front 1 Of the following senses, which accounts for the majority of sensory receptors in the body? a) hearing b) olfaction c) vision d) gustation | back 1 c) vision |
front 2 Which of the following terms is a synonym for eyelids? a) commissures b) palpebrae c) caruncles d) tarsal plates | back 2 b) palpebrae |
front 3 In order to turn the eye straight down, the actions of the ________ muscle(s) is (are) required a) Superior rectus and superior oblique b) inferior rectus c) inferior rectus and lateral rectus d) inferior rectus and superior oblique | back 3 d) inferior rectus and superior oblique |
front 4 The cornea is actually part of the ______ layer of eye a) fibrous b) vascular c) Sensory d) scleral | back 4 a) fibrous |
front 5 Sympathetic fibers innervating the iris of the eye cause which response? a) constriction b) dilation c) papillary decrease d) rapid blinking | back 5 b) Dilation |
front 6 Focusing an object on the ______ provides the highest visual acuity. a) rods b) blind spot c) fovea centralis d) choroid | back 6 c) fovea centralis |
front 7 The formation of rainbows reflects the fact that: a) during rain showers, an abundance of electromagnetic energy is available b) visible light consists of multiple wavelengths of light c) light travels in a linear fashion d) X rays become visible by reflecting off of raindrops | back 7 b) visible light consists of multiple wavelengths of light |
front 8 Sympathetic innervation is more predominant during _______. a) distant vision b) close vision c) accommodation of the lenses d) myopic vision | back 8 a) distant vision |
front 9 Functional differences between rod vision and cone vision can be explained because: a) in cones, the disc membrane is continuous with the plasma membrane b) in rods, the discs are discontinuous c) rods participate in converging pathways where as many as 100 rods connect with a single ganglion cell d) rods have one of three different pigments sensitive to different wavelengths of light | back 9 c) rods participate in converging pathways where as many as 100 rods connect with a single ganglion cell |
front 10 Visual pigments are differentiated based on the identity of the _____ protein. a) retinal b) vitamin a c) 11-cis-isomer d) opsin | back 10 d) opsin |
front 11 The detection of light is ultimately communicated to the brain because of _______. a) photoreceptor cell depolarization b) photoreceptor cells releasing neurotransmitter c) photoreceptor cell hyperpolarization d) bipolar cells receiving excitatory postsynaptic potentials | back 11 c) photoreceptor cell hyperpolarization |
front 12 During light adaptation: a) the cone system turns off and the rod system turns on b) we lose retinal sensitivity but gain visual acuity c) the pupils dilate to allow more light to enter the eye d) rhodopsin accumulates and transducing returns to the outer segment | back 12 b) we lose retinal sensitivity, but gain visual acuity |
front 13 Which structures are the visual reflex centers controlling the extrinsic muscles of the eyes? a) lateral geniculate nuclei b) pretectal nuclei c) superior colliculi d) suprachiasmatic nuclei | back 13 c) superior colliculi |
front 14 The hearing receptors are located in the _____. a) external ear b) middle ear c) internal ear d) tympanic cavity | back 14 c) internal ear |
front 15 The _______ of sound waves is interpreted as differing pitches, whereas the _______ of sound waves is interpreted as loudness. a) frequency; amplitude b) quality; decibels c) amplitude; frequency d) decibels; quality | back 15 a) frequency; amplitude |
front 16 The middle ear ossicles serve to ______ the sound waves onto the oval window. a) bypass b) amplify c) transduce d) interpret | back 16 b) amplify |
front 17 Transduction of sound stimuli occurs as a result of: a) bending of the hair cells, which stimulates the opening of the mechanically gated ion channels in their membrane b) a receptor potential generation c) release of the neurotransmitter glutamate d) all of the above | back 17 d) all of the above |
front 18 Dynamic and static equilibrium transduction both use the principle of _____. a) mechanoreception b) chemoreception c) thermoreception d) photoreception | back 18 a) mechanoreception |
front 19 Which group of messengers is defined as acting on cells within the same tissues? a) autocrines b) hormones c) paracrines d) eicosanoids | back 19 c) paracrines |
front 20 A major difference between nuerotransmitters and hormones is that hormones reach their destination via ______. a) direct contact on their target cell b) cerebrospinal fluid c) ducts d) the blood | back 20 d) the blood |
