimulation.

a) humoral

b) neural

c) hormonal

d) negative feedback

b) neural

29

When the ovaries secrete estrogen in response to the hormone GnRH, this is an example of ____ stimulation.

a) humoral

b) neural

c) hormonal

d) negative feedback

c) hormonal

30

Blood levels of hormones are kept within very narrow ranges by ________ mechanisms.

a) humoral

b) neural

c) hormonal

d) negative feedback

d) negative feedback

31

Which hormone is produced in the hypothalamus?

a) ADH

b) ACTH

c) LH

d) GH

a) ADH

32

Hormones secreted into they hypophyseal portal system are detected by the _____.

a) posterior pituitary

b) anterior pituitary

c) median eminence

d) infundibulum

b) anterior pituitary

33

The long bone growth-promoting effects of growth hormone are mediated by _______.

a) somatostatin

b) somatotrophs

c) insulin-like growth factor

d) insulin

b) somatotrophs

34

Secretions from the corticotrophs activate cells of the ______, while secretions from the gonadotrophs affect cells of the ______.

a) adrenal cortex; gonads

b) thyroid; mammary glands

c) gonads; adrenal cortex

d) mammary glands; gonads

a) adrenal cortex; gonads

35

A patient is displaying high volumes of urine output ad severe dehydration. The most likely cause is ______.

a) hyposecretion of oxytocin

b) hypersecretion of oxytocin

c) hyposecretion of ADH

d) hypersecretion of ADH

c) hyposecretion of ADH

36

Where s iodide located in the thyroid gland?

a) secretory vesicles inside follicular cells

b) lumen of follicle

c) Golgi apparatus of parafllicular cells

d) cytoplasm of follicular cells

d) cytoplasm of follicular cells

37

Which of the following is and indirect effect of PTH

a) increasing osteoclast activity

b) increasing calcium absorption in the intestines

c) increasing calcium reabsorption in the kidney

d) activating vitamin D

b) increasing calcium absorption in the intestines

38

_________ is the adrenal hormone responsible for maintaining appropriate blood sodium levels.

a) cortisol

b) DHEA

c) aldosterone

d) epiephrine

c) aldosterone

39

______ trigger(s) secretion of aldosterone.

a) increased K+

b) Angiotensin II

c) ANP

d) both a and b

d) both a and b

40

During times of stress, elevated levels of ______ often occur, which explains why we get a cold during final exam time.

a) cortisol

b) aldosterone

c) ACTH

d) androgens

a) cortisol

41

Along with the sympathetic nervous system, the _______ is the other primary mediator of acute stress.

a) adrenal medulla

b) adrenal cortex

c) zona glomerulosa

d) zona reticularis

a) adrenal medulla

42

Which of the following is not an action of glucagon?

a) Release of glucose to the blood by liver cells

b) transport of glucose into most body cells

c) synthesis of glucose from lactic acid

d) breakdown of glycogen

b) transport of glucose into most body cells

43

The secretion of _______ helps regulate our circadian rhythms

a) estrogen

b) testosterone

c) thyroid hormones

d) melatonin

d) melatonin

44

The thymus secretes the hormone(s) _______.

a) thymopoietin

b) thymosin

c) thymulin

d) all of the above

d) all of the above

45

Which of the following structures produces a hormone responsible for stimulating red blood cell production?

a) stomach

b) heart

c) kidney

d) skin

c) kidney

46

Which of the following structures produces a precursor to hormonal vitamin D, important for Ca2+ regulation?

a) stomach

b) heart

c) kidney

d) skin

d) skin

47

What metabolic effect would you expect if someone developed an autoimmune disease in which the person's interstitial cells were destroyed?

a) testosterone production would plummet

b) Estrogen levels would decrease

c) Testosterone levels would soar

d) estrogen levels would increase

a) testosterone production would plummet

48

Meiosis results in sperm formation in males. The critical meiotic step that will ensure proper chromosome number in the resulting offspring is ______?

