Print Options

Card layout: ?

← Back to notecard set|Easy Notecards home page

Instructions for Side by Side Printing
  1. Print the notecards
  2. Fold each page in half along the solid vertical line
  3. Cut out the notecards by cutting along each horizontal dotted line
  4. Optional: Glue, tape or staple the ends of each notecard together
  1. Verify Front of pages is selected for Viewing and print the front of the notecards
  2. Select Back of pages for Viewing and print the back of the notecards
    NOTE: Since the back of the pages are printed in reverse order (last page is printed first), keep the pages in the same order as they were after Step 1. Also, be sure to feed the pages in the same direction as you did in Step 1.
  3. Cut out the notecards by cutting along each horizontal and vertical dotted line
To print: Ctrl+PPrint as a list

114 notecards = 29 pages (4 cards per page)

Viewing:

PSYCHOLOGY FINAL EXAM- PREVIOUS EXAMS 3

front 1

Angie is going on a trip but after hearing about so many plane crashes on the news recently, she decides it would be better to drive than fly. Angie is making her decision by using the _______.
a. availability heuristic
b. elimination by aspects
c. representativeness heuristic
d. single feature model

back 1

A

front 2

Peter is 14-months-old and tells his mom, "Mommy, up!" Which of the following is likely true?
a. Peter is using telegraphic speech to convey what he wants.
b. Peter is not yet using full sentences and may have a problem with language delay.
c. Peter is babbling which is typical of a child at 14 months..
d. Peter is using infant-directed speech which is common at his age.

back 2

A

front 3

"It's simple. I know it's a table because it has a flat top and four legs." The person who is making this statement would likely side with which of the following approaches to categorization?
a. prototype theory
b. exemplar approach
c. definitional approach
d. natural concept approach

back 3

B

front 4

Conrad is trying to guess the number of jelly beans in a jar at a fair. He thinks that the best approach is to count the number he can see in one tenth of the jar and then multiply that number by 10. Conrad is using which of the following problem solving strategies?
a. a heuristic
b. intuition
c. trial and error
d. an algorithm

back 4

A

front 5

Involves trying and testing different possibilities until a successful solution is reached.

a. Trial and error

b. Algorithm

c. Heuristic

D. Intuition

back 5

A

front 6

Problem solving techniques that are like short cuts to a solution.

a. Trial and error

b. Algorithm

c. Heuristic

d. Intuition

back 6

C

front 7

Occurs when you come to a solution all of a sudden, often without realizing that you are about to get there.

a. Insight

b. Intuition

c. Heuristic

d. Mental set

back 7

A

front 8

Rely on probabilities while making a decision

a. Confirmation bias

b. Representativeness heuristic

c. Availability heuristic

d. Additive model

back 8

B

front 9

Base your decision on the number of similar examples you can bring to mind

a. Availability heuristic

b. Belief bias

c. Confirmation bias

d. Single feature model

back 9

A

front 10

The best or most typical instance of a category is called a ______.

a. prototype

b. exemplar

c. natural concept

d. formal concept

back 10

A

front 11

Which of the following explains why the definitional approach does not work?

a. There is no such thing as a true, actual example of a category.

b. Very few concepts have a clear definition or can be defined by a list of features.

c. Humans have a very difficult time grouping or organizing similar type of information together.

d. It is nearly impossible to come up with an ideal example of a category member.

back 11

B

front 12

Which of the following is the feature of language that allows us to communicate about things that are separated from us in time and space?

a. generativity

b. displacement

c. semantics

d. syntax

back 12

B

front 13

"Movies to the are we going." This sentence has incorrect English _____.

a. syntax

b. phonemes

c. semantics

d. generativity

back 13

A

front 14

Concepts that have a strict definition are known as ______.

a. natural concepts

b. prototypes

c. formal concepts

d. exemplars

back 14

C

front 15

The s factor suggests

a. that there exists some general mental ability that underlies performance on all intelligence tests.

b. that people are able to change or modify their behavior in response to experiences.