front 21 A major determinant of a hormones mechanism of action is _______. a) whether the hormonal molecule is hydrophobic or hydrophilic b) its size c) whether it is rapid acting or slow acting d) if it activates gene activity or not | back 21 a) whether the hormonal molecule is hydrophobic or hydrophilic |
front 22 Receptors or steroid hormones are commonly located _______. a) inside the target cell b) on the plasma membrane of the target cell c) in the blood plasma d) in the extracellular fluid | back 22 a) inside the target cell |
front 23 Interaction with a membrane-bound receptor will transduce the hormonal message via ____. a) depolarization b) direct gene activation c) a second messenger d) endocytosis | back 23 c) a second messenger |
front 24 Second messenger activating hormones circulate in minute quantities because: a) they are not important signal molecules b) small concentrations of hormone can activate many intracellular signals via amplification c) they are continuously released from the gland d) neurotransmitters also bind to hormone receptors | back 24 b) small concentrations of hormone can activate many intracellular signals via amplification |
front 25 Which of the following molecules act as second messengers? a) cAMP b) Ca2+ c) inositol triphosphate d) all the above | back 25 d) all the above |
front 26 In order for a hormone to activate a target cell, the target cell must possess ______. a) a receptor b) a second messenger c) the hormone d) a chaperone | back 26 a) a receptor |
front 27 When the pancreas releases insulin in direct response to blood glucose, this is an example of a ___ stimulation. a) humoral b) neural c) hormonal d) negative feedback | back 27 a) humoral |
front 28 When an infant suckles at his mothers breast, the mothers nuerohypophysis releases oxytocin. This is an example of _____ neural stimulation. a) humoral b) neural c) hormonal d) negative feedback | back 28 b) neural |
front 29 When the ovaries secrete estrogen in response to the hormone GnRH, this is an example of ____ stimulation. a) humoral b) neural c) hormonal d) negative feedback | back 29 c) hormonal |
front 30 Blood levels of hormones are kept within very narrow ranges by ________ mechanisms. a) humoral b) neural c) hormonal d) negative feedback | back 30 d) negative feedback |
front 31 Which hormone is produced in the hypothalamus? a) ADH b) ACTH c) LH d) GH | back 31 a) ADH |
front 32 Hormones secreted into they hypophyseal portal system are detected by the _____. a) posterior pituitary b) anterior pituitary c) median eminence d) infundibulum | back 32 b) anterior pituitary |
front 33 The long bone growth-promoting effects of growth hormone are mediated by _______. a) somatostatin b) somatotrophs c) insulin-like growth factor d) insulin | back 33 b) somatotrophs |
front 34 Secretions from the corticotrophs activate cells of the ______, while secretions from the gonadotrophs affect cells of the ______. a) adrenal cortex; gonads b) thyroid; mammary glands c) gonads; adrenal cortex d) mammary glands; gonads | back 34 a) adrenal cortex; gonads |
front 35 A patient is displaying high volumes of urine output ad severe dehydration. The most likely cause is ______. a) hyposecretion of oxytocin b) hypersecretion of oxytocin c) hyposecretion of ADH d) hypersecretion of ADH | back 35 c) hyposecretion of ADH |
front 36 Where s iodide located in the thyroid gland? a) secretory vesicles inside follicular cells b) lumen of follicle c) Golgi apparatus of parafllicular cells d) cytoplasm of follicular cells | back 36 d) cytoplasm of follicular cells |
front 37 Which of the following is and indirect effect of PTH a) increasing osteoclast activity b) increasing calcium absorption in the intestines c) increasing calcium reabsorption in the kidney d) activating vitamin D | back 37 b) increasing calcium absorption in the intestines |
front 38 _________ is the adrenal hormone responsible for maintaining appropriate blood sodium levels. a) cortisol b) DHEA c) aldosterone d) epiephrine | back 38 c) aldosterone |
front 39 ______ trigger(s) secretion of aldosterone. a) increased K+ b) Angiotensin II c) ANP d) both a and b | back 39 d) both a and b |
front 40 During times of stress, elevated levels of ______ often occur, which explains why we get a cold during final exam time. a) cortisol b) aldosterone c) ACTH d) androgens | back 40 a) cortisol |
front 41 Along with the sympathetic nervous system, the _______ is the other primary mediator of acute stress. a) adrenal medulla b) adrenal cortex c) zona glomerulosa d) zona reticularis | back 41 a) adrenal medulla |
