PSYCHOLOGY FINAL EXAM- PREVIOUS EXAMS 3 Flashcards


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1

Angie is going on a trip but after hearing about so many plane crashes on the news recently, she decides it would be better to drive than fly. Angie is making her decision by using the _______.
a. availability heuristic
b. elimination by aspects
c. representativeness heuristic
d. single feature model

A

2

Peter is 14-months-old and tells his mom, "Mommy, up!" Which of the following is likely true?
a. Peter is using telegraphic speech to convey what he wants.
b. Peter is not yet using full sentences and may have a problem with language delay.
c. Peter is babbling which is typical of a child at 14 months..
d. Peter is using infant-directed speech which is common at his age.

A

3

"It's simple. I know it's a table because it has a flat top and four legs." The person who is making this statement would likely side with which of the following approaches to categorization?
a. prototype theory
b. exemplar approach
c. definitional approach
d. natural concept approach

B

4

Conrad is trying to guess the number of jelly beans in a jar at a fair. He thinks that the best approach is to count the number he can see in one tenth of the jar and then multiply that number by 10. Conrad is using which of the following problem solving strategies?
a. a heuristic
b. intuition
c. trial and error
d. an algorithm

A

5

Involves trying and testing different possibilities until a successful solution is reached.

a. Trial and error

b. Algorithm

c. Heuristic

D. Intuition

A

6

Problem solving techniques that are like short cuts to a solution.

a. Trial and error

b. Algorithm

c. Heuristic

d. Intuition

C

7

Occurs when you come to a solution all of a sudden, often without realizing that you are about to get there.

a. Insight

b. Intuition

c. Heuristic

d. Mental set

A

8

Rely on probabilities while making a decision

a. Confirmation bias

b. Representativeness heuristic

c. Availability heuristic

d. Additive model

B

9

Base your decision on the number of similar examples you can bring to mind

a. Availability heuristic

b. Belief bias

c. Confirmation bias

d. Single feature model

A

10

The best or most typical instance of a category is called a ______.

a. prototype

b. exemplar

c. natural concept

d. formal concept

A

11

Which of the following explains why the definitional approach does not work?

a. There is no such thing as a true, actual example of a category.

b. Very few concepts have a clear definition or can be defined by a list of features.

c. Humans have a very difficult time grouping or organizing similar type of information together.

d. It is nearly impossible to come up with an ideal example of a category member.

B

12

Which of the following is the feature of language that allows us to communicate about things that are separated from us in time and space?

a. generativity

b. displacement

c. semantics

d. syntax

B

13

"Movies to the are we going." This sentence has incorrect English _____.

a. syntax

b. phonemes

c. semantics

d. generativity

A

14

Concepts that have a strict definition are known as ______.

a. natural concepts

b. prototypes

c. formal concepts

d. exemplars

C

15

The s factor suggests

a. that there exists some general mental ability that underlies performance on all intelligence tests.

b. that people are able to change or modify their behavior in response to experiences.

c. that there exist various individual mental abilities.

d. that intelligence is primarily a factor of speed of processing.

C

16

Research on intelligence has shown that which of the following is true?

a. If you have an identical twin you will likely score similarly to one another on an intelligence test, but only if you grew up in the same environment, not if you grew up in separate homes.

b. If you have an identical twin the likelihood that you will score similarly on an intelligence test is no greater than for any other biological siblings.

c. If you have an identical twin you will likely score similarly to one another on an intelligence test.

d. If you have an identical twin you are less likely to have similar scores on an intelligence test than are other biological siblings.

C

17

If an authority figure tells a person that he experienced a particular life event that, in reality, he never experienced, memory research has shown that the person will tend to

A. know immediately that the event never occurred.
B. rarely develop a false memory of the event.
C. almost always develop a false memory of the event.
D. sometimes develop a false memory of the event.

D

18

It is difficult to study the process of repression because

A. it cannot be studied experimentally.
B. it cannot be studied analytically.
C. it is thought to occur preconsciously
D. it is thought to occur unconsciously.

D

19

If a person is repeatedly and intensely pushed to retrieve an episodic memory that she has forgotten, it is likely that she will develop a mostly false memory. Which theory of forgetting helps us to explain why this happens?

A. reconstruction theory
B. encoding-specificity theory
C. decay theory
D. All the above are needed to explain false memories.