c. that there exist various individual mental abilities.

d. that intelligence is primarily a factor of speed of processing.

back 15

C

front 16

Research on intelligence has shown that which of the following is true?

a. If you have an identical twin you will likely score similarly to one another on an intelligence test, but only if you grew up in the same environment, not if you grew up in separate homes.

b. If you have an identical twin the likelihood that you will score similarly on an intelligence test is no greater than for any other biological siblings.

c. If you have an identical twin you will likely score similarly to one another on an intelligence test.

d. If you have an identical twin you are less likely to have similar scores on an intelligence test than are other biological siblings.

back 16

C

front 17

If an authority figure tells a person that he experienced a particular life event that, in reality, he never experienced, memory research has shown that the person will tend to

A. know immediately that the event never occurred.
B. rarely develop a false memory of the event.
C. almost always develop a false memory of the event.
D. sometimes develop a false memory of the event.

back 17

D

front 18

It is difficult to study the process of repression because

A. it cannot be studied experimentally.
B. it cannot be studied analytically.
C. it is thought to occur preconsciously
D. it is thought to occur unconsciously.

back 18

D

front 19

If a person is repeatedly and intensely pushed to retrieve an episodic memory that she has forgotten, it is likely that she will develop a mostly false memory. Which theory of forgetting helps us to explain why this happens?

A. reconstruction theory
B. encoding-specificity theory
C. decay theory
D. All the above are needed to explain false memories.

back 19

A

front 20

Critics of therapeutic techniques for recovering repressed memories state that these techniques involve a great deal of

A. retrieval.
B. suggestion.
C. encoding.
D. emotion.

back 20

B

front 21

According to the reconstruction theory of forgetting, which of the following statements about long-term memories probably is true?

A. Explicit long-term memories often are wrong in details, but implicit long-term memories typically are completely accurate.
B. Implicit long-term memories often are wrong in details, but explicit long-term memories typically are completely accurate.
C. Explicit memories are accurate in virtually all details, although we often have trouble retrieving the details.
D. Explicit memories may be accurate in broad terms, although they often are inaccurate in at least some of their details.

back 21

D

front 22

Defensive forgetting seems to have its effects on forgetting primarily by affecting the ___ of information.

A. encoding
B. storing
C. retrieving

back 22

C

front 23

According to reconstruction theory, the more often you recall an episodic memory, the more likely it is that your memory of the episode will become _____ over time.

A. less accurate
B. more accurate
C. less detailed
D. more detailed

back 23

A

front 24

People who have had severe damage to both hippocampi are likely to experience the most difficulty with forming new _____ memories.

A. semantic
B. episodic
C. implicit
D. working

back 24

B

front 25

A(n) ___ memory is a memory for some item of general knowledge (that is, a fact about the world).

A. semantic
B. explicit
C. working
D. episodic

back 25

A

front 26

Which of the following is the best way to create enduring (stable) long-term memories of verbal information — memories that can be activated by a wide range of retrieval cues?

A. semantic encoding
B. phonemic encoding
C. retrieval rehearsal
D. maintenance rehearsal

back 26

A

front 27

An essay test is a ___ measure of memory; a multiple-choice test assessing rote memorization is a ___ measure of memory.

A. relearning; recognition
B. recall; recognition
C. recall; relearning
D. recognition; recall

back 27

B

front 28

Let’s say that you were asked to memorize a 12-item word list that was read to you aloud. The list included the following words: dog, cap, box, lamp. If you encoded this information in working memory using maintenance rehearsal, which of the following MISTAKES would you be MOST likely to make when retrieving the words immediately after the word list had been read?