front 42 Which of the following is not an action of glucagon? a) Release of glucose to the blood by liver cells b) transport of glucose into most body cells c) synthesis of glucose from lactic acid d) breakdown of glycogen | back 42 b) transport of glucose into most body cells |
front 43 The secretion of _______ helps regulate our circadian rhythms a) estrogen b) testosterone c) thyroid hormones d) melatonin | back 43 d) melatonin |
front 44 The thymus secretes the hormone(s) _______. a) thymopoietin b) thymosin c) thymulin d) all of the above | back 44 d) all of the above |
front 45 Which of the following structures produces a hormone responsible for stimulating red blood cell production? a) stomach b) heart c) kidney d) skin | back 45 c) kidney |
front 46 Which of the following structures produces a precursor to hormonal vitamin D, important for Ca2+ regulation? a) stomach b) heart c) kidney d) skin | back 46 d) skin |
front 47 What metabolic effect would you expect if someone developed an autoimmune disease in which the person's interstitial cells were destroyed? a) testosterone production would plummet b) Estrogen levels would decrease c) Testosterone levels would soar d) estrogen levels would increase | back 47 a) testosterone production would plummet |
front 48 Meiosis results in sperm formation in males. The critical meiotic step that will ensure proper chromosome number in the resulting offspring is ______? a) the separation of homologous chromosomes b) fertilization of the egg c) the separation of sister chromatids d) both a and c | back 48 d) both a and c |
front 49 Unlike females, males produce gametes throughout life due to the presence of ______ in their seminiferous tubules. a) type A daughter cells b) primary spermatocytes c) spermatozoa d) spermatogonia | back 49 d) spermatogonia |
front 50 Which of the following hormones do males secrete? a) testosterone b) FSH c) LH d) all of the above | back 50 d) all of the above |
front 51 A ruptured follicle is transformed into the ____. a) antrum b) ovarian ollicle c) corpus luteum d) germinal epithelium | back 51 c) corpus luteum |
front 52 Ovulated oocytes enter the fallopian tubes: a) directly, from contact with the ovary b) via undulations of the fimbriae that draw in the oocyte c) via diffusion d) via muscular contractions of the infundibulum expelling the oocyte at a rate of 200 m/sec | back 52 b) via undulations of the fimbriae that draw in the oocyte |
front 53 The _____ of the uterus receives the embryo and provides nourishment until the placenta is formed. a) endometrium b) myometrium c) perimetrium d) epimetrium | back 53 a) endometrium |
front 54 What might happen in a non pregnant woman who began taking high levels of progesterone and estrogen supplements followed by high doses of prolactin supplements? a) the woman would spontaneously become pregnant b) there would be no detectable change in the woman's body c) the woman's mammary glands would begin lactating d) the woman's vagina and uterus would atrophy | back 54 c) the woman's mammary glands would begin lactating |
front 55 What is the major difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis? a) Spermatogenesis begins while the male fetus is in the uterus b) oogenesis results in the formation of one viable oocyte c) oogenesis is the result of several mitotic divisions d) oogenesis is complete before ovulation occurs | back 55 b) oogenesis results in the formation of on viable oocyte |
front 56 The filling of antrum with fluid occurs in the _____ phase of the ovarian cycle. a) follicular b) ovulation c) luteal d) proliferative | back 56 a) follicular |
front 57 LH stimulates the production of ____ by the follicular thecal cells. a) estrogen b) progesterone c) an oocyte d) androgens | back 57 d) androgens |
front 58 A woman who wants to ensure conception might buy and ovulation predictor kit. Which of the following hormones, when detected by the kit, would be the best indicator of imminent ovulation? a) estrogen b) GnRH c) LH d) FSH | back 58 c) LH |
front 59 Which of the following is a secondary sexual characteristic promoted by estrogen? a) growth of the mammary glands b) enlargement of the external genitalia c) stimulation of oogenesis d) thickening of cervical mucus | back 59 a) growth of mammary glands |
front 60 What percentage of sperm carry the Y chromosome? a) 10% b) 25% c) 50% d) 75% | back 60 c) 50% |
front 61 In females, ______ is the stage of life when reproductive hormones first begin surging and reproduction is first possible. a) menopause b) amenorrhea c) mittelschmerz d) puberty | back 61 d) puberty |