a) the separation of homologous chromosomes

b) fertilization of the egg

c) the separation of sister chromatids

d) both a and c

d) both a and c

49

Unlike females, males produce gametes throughout life due to the presence of ______ in their seminiferous tubules.

a) type A daughter cells

b) primary spermatocytes

c) spermatozoa

d) spermatogonia

d) spermatogonia

50

Which of the following hormones do males secrete?

a) testosterone

b) FSH

c) LH

d) all of the above

d) all of the above

51

A ruptured follicle is transformed into the ____.

a) antrum

b) ovarian ollicle

c) corpus luteum

d) germinal epithelium

c) corpus luteum

52

Ovulated oocytes enter the fallopian tubes:

a) directly, from contact with the ovary

b) via undulations of the fimbriae that draw in the oocyte

c) via diffusion

d) via muscular contractions of the infundibulum expelling the oocyte at a rate of 200 m/sec

b) via undulations of the fimbriae that draw in the oocyte

53

The _____ of the uterus receives the embryo and provides nourishment until the placenta is formed.

a) endometrium

b) myometrium

c) perimetrium

d) epimetrium

a) endometrium

54

What might happen in a non pregnant woman who began taking high levels of progesterone and estrogen supplements followed by high doses of prolactin supplements?

a) the woman would spontaneously become pregnant

b) there would be no detectable change in the woman's body

c) the woman's mammary glands would begin lactating

d) the woman's vagina and uterus would atrophy

c) the woman's mammary glands would begin lactating

55

What is the major difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis?

a) Spermatogenesis begins while the male fetus is in the uterus

b) oogenesis results in the formation of one viable oocyte

c) oogenesis is the result of several mitotic divisions

d) oogenesis is complete before ovulation occurs

b) oogenesis results in the formation of on viable oocyte

56

The filling of antrum with fluid occurs in the _____ phase of the ovarian cycle.

a) follicular

b) ovulation

c) luteal

d) proliferative

a) follicular

57

LH stimulates the production of ____ by the follicular thecal cells.

a) estrogen

b) progesterone

c) an oocyte

d) androgens

d) androgens

58

A woman who wants to ensure conception might buy and ovulation predictor kit. Which of the following hormones, when detected by the kit, would be the best indicator of imminent ovulation?

a) estrogen

b) GnRH

c) LH

d) FSH

c) LH

59

Which of the following is a secondary sexual characteristic promoted by estrogen?

a) growth of the mammary glands

b) enlargement of the external genitalia

c) stimulation of oogenesis

d) thickening of cervical mucus

a) growth of mammary glands

60

What percentage of sperm carry the Y chromosome?

a) 10%

b) 25%

c) 50%

d) 75%

c) 50%

61

In females, ______ is the stage of life when reproductive hormones first begin surging and reproduction is first possible.

a) menopause

b) amenorrhea

c) mittelschmerz

d) puberty

d) puberty

62

After centrifuging, which of the listed blood components contains the components of immune function?

a) plasma

b) buffy coat

c) erythrocytes

d) hematocrit

b) buffy coat

63

The major function of the most common plasma protein, albumin, is ______.

a) maintenance of plasma osmotic pressure

b) buffering changes in plasma PH

c) fighting foreign invaders

d) both a and b

d) both a and b

64

Red blood cells are efficient oxygen transport cells. Of the following characteristics, which is the major contributor to the significant oxygen-carrying capacity of a red blood cell?

a) red blood cells lack mitochondria

b) red blood cells don't divide

c) red blood cells are biconcave discs

d) red blood cells contain myoglobin

c) red blood cells are biconcave discs

65

Each hemoglobin can transport _______ oxygen atoms.

a) 4

b) 40

c) 400

d) 4000

a) 4

66

Oxygen binds to the _____ portion of hemoglobin.