A. canine, hat, container, light
B. frog, sap, fox, cramp
C. cat, pants, plate, night

back 28

B

front 29

Elaborative rehearsal involves

A. linking new information to information already stored in long-term memory.
B. repeating new information over and over, thereby forming long-term memories.
C. the mental processes of storing and retrieving working and long-term memories.
D. maintaining new information in working memory for several minutes.

back 29

A

front 30

The concept of working memory is important because it

A. focuses on the fundamental importance of the iconic and echoic memory subsystems.
B. emphasizes that active information processing occurs in short-term memory.
C. is the place where preconscious and unconscious memories are initially processed.
D. all the above

back 30

B

front 31

If you learn a word list and misremember the word “fan” as “tan,” this shows that you encoded the word “fan”

A. phonemically.
B. semantically.
C. structurally.

back 31

A

front 32

Displacement theory explains forgetting when a memory subsystem is limited in terms of its

A. duration.
B. level of awareness.
C. capacity.
D. encoding

back 32

C

front 33

Which of the following defines encoding specificity?

a. grouping multiple items into a single unit

b. method of encoding affects later recall

c. remembering first and last items better than those in the middle of a list

d. remembering better when you apply material to yourself

back 33

B

front 34

When new information interferes with recalling old, previously learned information this is known as ______.

a. retroactive interference

b. forgetting theory

c. proactive interference

d. Inference theory

back 34

A

front 35

Visualizing a fabricated scenario, making it seem even more probable is known as _______.

a. false memory

b. misinformation

c. imagination inflation

d. source confusion

back 35

C

front 36

The area of the brain responsible for temporary storage of information is the _____.

a. amygdala

b. prefrontal cortex

c. hippocampus

d. cerebellum

back 36

B

front 37

A person sitting next to you in the library is chewing gum. You hardly notice it at first, but after two hours the sound seems louder and extremely annoying. Which concept explains this change?

a. repeated pairings

b. sensitization

c. punishment by application

d. habituation

back 37

B

front 38

Non-conscious processing which occurs without awareness, does not require large amount of cognitive resources is known as _____.

a. automatic processing

b. effortful processing

c. maintenance encoding

d. depth of processing

back 38

A

front 39

Which part of your brain is responsible for suppressing or inhibiting your initial emotional reaction to a situation, like for example, if you are angry and stop yourself from using a curse word in front of your teacher?

a) amygdala

b) frontal cortex

c) hypothalamus

d) endocrine system

back 39

B

front 40

Amelia is very focused on her diet and tries to consume the same amount of calories that she expends in energy each day. Amelia is focused on _____.

a) energy balance

b) external signals

c) basal metabolic rate

d) palatability

back 40

A

front 41

Which of the following is NOT part of the limbic system?

a) frontal lobe

b) amygdala

c) hippocampus

d) hypothalamus

back 41

A

front 42

According to the Humanistic perspective, when you you want to be does not match with what you believe others in the world want you to become you are experiencing ______.

a) congruence

b) ideal self

c) incongruence

d) unconditional positive regard

back 42

C

front 43

Grayson spends most of his time enjoying delicious expensive food, fancy clothes, and causal sex with lots of different women. Freud would say that Grayson is ruled by the ____.

a) id

b) Thanatos

c) superego

d) ego

back 43

A

front 44

Leaving too much psychic energy behind in a certain stage of development is known as _____.

a) fixation

b) latency

c) defense mechanisms

d) frustration

back 44

A

front 45

Roger's idea of _______ is the opposite of Freud's idea of Thanatos.

a) self-concept

b) conditions of worth

c) actualizing tendancy

d) self-esteem

back 45

C

front 46

According to the social-cognitive perspective, environmental factors are

a) a person’s belief that he or she can perform a behavior that will produce wanted outcomes.

b) thoughts, feelings, and biological characteristics that make you who you are.

c) external determinants of your personality and behaviors.

d) the only thing that determines the type of person you will become.

back 46

C

front 47

Dr. Duran showed his patient Adam a series of cards, each of which depicted an ambiguous scene, such as two people talking on a park bench, or an older woman looking over a young woman's shoulder. Dr. Duran asked Adam to tell him a story about the picture. What test is Dr. Duran using?

A) the Thematic Apperception Test

B) the California Personality Inventory

C) the Rorschach Inkblot Test

D) the Minnesota Multiphasic Test

back 47

A

front 48

Freud used the term _____ to refer to sexual energy or motivation.