front 62 After centrifuging, which of the listed blood components contains the components of immune function? a) plasma b) buffy coat c) erythrocytes d) hematocrit | back 62 b) buffy coat |
front 63 The major function of the most common plasma protein, albumin, is ______. a) maintenance of plasma osmotic pressure b) buffering changes in plasma PH c) fighting foreign invaders d) both a and b | back 63 d) both a and b |
front 64 Red blood cells are efficient oxygen transport cells. Of the following characteristics, which is the major contributor to the significant oxygen-carrying capacity of a red blood cell? a) red blood cells lack mitochondria b) red blood cells don't divide c) red blood cells are biconcave discs d) red blood cells contain myoglobin | back 64 c) red blood cells are biconcave discs |
front 65 Each hemoglobin can transport _______ oxygen atoms. a) 4 b) 40 c) 400 d) 4000 | back 65 a) 4 |
front 66 Oxygen binds to the _____ portion of hemoglobin. a) globin b) oxyhemoglobin c) iron atom d) amino acid | back 66 c) iron atom |
front 67 A patient with low iron levels would experience which of the following symptoms? a) an increased white blood cell count b) an increase in energy level c) an increase in fatigue d) a decreased white blood cell count | back 67 c) an increase in fatigue |
front 68 A hematopoietic stem cell will give rise to ______. a) erythrocytes b) leukocytes c) platelets d) all of the above | back 68 d) all of the above |
front 69 Predict the outcome of an overdose of the hormone erythropoietin. a) the blood viscosity increases to levels that may induce heart attacks or strokes b) the oxygen-carrying capacity remains unchanged despite elevated red blood cell counts. c) red blood cell counts remain unchanged, but the number of reticulocytes increases d) blood viscosity levels decrease while oxygen-carrying capacity increases | back 69 a) the blood viscosity increases to levels that may induce heart attacks or strokes |
front 70 What response would you expect after traveling to high altitude for two weeks? a) blood levels of oxygen would remain depressed for the duration b) a surge in iron release from the liver would occur c) the kidneys would secrete elevated amounts of erythropoietin d) there would be no change in blood compostion | back 70 c) the kidneys would secrete elevated amounts of erythropoietin |
front 71 If a patient has pernicious anemia, the inability of the body to absorb vitamin B12, the patient ______. a) would have reduced blood iron levels b) would have a decreased number of red blood cells c) would have increased levels of hemoglobin d) would not experience any effects on red blood cells | back 71 b) would have a decreased number of red blood cells |
front 72 An elevated neutrophil count would be indicative of _____, a) an allergic reaction b) a cancer c) an acute bacterial infection d) a parasitic infection | back 72 c) an acute bacterial infecton |
front 73 Antihistamines counter the actions of which white blood cells? a) an allergic reaction b) a cancer c) an acute bacterial infection d) a parasitic infection | back 73 c) an acute bacterial infection |
front 74 Antihistamines counter the actions of which white blood cells? a) neutrophils b) lymphocytes c) basophils d) eosinophils | back 74 c) basophils |
front 75 Leukemia is a general descriptor for which of the following disorders? a) an abnormally low white blood cell count b) overproduction of abnormal leukocytes c) elevated counts of normal neutrophils d) overproduction of abnormal erythrocytes | back 75 b) overproduction of abnormal leukocytes |
front 76 A ______ is the progenitor of platelets. a) thrombopoietin b) thrombocyte c) megakaryocyte d) thrombocytoblast | back 76 c) megakaryocyte |
front 77 Why don't platelets form plugs in undamaged vessels? a) platelets aren't formed until vessel damage occurs b) only contact of platelets with exposed collagen fibers and von willebrand factor causes them to be sticky and form plugs c) plugs do form, but are removed by macrophages d) platelets don't form plugs; it is the megakaryocytes that form the plugs | back 77 b) only contact of platelets with exposed collagen fibers and von willebrand factor causes them to be sticky and form plugs |
front 78 Activation of the extrinsic pathway of coagulation requires exposure of the blood to ____. a) collagen b) tissue factor III c) prothrombin activator d) serotonin | back 78 b) tissue factor III |
front 79 Which agglutinins are naturally present in someone who is B+? a) anti-a b) anti-b c) anti-a and anti- Rh d) anti-b and anti-Rh | back 79 a) anti-A |