A

20

Critics of therapeutic techniques for recovering repressed memories state that these techniques involve a great deal of

A. retrieval.
B. suggestion.
C. encoding.
D. emotion.

B

21

According to the reconstruction theory of forgetting, which of the following statements about long-term memories probably is true?

A. Explicit long-term memories often are wrong in details, but implicit long-term memories typically are completely accurate.
B. Implicit long-term memories often are wrong in details, but explicit long-term memories typically are completely accurate.
C. Explicit memories are accurate in virtually all details, although we often have trouble retrieving the details.
D. Explicit memories may be accurate in broad terms, although they often are inaccurate in at least some of their details.

D

22

Defensive forgetting seems to have its effects on forgetting primarily by affecting the ___ of information.

A. encoding
B. storing
C. retrieving

C

23

According to reconstruction theory, the more often you recall an episodic memory, the more likely it is that your memory of the episode will become _____ over time.

A. less accurate
B. more accurate
C. less detailed
D. more detailed

A

24

People who have had severe damage to both hippocampi are likely to experience the most difficulty with forming new _____ memories.

A. semantic
B. episodic
C. implicit
D. working

B

25

A(n) ___ memory is a memory for some item of general knowledge (that is, a fact about the world).

A. semantic
B. explicit
C. working
D. episodic

A

26

Which of the following is the best way to create enduring (stable) long-term memories of verbal information — memories that can be activated by a wide range of retrieval cues?

A. semantic encoding
B. phonemic encoding
C. retrieval rehearsal
D. maintenance rehearsal

A

27

An essay test is a ___ measure of memory; a multiple-choice test assessing rote memorization is a ___ measure of memory.

A. relearning; recognition
B. recall; recognition
C. recall; relearning
D. recognition; recall

B

28

Let’s say that you were asked to memorize a 12-item word list that was read to you aloud. The list included the following words: dog, cap, box, lamp. If you encoded this information in working memory using maintenance rehearsal, which of the following MISTAKES would you be MOST likely to make when retrieving the words immediately after the word list had been read?

A. canine, hat, container, light
B. frog, sap, fox, cramp
C. cat, pants, plate, night

B

29

Elaborative rehearsal involves

A. linking new information to information already stored in long-term memory.
B. repeating new information over and over, thereby forming long-term memories.
C. the mental processes of storing and retrieving working and long-term memories.
D. maintaining new information in working memory for several minutes.

A

30

The concept of working memory is important because it

A. focuses on the fundamental importance of the iconic and echoic memory subsystems.
B. emphasizes that active information processing occurs in short-term memory.
C. is the place where preconscious and unconscious memories are initially processed.
D. all the above

B

31

If you learn a word list and misremember the word “fan” as “tan,” this shows that you encoded the word “fan”

A. phonemically.
B. semantically.
C. structurally.

A

32

Displacement theory explains forgetting when a memory subsystem is limited in terms of its

A. duration.
B. level of awareness.
C. capacity.
D. encoding

C

33

Which of the following defines encoding specificity?

a. grouping multiple items into a single unit

b. method of encoding affects later recall

c. remembering first and last items better than those in the middle of a list

d. remembering better when you apply material to yourself

B

34

When new information interferes with recalling old, previously learned information this is known as ______.

a. retroactive interference

b. forgetting theory

c. proactive interference

d. Inference theory

A

35

Visualizing a fabricated scenario, making it seem even more probable is known as _______.

a. false memory

b. misinformation

c. imagination inflation

d. source confusion

C

36

The area of the brain responsible for temporary storage of information is the _____.

a. amygdala

b. prefrontal cortex

c. hippocampus

d. cerebellum

B

37

A person sitting next to you in the library is chewing gum. You hardly notice it at first, but after two hours the sound seems louder and extremely annoying. Which concept explains this change?

a. repeated pairings

b. sensitization

c. punishment by application

d. habituation

B

38

Non-conscious processing which occurs without awareness, does not require large amount of cognitive resources is known as _____.

a. automatic processing

b. effortful processing

c. maintenance encoding

d. depth of processing

A

39

Which part of your brain is responsible for suppressing or inhibiting your initial emotional reaction to a situation, like for example, if you are angry and stop yourself from using a curse word in front of your teacher?

a) amygdala

b) frontal cortex

c) hypothalamus

d) endocrine system

B

40

Amelia is very focused on her diet and tries to consume the same amount of calories that she expends in energy each day. Amelia is focused on _____.