a) globin

b) oxyhemoglobin

c) iron atom

d) amino acid

c) iron atom

67

A patient with low iron levels would experience which of the following symptoms?

a) an increased white blood cell count

b) an increase in energy level

c) an increase in fatigue

d) a decreased white blood cell count

c) an increase in fatigue

68

A hematopoietic stem cell will give rise to ______.

a) erythrocytes

b) leukocytes

c) platelets

d) all of the above

d) all of the above

69

Predict the outcome of an overdose of the hormone erythropoietin.

a) the blood viscosity increases to levels that may induce heart attacks or strokes

b) the oxygen-carrying capacity remains unchanged despite elevated red blood cell counts.

c) red blood cell counts remain unchanged, but the number of reticulocytes increases

d) blood viscosity levels decrease while oxygen-carrying capacity increases

a) the blood viscosity increases to levels that may induce heart attacks or strokes

70

What response would you expect after traveling to high altitude for two weeks?

a) blood levels of oxygen would remain depressed for the duration

b) a surge in iron release from the liver would occur

c) the kidneys would secrete elevated amounts of erythropoietin

d) there would be no change in blood compostion

c) the kidneys would secrete elevated amounts of erythropoietin

71

If a patient has pernicious anemia, the inability of the body to absorb vitamin B12, the patient ______.

a) would have reduced blood iron levels

b) would have a decreased number of red blood cells

c) would have increased levels of hemoglobin

d) would not experience any effects on red blood cells

b) would have a decreased number of red blood cells

72

An elevated neutrophil count would be indicative of _____,

a) an allergic reaction

b) a cancer

c) an acute bacterial infection

d) a parasitic infection

c) an acute bacterial infecton

73

Antihistamines counter the actions of which white blood cells?

a) an allergic reaction

b) a cancer

c) an acute bacterial infection

d) a parasitic infection

c) an acute bacterial infection

74

Antihistamines counter the actions of which white blood cells?

a) neutrophils

b) lymphocytes

c) basophils

d) eosinophils

c) basophils

75

Leukemia is a general descriptor for which of the following disorders?

a) an abnormally low white blood cell count

b) overproduction of abnormal leukocytes

c) elevated counts of normal neutrophils

d) overproduction of abnormal erythrocytes

b) overproduction of abnormal leukocytes

76

A ______ is the progenitor of platelets.

a) thrombopoietin

b) thrombocyte

c) megakaryocyte

d) thrombocytoblast

c) megakaryocyte

77

Why don't platelets form plugs in undamaged vessels?

a) platelets aren't formed until vessel damage occurs

b) only contact of platelets with exposed collagen fibers and von willebrand factor causes them to be sticky and form plugs

c) plugs do form, but are removed by macrophages

d) platelets don't form plugs; it is the megakaryocytes that form the plugs

b) only contact of platelets with exposed collagen fibers and von willebrand factor causes them to be sticky and form plugs

78

Activation of the extrinsic pathway of coagulation requires exposure of the blood to ____.

a) collagen

b) tissue factor III

c) prothrombin activator

d) serotonin

b) tissue factor III

79

Which agglutinins are naturally present in someone who is B+?

a) anti-a

b) anti-b

c) anti-a and anti- Rh

d) anti-b and anti-Rh

a) anti-A

80

The apex of the heart points:

a) superiorly toward the right shoulder

b) laterally toward the right hip

c) inferiorly toward the left hip

d) posteriorly toward the left shoulder

c) inferiorly toward the left hip

81

What is the double-walled sac covering the heart termed?

a) pericardium

b) myocardium

c) epicardium

d) endocardium

a) pericardium

82

Of the following layers of the heart wall, which consumes the most energy?

a) epicardium

b) myocardium

c) endocardium

d) visceral pericardium

b) myocardium

83

Which of the following structures is an exception to the general principle surrounding blood vessel oxygenation levels?

a) pulmonary artery

b) aorta

c) pulmonary veins

d) both a and c

d) both a and c

84

Which of the following statements is true?