front 80 The apex of the heart points: a) superiorly toward the right shoulder b) laterally toward the right hip c) inferiorly toward the left hip d) posteriorly toward the left shoulder | back 80 c) inferiorly toward the left hip |
front 81 What is the double-walled sac covering the heart termed? a) pericardium b) myocardium c) epicardium d) endocardium | back 81 a) pericardium |
front 82 Of the following layers of the heart wall, which consumes the most energy? a) epicardium b) myocardium c) endocardium d) visceral pericardium | back 82 b) myocardium |
front 83 Which of the following structures is an exception to the general principle surrounding blood vessel oxygenation levels? a) pulmonary artery b) aorta c) pulmonary veins d) both a and c | back 83 d) both a and c |
front 84 Which of the following statements is true? a) all arteries transport oxygen rich blood b) the right side of the heart is the systemic circuit pump c) equal volumes of blood are pumped to the pulmonary and systemic circuits at any moment d) the left side of the heart pumps blood to the lungs | back 84 c) equal volumes of blood are pumped to the pulmonary and systemic circuits at any moment |
front 85 What purpose does the coronary circuit serve? a) none; it is a vestigial set of vessels b) it delivers blood to the heart c) it delivers blood to the anterior lung surface for gas exchange d) it feeds the anterior thoracic wall | back 85 b) it delivers blood to the heart |
front 86 The presence of intercalated discs between adjacent cardiac muscle cells causes the heart to behave as a ______. a) single chamber b) contractile myofibril c) desmosome d) functional syncytium | back 86 d) functional syncytium |
front 87 Cardiac muscle cells have several similarities with skeletal muscle cells. Which of the following is not a similarity? a) the cells are each innervated by a nerve ending b) the cells store calcium ions in the sarcoplasmic reticulum c) the cells contain sarcomeres d) the cells become depolarized when sodium ions enter the cytoplasm | back 87 a) the cells are each innervated by a nerve ending |
front 88 The plateau portion of the action potential is contractile cardiac muscle cells is due to: a) an increased potassium permeability b) an influx of calcium ions c) an influx of sodium ions d) exit of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum | back 88 b) an influx of calcium ions |
front 89 The stimulus for the hearts rhythmic contractions comes from _____. a) intercalated discs b) acetylcholine c)a neuromuscular junction d) a pacemaker potential | back 89 d) a pacemaker potential |
front 90 In a normal heart, which of the following structures is responsible for setting the heart's pace? a) sinoatrial node b) atrioventricular node c) atrioventricular bundle d) purkinje fibers | back 90 a) sinoatrial node |
front 91 Predict the nature of an ECG recording when the atrioventricular node becomes the pacemaker. a) there would continue to be a normal sinus rhythm b) the P wave would be much larger than normal c) the rhythm would be slower d) the T wave would be much smaller than normal | back 91 c) the rhythm would be slower |
front 92 The primary input to the heart by the cardioinhibitory center primarily affects the ____. a) sinoatrial node and atrioventricular node b) purkinje fibers c) the cardiac contractile fibers d) bundle of his | back 92 a) sinoatrial node and atrioventricular node |
front 93 The "lub dub" heart sounds are produced by: a) the walls of the atria and ventricles slapping together during a contraction b) the blood hitting the walls of the ventricles and arteries, respectively c) the closing of the atrioventricular valves ("lub") and the closing of the semilunar valves ("dub") d) the closing of the semilunar valves (lub) and the closing of the atrioventricular valves(dub) | back 93 c) the closing of the atrioventricular valves ("lub") and the closing of the semilunar valves ("dub") |
front 94 Atrial systole occurs _____ the firing of the sinoatrial node. a) before b) after c) simultaneously with d) alternately with | back 94 b) after |
front 95 The majority (80%) of ventricular filling occurs _____. a) during late ventricular diastole b) passively through blood flow alone c) with atrial systole d) both a and b | back 95 d) both a and b |
front 96 In terms of blood flow, why is it important that atrial diastole occurs just as ventricular systole begins? a) the AV valves would remain open if the atria were still contracting. b) the atria need that time to fill with blood in preparation for ventricular filling c) ventricular systole pulls the remaining 20% of blood volume from the atria d) blood would flow too fast otherwise | back 96 b) the atria need that time to fill with blood in preparation for ventricular filling |