a) energy balance

b) external signals

c) basal metabolic rate

d) palatability

A

41

Which of the following is NOT part of the limbic system?

a) frontal lobe

b) amygdala

c) hippocampus

d) hypothalamus

A

42

According to the Humanistic perspective, when you you want to be does not match with what you believe others in the world want you to become you are experiencing ______.

a) congruence

b) ideal self

c) incongruence

d) unconditional positive regard

C

43

Grayson spends most of his time enjoying delicious expensive food, fancy clothes, and causal sex with lots of different women. Freud would say that Grayson is ruled by the ____.

a) id

b) Thanatos

c) superego

d) ego

A

44

Leaving too much psychic energy behind in a certain stage of development is known as _____.

a) fixation

b) latency

c) defense mechanisms

d) frustration

A

45

Roger's idea of _______ is the opposite of Freud's idea of Thanatos.

a) self-concept

b) conditions of worth

c) actualizing tendancy

d) self-esteem

C

46

According to the social-cognitive perspective, environmental factors are

a) a person’s belief that he or she can perform a behavior that will produce wanted outcomes.

b) thoughts, feelings, and biological characteristics that make you who you are.

c) external determinants of your personality and behaviors.

d) the only thing that determines the type of person you will become.

C

47

Dr. Duran showed his patient Adam a series of cards, each of which depicted an ambiguous scene, such as two people talking on a park bench, or an older woman looking over a young woman's shoulder. Dr. Duran asked Adam to tell him a story about the picture. What test is Dr. Duran using?

A) the Thematic Apperception Test

B) the California Personality Inventory

C) the Rorschach Inkblot Test

D) the Minnesota Multiphasic Test

A

48

Freud used the term _____ to refer to sexual energy or motivation.

A) Thanatos

B) libido

C) latent content

D) reaction formation

B

49

The neo-Freudians agreed with Freud's notion that:

A) sexual urges are the primary motivator of behavior.

B) early childhood experiences are the sole determinant of personality.

C) basic human nature is aggressive and destructive.

D) unconscious mental processes influence behavior

D

50

While talking to another coworker, Doug makes many hateful comments about Brian behind his back. Later that morning when he sees Brian, Doug acts very friendly to Brian and offers to buy him lunch. Which ego defense mechanism best explains Doug's behavior?

A) sublimation

B) undoing

C) repression

D) projection

B

51

Many psychoanalytic ideas are difficult to test because:

A) they cannot be operationally defined and objectively measured.

B) ethical guidelines prohibit this kind of research.

C) it is impossible to recruit naive research subjects who are unaware of Freud's ideas.

D) Freud's original notes and experimental data were destroyed by the Nazis.

A

52

A focus on similarities among people is to the _____ perspective as a focus on differences among people is to the _____ perspective.

A) trait; social cognitive

B) psychoanalytic; humanistic

C) psychoanalytic; trait

D) social cognitive; humanistic

C

53

According to the Yerkes-Dodson model, when facing a very difficult challenge, which level of arousal would probably lead to the best outcome?
A) A very low level

B) A moderately low level

C) A moderate level

D) A moderately high level

E) A very high level

B

54

The James-Lange theory of emotion states that

A) Emotional awareness precedes our physiological response to a stressful event

B) Emotional expression follows awareness of our physiological response to an arousing event

C) An arousing event simultaneously triggers both a cognitive awareness and a physiological response

D) The level of fear we first feel when we ride a roller coaster is reduced each time we experience the same event until thrill replaces it

E) When we are unaware of why we are feeling arousal, we take our cue from the environment

B

55

Jimmy got up in the middle of the night for a drink of water. Which theory of motivation best explains why Jimmy got out of bed?

A) Instinct theory

B) Optimum arousal theory

C) James-Lange theory

D) Drive-reduction theory

E) Self-actualizing theory

D

56

When Julie heard a noise outside her window, her heart started to beat faster, and as a result she became scared. Which theory of emotion could best explain Julie’s response of fear?