a) all arteries transport oxygen rich blood

b) the right side of the heart is the systemic circuit pump

c) equal volumes of blood are pumped to the pulmonary and systemic circuits at any moment

d) the left side of the heart pumps blood to the lungs

c) equal volumes of blood are pumped to the pulmonary and systemic circuits at any moment

85

What purpose does the coronary circuit serve?

a) none; it is a vestigial set of vessels

b) it delivers blood to the heart

c) it delivers blood to the anterior lung surface for gas exchange

d) it feeds the anterior thoracic wall

b) it delivers blood to the heart

86

The presence of intercalated discs between adjacent cardiac muscle cells causes the heart to behave as a ______.

a) single chamber

b) contractile myofibril

c) desmosome

d) functional syncytium

d) functional syncytium

87

Cardiac muscle cells have several similarities with skeletal muscle cells. Which of the following is not a similarity?

a) the cells are each innervated by a nerve ending

b) the cells store calcium ions in the sarcoplasmic reticulum

c) the cells contain sarcomeres

d) the cells become depolarized when sodium ions enter the cytoplasm

a) the cells are each innervated by a nerve ending

88

The plateau portion of the action potential is contractile cardiac muscle cells is due to:

a) an increased potassium permeability

b) an influx of calcium ions

c) an influx of sodium ions

d) exit of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

b) an influx of calcium ions

89

The stimulus for the hearts rhythmic contractions comes from _____.

a) intercalated discs

b) acetylcholine

c)a neuromuscular junction

d) a pacemaker potential

d) a pacemaker potential

90

In a normal heart, which of the following structures is responsible for setting the heart's pace?

a) sinoatrial node

b) atrioventricular node

c) atrioventricular bundle

d) purkinje fibers

a) sinoatrial node

91

Predict the nature of an ECG recording when the atrioventricular node becomes the pacemaker.

a) there would continue to be a normal sinus rhythm

b) the P wave would be much larger than normal

c) the rhythm would be slower

d) the T wave would be much smaller than normal

c) the rhythm would be slower

92

The primary input to the heart by the cardioinhibitory center primarily affects the ____.

a) sinoatrial node and atrioventricular node

b) purkinje fibers

c) the cardiac contractile fibers

d) bundle of his

a) sinoatrial node and atrioventricular node

93

The "lub dub" heart sounds are produced by:

a) the walls of the atria and ventricles slapping together during a contraction

b) the blood hitting the walls of the ventricles and arteries, respectively

c) the closing of the atrioventricular valves ("lub") and the closing of the semilunar valves ("dub")

d) the closing of the semilunar valves (lub) and the closing of the atrioventricular valves(dub)

c) the closing of the atrioventricular valves ("lub") and the closing of the semilunar valves ("dub")

94

Atrial systole occurs _____ the firing of the sinoatrial node.

a) before

b) after

c) simultaneously with

d) alternately with

b) after

95

The majority (80%) of ventricular filling occurs _____.

a) during late ventricular diastole

b) passively through blood flow alone

c) with atrial systole

d) both a and b

d) both a and b

96

In terms of blood flow, why is it important that atrial diastole occurs just as ventricular systole begins?

a) the AV valves would remain open if the atria were still contracting.

b) the atria need that time to fill with blood in preparation for ventricular filling

c) ventricular systole pulls the remaining 20% of blood volume from the atria

d) blood would flow too fast otherwise

b) the atria need that time to fill with blood in preparation for ventricular filling

97

Cardiac output is determined by _______.

a) heart rate

b) stroke volume

c) cardiac reserve

d) both a and b

d) both a and b

98

Predict what would happen to the end systolic volume (ESV) if contraction force was to increase.