front 97 Cardiac output is determined by _______. a) heart rate b) stroke volume c) cardiac reserve d) both a and b | back 97 d) both a and b |
front 98 Predict what would happen to the end systolic volume (ESV) if contraction force was to increase. a) it would decrease b) it would increase c) it would remain constant d) ESV is not affected by contraction force | back 98 a) it would decrease |
front 99 Your heart seems to "pound" after you hear a sudden loud noise. This increased contractility is: a) because vagal nerve impulses arrive faster at the heart b) because whena gasp of surprise is emitted, the Frank-Starling law of the heart is evident c) due to norepinephrine causing threshold to be reached more quickly | back 99 c) due to norepinephrine causing threshold to be reached more quickly |
front 100 Predict what happens to end diastolic volume when an increase in heart rate is not accompanied by an increase in contractility. a) end diastolic volume is increased b) end diastolic volume is decreased c) end diastolic volume is unchanged d) end diastolic volume not affected by heart rate. | back 100 b) end diastolic volume is decreased |
front 101 What Is the nature of acetylcholine's inhibitory effect on heart rate? a) acetylcholine induces depolarization in the sinoatrial node b) acetylcholine causes closing of sodium channels in the sinoatrial node c) acetylcholine causes opening of fast calcium channels in contractile cells d) acetylcholine causes opening of potassium channels in the sinoatrial node, thereby hyperpolarizing it. | back 101 d) acetylcholine causes opening of potassium channels in the sinoatrial node, thereby hyperpolarizing it. |
front 102 Why is high blood pressure damaging to the heart? a) with high blood pressure, the blood is more viscous and harder to pump b) the heart rate slows down to dangerously low levels if blood pressure is too high c) due to increased afterload, the left ventricle must contact more forcefully to expel the same amount of blood d) sodium concentration increases during high blood pressure and is toxic to the myocardium | back 102 c) due to increased afterload, the left ventricle must contact more forcefully to expel the same amount of blood |
front 103 Of the following blood vessel components, which is the most critical in regulating systemic blood pressure? a) tunica intima b) tunica media c) tunica externa d) venous valves | back 103 b) tunica media |
front 104 An increasing lumen diameter is termed _____, and occurs when smooth muscle ______. a) vasodilation, relaxes b) vasodilation,contracts c) vasoconstriction, relaxes d) vasoconstriction, contracts | back 104 a) vasodilation, relaxes |
front 105 Which type of blood vessel has the largest amount of fibrous tissue? a) Elastic arteries b) venules c) arterioles d) muscular arteries | back 105 d) muscular arteries |
front 106 Of the following vessel types, which are responsible for the exchange of gases and nutrients with tissues? a) arteries b) arterioles c) capillaries d) veins | back 106 c) capillaries |
front 107 Of the following vessel types, which conduct blood toward the heart, regardless of oxygen content? a) arteries b) arterioles c) capillaries d) veins | back 107 d) veins |
front 108 Of the following cardiovascular components, which contains the majority of the body's blood volume at any one time? a) pulmonary capillaries b) heart c) systemic veins and venules d) systemic capillaries | back 108 c) systemic veins and venules |
front 109 some of the least permeable capillaries are found in the ____, while some of the most permeable capillaries are found in the _____. a) kidney; brain b) intestines; muscles c) bone marrow; brain d) brain; bone marrow | back 109 d) brain; bone marrow |
front 110 To predict a change in peripheral resistance as blood vessels diameter increases a) peripheral resistance decreases b) peripheral resistance increases c) the peripheral resistance remains unchanged d) the peripheral resistance is constant in humans | back 110 a) peripheral resistance decreases |
front 111 Pulse pressure decreases by the time that blood reaches the capillary beds because: a) the elastic arteries are too stretchy b) veins are too thing to accommodate pulse pressure c) the diastole lasts longer than the systole d) the muscular arterioles do not exhibit elastic rebound | back 111 d) the muscular arterioles do not exhibit elastic rebound |