A) Cannon-Bard theory of emotion

B) James-Lange theory of emotion

C) Two-factor theory of emotion

D) Cognitive-mediational theory of emotion

E) Facial-feedback hypothesis

B

57

_______ is the idea that psychological needs create an aroused state that motivates an organism to reduce the need.

A) Instinct theory

B) Drive-reduction theory

C) Self-assertion instinct

D) Arousal theory

E) Hierarchy of needs

B

58

Trait theory attempts to

A) show how development of personality is a lifelong process

B) describe and classify people in terms of their predispositions to behave in certain ways

C) determine which traits are most conductive to individual self-actualization

D) explain how behavior is shaped by the interaction between traits, behavior, and the environment

B

59

With which of the following statements would a social-cognitive psychologist agree?

A) People with an internal locus of control achieve more in school

B) "Externals" are better able to cope with stress than "internals"

C) "Internals" are less independent than "externals"

D) A social-cognitive psychology would agree with all of these statements

A

60

A major difference between the psychoanalytic and trait perspective is that

A) trait theory defines personality in terms of behavior; psychoanalytic theory, in terms of its underlying dynamics

B) trait theory describes behavior but it does not attempt to explain it

C) psychoanalytic theory emphasizes the origins of personality in childhood sexuality

D) All of these are differences

D

61

A psychoanalyst would characterize a person who is impulsive and self-indulgent as possessing a strong ____ and a weak ______.

A) id and ego; supergo

B) id; ego and superego

C) ego; superego

D) id; superego

D

62

Kareem and Burke are having a heated argument over which theory of personality is correct. Kareem says that Burke's emphasis on learning reduces humans to robots and ignores their perceptions, values, and beliefs. Kareem is probably a _______ theorist, and Burke is a ______ theorist.

A) social-cognitive; psychodynamic

B) humanistic; psychodynamic

C) trait; social-cognitive

D) humanistic; social-cognitive

D

63

Which of the following would a humanistic psychologist use most frequently to assess personality?

A) Behavioral observations

B) Objective tests

C) Assessments of physiological activity

D) Personal interviews

D

64

Fixation occurs when

A) psychosexual conflicts are not resolved

B) we use defense mechanisms to relieve anxiety

C) the rewards in a given situation fix our behaviors

D) our progress toward self-actualization is blocked at some stage

A

65

Charlie acted the way he did because he saw life as a continual struggle. He felt that the world was against him and that everything he tried to do would be difficult and painful. This description of Charlie best fits with which approach to personality?

A) psychodynamic

B) trait

C) social-cognitive

D) humanistic

D

66

The MMPI is an example of a(n) ____ personality test

A) unreliable

B) invalid

C) projective

D) objective

D

67

When being in the presence of other people makes your ability to perform a task decline this is known as _______.

A) social inhibition

B) group think

C) social loafing

D) deindividuation

A

68

One of the strongest predictors of whether or not you will form a relationship with someone is _____.

A) proximity

B) good looks

C) financial security

D) physical attraction

A

69

If the presence of others helps your performance on a task this is known as _____.

A) groupthink

B) social loafing

C) social facilitation

D) social influence

C

70

Performing an action in response to the direct orders of an authority or person of higher status is known as _____.

A) compliance

B) obedience

C) normative social influence

D) informational social influence

B

71

The tendency to make external attributions when the outcome of our behavior is negative and internal attributions when the outcome is positive is known as the

A) actor-observer bias.

B) self-serving bias.

C) fundamental attribution error

B

72

Whenever John and Wendy are driving in the city, John drives because he believes that men can parallel park better than women. This is an example of a _______________.

A) self-serving bias

B) self-schema

C) internal attribution

D) stereotype

D

73

Which of the following fits Sternberg's idea of commitment?

A) feelings of attachment, closeness, and connectedness

B) the desire to remain with another person

C) romance, physical attraction, and sexual consummation

B

74

Benny and Izzy started dating soon after prom night when they were voted most attractive male and female in their graduating class. This fits with which of the following ideas regarding attraction?

A) matching hypothesis

B) commitment

C) intimacy

D) prosocial behavior

A

75

Which of the following defines social influence?

A) how to make sense of one’s own and others’ behavior

B) how to get along with other people

C) attempts by others to change our behavior

C

76

Which of the following is the best synonym for diathesis?

A) prolonged

B) acute

C) disease

D) predisposition

D

77

Which of the following defines explanatory style?

A) A process in which you assess if you have the resources necessary to deal with a situation.

B) Beliefs regarding how much you feel you control the outcome of a situation.

C) Beliefs about the origins or causes of events.

D) A process in which you assess whether a situation holds any danger.