a) it would decrease

b) it would increase

c) it would remain constant

d) ESV is not affected by contraction force

a) it would decrease

99

Your heart seems to "pound" after you hear a sudden loud noise. This increased contractility is:

a) because vagal nerve impulses arrive faster at the heart

b) because whena gasp of surprise is emitted, the Frank-Starling law of the heart is evident

c) due to norepinephrine causing threshold to be reached more quickly

c) due to norepinephrine causing threshold to be reached more quickly

100

Predict what happens to end diastolic volume when an increase in heart rate is not accompanied by an increase in contractility.

a) end diastolic volume is increased

b) end diastolic volume is decreased

c) end diastolic volume is unchanged

d) end diastolic volume not affected by heart rate.

b) end diastolic volume is decreased

101

What Is the nature of acetylcholine's inhibitory effect on heart rate?

a) acetylcholine induces depolarization in the sinoatrial node

b) acetylcholine causes closing of sodium channels in the sinoatrial node

c) acetylcholine causes opening of fast calcium channels in contractile cells

d) acetylcholine causes opening of potassium channels in the sinoatrial node, thereby hyperpolarizing it.

d) acetylcholine causes opening of potassium channels in the sinoatrial node, thereby hyperpolarizing it.

102

Why is high blood pressure damaging to the heart?

a) with high blood pressure, the blood is more viscous and harder to pump

b) the heart rate slows down to dangerously low levels if blood pressure is too high

c) due to increased afterload, the left ventricle must contact more forcefully to expel the same amount of blood

d) sodium concentration increases during high blood pressure and is toxic to the myocardium

c) due to increased afterload, the left ventricle must contact more forcefully to expel the same amount of blood

103

Of the following blood vessel components, which is the most critical in regulating systemic blood pressure?

a) tunica intima

b) tunica media

c) tunica externa

d) venous valves

b) tunica media

104

An increasing lumen diameter is termed _____, and occurs when smooth muscle ______.

a) vasodilation, relaxes

b) vasodilation,contracts

c) vasoconstriction, relaxes

d) vasoconstriction, contracts

a) vasodilation, relaxes

105

Which type of blood vessel has the largest amount of fibrous tissue?

a) Elastic arteries

b) venules

c) arterioles

d) muscular arteries

d) muscular arteries

106

Of the following vessel types, which are responsible for the exchange of gases and nutrients with tissues?

a) arteries

b) arterioles

c) capillaries

d) veins

c) capillaries

107

Of the following vessel types, which conduct blood toward the heart, regardless of oxygen content?

a) arteries

b) arterioles

c) capillaries

d) veins

d) veins

108

Of the following cardiovascular components, which contains the majority of the body's blood volume at any one time?

a) pulmonary capillaries

b) heart

c) systemic veins and venules

d) systemic capillaries

c) systemic veins and venules

109

some of the least permeable capillaries are found in the ____, while some of the most permeable capillaries are found in the _____.

a) kidney; brain

b) intestines; muscles

c) bone marrow; brain

d) brain; bone marrow

d) brain; bone marrow

110

To predict a change in peripheral resistance as blood vessels diameter increases

a) peripheral resistance decreases

b) peripheral resistance increases

c) the peripheral resistance remains unchanged

d) the peripheral resistance is constant in humans

a) peripheral resistance decreases

111

Pulse pressure decreases by the time that blood reaches the capillary beds because:

a) the elastic arteries are too stretchy

b) veins are too thing to accommodate pulse pressure

c) the diastole lasts longer than the systole

d) the muscular arterioles do not exhibit elastic rebound

d) the muscular arterioles do not exhibit elastic rebound

112

What effect does prolonged standing in one position have on blood pressure?

a) it causes blood pooling and a slowing of blood flow

b) it causes a compensatory increase in arterial pressure

c) it causes a sharp decrease in heart rate

d) it causes a sharp decrease in respiratory rate

a) it causes blood pooling and a slowing of blood flow

113

What is the major factor controlling stroke volume during resting periods?