front 112 What effect does prolonged standing in one position have on blood pressure? a) it causes blood pooling and a slowing of blood flow b) it causes a compensatory increase in arterial pressure c) it causes a sharp decrease in heart rate d) it causes a sharp decrease in respiratory rate | back 112 a) it causes blood pooling and a slowing of blood flow |
front 113 What is the major factor controlling stroke volume during resting periods? a) sympathetic input b) parasympathic input c) venous retreat to the heart d) peripheral resistance changes | back 113 c) venous return to the heart |
front 114 Predict what might happen to peripheral resistance in arterioles supplying skeletal muscle when PH levels drop. a) vasoconstriction in vessels supplying skeletal muscles b) vasodilation in vessels supplying digestive viscera c) vasodilation in vessels supplying skeletal muscle vessels d) No change | back 114 a) vasoconstriction in vessels supplying skeletal muscles |
front 115 Baroreceptors detect changes in_____. a) blood o2 levels b) stretch in arterial walls c) blood co2 levels d) blood H+ levels | back 115 b) stretch in arterial walls |
front 116 When blood volume is increased which of the following hormones would you expect to increase? a) Atrial natriuretic peptide b) aldosterone c) Epinephrine d) angiotensin II | back 116 a) atrial natriuretic peptide |
front 117 Why does blood velocity decrease as it flows as it goes into the capillary bed? a) the diameter of the capillaries is smaller than that of the arterioles and arteries b) the cross-sectional area of the capillary beds is approximately 2000x than that of the aorta c) the arteries are constricted d) the pressure is much higher in the capillaries | back 117 b) the cross-sectional area of the capillary beds is approximately 2000x than that of the aorta |
front 118 A decrease in O2 level in skeletal muscle would initiate an auto regulatory mechanism that would stimulate ____ in the arterioles supplying the muscle. a) vasodilation b) vasoconstriction c) constriction of the pre-capillary sphincters d) peristaltic waves | back 118 a) vasodilation |
front 119 Why is vasodilation prominent in the skin when a person increases physical activity? a) it increases delivery of nutrients to the skin to induce sweating b) because skeletal muscles are close to the skin, they receive the oxygen via diffusion c) heat is dissipated across the skin from the blood to help cool the body d) Exercise produces metabolites that induce vasodilation | back 119 c) heat is dissipated across the skin from the blood to help cool the body |
front 120 In what way is pulmonary circulation different from circulation in other body tissues a) pulmonary circulation does not exhibit vasoconstriction b) pulmonary circulation does not exhibit vasodilation c) as opposed to other tissues, low o2 levels in the lungs induce vasoconstriction d) as opposed to other tissues, low o2 levels in the lungs induce vasodilation | back 120 c) as opposed to other tissues, low o2 levels n the lungs induce vasoconstriction |
front 121 The primary mechanism driving filtration in capillary beds is _____. a) diffusion b) capillary osmotic pressure c) hydrostatic pressure of the interstitial fluid d) hydrostatic pressure within in the capillaries | back 121 d) hydrostatic pressure within the capillaries |
front 122 Capillary colloid osmotic pressure created by ____ tends to _____. a) blood volume; push fluids out of the capillary b) non-diffusable plasma proteins; draw fluids into the capillary c) interstitial fluid; draw fluids out of the capillary d) proteins in the interstitial fluid; push fluids into the interstitial fluid | back 122 b) non-diffusable plasma proteins; draw fluids into the capillary |
front 123 The left pulmonary artery carries _______ blood and ______blood to/from the _____. a) oxygenated, delivers, heart b) deoxygenated, delivers, lung c) oxygenated, receives, heart d) deoxygenated, receives, lung | back 123 b) deoxygenated, delivers, lung |
front 124 Blood drained from digestive organs empties into the _____ before going through the liver. a) inferior vena cava b) hepatic vein c) hepatic portal vein d) dural sinus | back 124 c) hepatic portal vein |
front 125 The major vessel delivering deoxygenated blood to the lungs in the _____. a) pulmonary trunk b) pulmonary vein c) aorta d) superior vena cava | back 125 b) pulmonary vein |
front 126 The superior vena cava receives systemic blood draining from all areas superior to the diaphragm except the _______. a) lungs b) left upper arm c) heart wall d) | back 126 c) heart wall |
front 127 Which vessel receives blood drainage from the liver and returns it to the heart a) azygos b) hepatic portal vein c) inferior vena cava d) superior vena cava | back 127 c) inferior vena cava |