C

78

Which of the following is the most common conflict situation in which there are both pros and cons to two or more decision options?

A) cataclysmic events

B) double approach/avoidance

C) daily hassles

D) economic stressors

B

79

Which of the following defines Post-Traumatic Growth?

A) The urge to run away from or confront a stressor.

B) People may emerge from suffering or challenging life events with increased awareness and more spirituality.

C) Stressors can lead us to band together.

D) The second phase of the General Adaptation Syndrome when the body tries to cope and adapt to ongoing strain.

B

80

You’re out walking late at night. You think you see someone sitting in the bushes just a few paces ahead of you. Your heart starts to pound and you start sweating. Which hormone is responsible for your response?

A) estrogen

B) adrenaline

C) testosterone

D) cortisol

B

81

Which of the following terms is defined by characteristics that are hard on the heart and include being mistrustful of others, cynical, and aggressively expression emotion?

A) hostility

B) internal locus of control

C) optimism

D) hardiness

A

82

Nadiya has tried many different diets but can't seem to loose the weight she wants. She feels like to no matter what she tries, she will not be successful because things like work and family obligations are what get in her way. Based on this, which of the following would be an appropriate characterization of Nadiya?

A) She is high in optimism.

B) She is high in hardiness.

C) She has an external locus of control.

D) She is low in conscientiousness.

C

83

Dr. Cass is questioning her patient's thought patterns and why he thinks things are the way they are. Dr. Cass is using which of the following techniques?

A) self-care

B) cognitive behavioral therapy

C) emotional disclosure

D) motivational interviewing

B

84

In his study of obedience, Stanley Milgram found that the majority of subjects:

A) Refused to shock the learner even once

B) Complied with the experiment until the "learner" first indicated pain

C) Complied with the experiment until the "learner" began screaming in agony

D) Complied with all the demands of the experiment

D

85

The phenomenon in which individuals lose their identity and relinquish normal restraints when they are part of a group called

A) Groupthink

B) Cognitive dissonance

C) Empathy

D) Deindividuation

D

86

Subjects in Asch's line-judgement experiment conformed to the group standard when their judgments were observed by others but not when they were made in private. This tendency to conform in public demonstrates:

A) Social facilitation

B) Overjustification

C) Informational Social Influence

D) Normative Social Influence

D

87

Which type of conflict is usually the MOST stressful?

A) Approach-approach

B) Avoidance-avoidance

C) Approach-avoidance

D) They are equally stressful.

B

88

Merida’s brother has autism. When they are on the playground together, she sees other kids making fun of him and excluding him from kickball. This is an example of

A) Prevelance.

B) Prognosis.

C) Stigma.

D) Diathesis.

C

89

Which of the following is a personality trait characterized by nervousness, sensitivity, and excitability?

A) High-strung temperament

B) Cognitive distortion

C) Attributional style

D) High levels of GABA

A

90

Kesha's therapist tells her that because her major depression has not responded to medication or other treatment approaches she recommends a procedure that delivers small doses of electric current through the brain, creating a brief seizure. Which treatment method is her therapist describing?

A) CBT

B) SSRI

C) ECT

D) tricyclics

C

91

Jackson hears voices coming from the walls of his house. They are telling him to hurt himself. He is experiencing which of the following symptoms of schizophrenia?

A) Flat affect

B) Hallucinations

C) Apathy

D) Delusions

B

92

Anna speaks in a monotone voice and avoids eye contact. She is displaying which of the following symptoms of schizophrenia?

A) Delusions

B) Flat affect

C) Hallucinations

D) Disorganized speech

B

93

Which of the following describes the structural brain abnormality often found in patients diagnosed with schizophrenia?

A) Diminished activity in the frontal lobes and enlarged ventricles

B) A missing hippocampus

C) Reduced levels of dopamine

D) Enlarged occipital and parietal lobe

A

94

What is correlational research?

A) Focuses on how a behavior of one group of people varies in relation to a behavior of another group of people

B) Focuses on what is going on at each age

C) Can determine the cause, uses random assignment of participants to groups

D) Design that compares the behavior of one age group at multiple points across time

E) Design that compares the behavior of multiple age groups at one point in time

A

95

What is longitudinal research?