a) sympathetic input

b) parasympathic input

c) venous retreat to the heart

d) peripheral resistance changes

c) venous return to the heart

114

Predict what might happen to peripheral resistance in arterioles supplying skeletal muscle when PH levels drop.

a) vasoconstriction in vessels supplying skeletal muscles

b) vasodilation in vessels supplying digestive viscera

c) vasodilation in vessels supplying skeletal muscle vessels

d) No change

a) vasoconstriction in vessels supplying skeletal muscles

115

Baroreceptors detect changes in_____.

a) blood o2 levels

b) stretch in arterial walls

c) blood co2 levels

d) blood H+ levels

b) stretch in arterial walls

116

When blood volume is increased which of the following hormones would you expect to increase?

a) Atrial natriuretic peptide

b) aldosterone

c) Epinephrine

d) angiotensin II

a) atrial natriuretic peptide

117

Why does blood velocity decrease as it flows as it goes into the capillary bed?

a) the diameter of the capillaries is smaller than that of the arterioles and arteries

b) the cross-sectional area of the capillary beds is approximately 2000x than that of the aorta

c) the arteries are constricted

d) the pressure is much higher in the capillaries

b) the cross-sectional area of the capillary beds is approximately 2000x than that of the aorta

118

A decrease in O2 level in skeletal muscle would initiate an auto regulatory mechanism that would stimulate ____ in the arterioles supplying the muscle.

a) vasodilation

b) vasoconstriction

c) constriction of the pre-capillary sphincters

d) peristaltic waves

a) vasodilation

119

Why is vasodilation prominent in the skin when a person increases physical activity?

a) it increases delivery of nutrients to the skin to induce sweating

b) because skeletal muscles are close to the skin, they receive the oxygen via diffusion

c) heat is dissipated across the skin from the blood to help cool the body

d) Exercise produces metabolites that induce vasodilation

c) heat is dissipated across the skin from the blood to help cool the body

120

In what way is pulmonary circulation different from circulation in other body tissues

a) pulmonary circulation does not exhibit vasoconstriction

b) pulmonary circulation does not exhibit vasodilation

c) as opposed to other tissues, low o2 levels in the lungs induce vasoconstriction

d) as opposed to other tissues, low o2 levels in the lungs induce vasodilation

c) as opposed to other tissues, low o2 levels n the lungs induce vasoconstriction

121

The primary mechanism driving filtration in capillary beds is _____.

a) diffusion

b) capillary osmotic pressure

c) hydrostatic pressure of the interstitial fluid

d) hydrostatic pressure within in the capillaries

d) hydrostatic pressure within the capillaries

122

Capillary colloid osmotic pressure created by ____ tends to _____.

a) blood volume; push fluids out of the capillary

b) non-diffusable plasma proteins; draw fluids into the capillary

c) interstitial fluid; draw fluids out of the capillary

d) proteins in the interstitial fluid; push fluids into the interstitial fluid

b) non-diffusable plasma proteins; draw fluids into the capillary

123

The left pulmonary artery carries _______ blood and ______blood to/from the _____.

a) oxygenated, delivers, heart

b) deoxygenated, delivers, lung

c) oxygenated, receives, heart

d) deoxygenated, receives, lung

b) deoxygenated, delivers, lung

124

Blood drained from digestive organs empties into the _____ before going through the liver.

a) inferior vena cava

b) hepatic vein

c) hepatic portal vein

d) dural sinus

c) hepatic portal vein

125

The major vessel delivering deoxygenated blood to the lungs in the _____.

a) pulmonary trunk

b) pulmonary vein

c) aorta

d) superior vena cava

b) pulmonary vein

126

The superior vena cava receives systemic blood draining from all areas superior to the diaphragm except the _______.

a) lungs

b) left upper arm

c) heart wall

d)

c) heart wall

127

Which vessel receives blood drainage from the liver and returns it to the heart

a) azygos

b) hepatic portal vein

c) inferior vena cava

d) superior vena cava

c) inferior vena cava