A) Focuses on how a behavior of one group of people varies in relation to a behavior of another group of people

B) Focuses on what is going on at each age

C) Can determine the cause, uses random assignment of participants to groups

D) Design that compares the behavior of one age group at multiple points across time

E) Design that compares the behavior of multiple age groups at one point in time

D

96

The way primary influences like teachers and parents interact with each other would be a part of which of Brofenbrenner's systems?

A) Macrosystem

B) Microsystem

C) Exosystem

D) Mesosystem

D

97

Holly's daughter could produce about 3 words at her first birthday. Now, at age 2 she has a vocabulary of approximately 100 words. Developmental psychologists would refer to this as a _____ change.

A) Qualitative

B) Psychological

C) Physical

D) Quantitative

D

98

Which cognitive ability enables us to believe that things exist even if they cannot be seen?

A) Conservation

B) Object permanence

C) Egocentrism

D) Scaffolding

B

99

Elena is participating in an experiment. The experimenter first shows her five pennies stacked on top of one another and places this next to five other pennies spread out on the table. Elena says that the second arrangement has more. Elena is likely in which stage of cognitive development according to Piaget?

A) Concrete operational

B) Sensorimotor

C) Formal operational

D) Preoperational

D

100

What is the name for experimental set up designed by Ainsworth to study attachment which involves the mother leaving the room and a research assistant attempting to comfort the child until the mother returns?

A) Systems test

B) Attachment paradigm

C) Psychosocial Dilemma

D) Strange Situation

D

101

Lucy is upset when her mother leaves the room but does not really know how to react when she returns. She can't decide if she wants her or is angry. She even tries to hit her mom. Lucy is displaying which type of attachment style?

A) Ambivalent

B) Secure

C) Disorganized

D) Avoidant

A

102

Padma is trying to decide what she wants to be when she grows up. She considers what she likes and dislikes about school as well as what her parents would like for her. She is dealing with which of the following dilemmas?

A) Identity vs. role confusion

B) Trust vs. mistrust

C) Intimacy vs. isolation

D) Generativity vs. stagnation

A

103

The following statements either describe, explain, predict, or suggest changes for the behavior of a woman named Kellyann. Which of the following statements is best categorized as one that DESCRIBES Kellyann's behavior?

A) Kellyann wants to try something different and considers whether meditating might improve her mood.

B) In the future, Kellyann believes she will have difficulty sleeping.

C) Kellyann drinks three cups of coffee a day.

D) Kellyann's three young children are the reason she is tired.

C

104

Which of the following is an example of a P (Person) variable?

A) your father

B) your place of work

C) your anxious personality

D) your sister

C

105

The more alcohol people consume, the less accurate they are when performing a motor task. This represents a ______ correlation.

A) negative

B) positive

C) correlation

D) serial order

A

106

Which of the following is NOT a measure of central tendency?

A) Mean

B) Range

C) Median

D) Mode

B

107

Communication between neurons occurs at the ____.

A) Vesicles

B) Ion channels

C) Myelin sheath

D) Synapse

D

108

Daron's grandmother has Parkinson's disease. He learns in class that the _____ producing neurons in her brain are deteriorating resulting in the tremors and decreased mobility she is experiencing.

A) Endorphins

B) Serotonin

C) Dopamine

D) Glutamate

C

109

Jodi smokes a few times a week. The substance she smokes increases relaxation, alters her perception, and impairs coordination. It is likely that the substance she is smoking is a member of which category of drugs?

A) Hallucinogens

B) Cannabinoids

C) Stimulants

D) Opiates

B

110

Which part of the brain is one of the last to develop which explains why children and teenagers often make impulsive decisions and behavior in inappropriate ways?

A) Prefrontal cortex

B) Broca's area

C) Medulla

D) Thalamus

A

111

Which forebrain structure receives axons from dopamine cell bodies and is part of the pathway involved in the initiation and fluidity of movement?

A) Striatum

B) Broca's area

C) Medulla

D) Association cortex

A

112

Transduction for the olfactory system occurs in the _______.

A) Olfactory receptor cells

B) Limbic system

C) Olfactory bulb

D) Odorants

A

113

Transduction for the vestibular sense occurs in the ____.

A) Proprioceptors

B) Cochlea

C) Vestibular sacs and semicircular canals

D) Nociceptors

C

114

The specialized cells that respond to angles, lines, and edges of objects are known as _____.

A) Rods

B) Ganglion cells

C) Feature detectors

D) Bipolar cells

C