A) Thanatos

B) libido

C) latent content

D) reaction formation

back 48

B

front 49

The neo-Freudians agreed with Freud's notion that:

A) sexual urges are the primary motivator of behavior.

B) early childhood experiences are the sole determinant of personality.

C) basic human nature is aggressive and destructive.

D) unconscious mental processes influence behavior

back 49

D

front 50

While talking to another coworker, Doug makes many hateful comments about Brian behind his back. Later that morning when he sees Brian, Doug acts very friendly to Brian and offers to buy him lunch. Which ego defense mechanism best explains Doug's behavior?

A) sublimation

B) undoing

C) repression

D) projection

back 50

B

front 51

Many psychoanalytic ideas are difficult to test because:

A) they cannot be operationally defined and objectively measured.

B) ethical guidelines prohibit this kind of research.

C) it is impossible to recruit naive research subjects who are unaware of Freud's ideas.

D) Freud's original notes and experimental data were destroyed by the Nazis.

back 51

A

front 52

A focus on similarities among people is to the _____ perspective as a focus on differences among people is to the _____ perspective.

A) trait; social cognitive

B) psychoanalytic; humanistic

C) psychoanalytic; trait

D) social cognitive; humanistic

back 52

C

front 53

According to the Yerkes-Dodson model, when facing a very difficult challenge, which level of arousal would probably lead to the best outcome?
A) A very low level

B) A moderately low level

C) A moderate level

D) A moderately high level

E) A very high level

back 53

B

front 54

The James-Lange theory of emotion states that

A) Emotional awareness precedes our physiological response to a stressful event

B) Emotional expression follows awareness of our physiological response to an arousing event

C) An arousing event simultaneously triggers both a cognitive awareness and a physiological response

D) The level of fear we first feel when we ride a roller coaster is reduced each time we experience the same event until thrill replaces it

E) When we are unaware of why we are feeling arousal, we take our cue from the environment

back 54

B

front 55

Jimmy got up in the middle of the night for a drink of water. Which theory of motivation best explains why Jimmy got out of bed?

A) Instinct theory

B) Optimum arousal theory

C) James-Lange theory

D) Drive-reduction theory

E) Self-actualizing theory

back 55

D

front 56

When Julie heard a noise outside her window, her heart started to beat faster, and as a result she became scared. Which theory of emotion could best explain Julie’s response of fear?

A) Cannon-Bard theory of emotion

B) James-Lange theory of emotion

C) Two-factor theory of emotion

D) Cognitive-mediational theory of emotion

E) Facial-feedback hypothesis

back 56

B

front 57

_______ is the idea that psychological needs create an aroused state that motivates an organism to reduce the need.

A) Instinct theory

B) Drive-reduction theory

C) Self-assertion instinct

D) Arousal theory

E) Hierarchy of needs

back 57

B

front 58

Trait theory attempts to

A) show how development of personality is a lifelong process

B) describe and classify people in terms of their predispositions to behave in certain ways

C) determine which traits are most conductive to individual self-actualization

D) explain how behavior is shaped by the interaction between traits, behavior, and the environment

back 58

B

front 59

With which of the following statements would a social-cognitive psychologist agree?

A) People with an internal locus of control achieve more in school

B) "Externals" are better able to cope with stress than "internals"

C) "Internals" are less independent than "externals"

D) A social-cognitive psychology would agree with all of these statements

back 59

A

front 60

A major difference between the psychoanalytic and trait perspective is that

A) trait theory defines personality in terms of behavior; psychoanalytic theory, in terms of its underlying dynamics

B) trait theory describes behavior but it does not attempt to explain it

C) psychoanalytic theory emphasizes the origins of personality in childhood sexuality

D) All of these are differences

back 60

D

front 61

A psychoanalyst would characterize a person who is impulsive and self-indulgent as possessing a strong ____ and a weak ______.

A) id and ego; supergo

B) id; ego and superego

C) ego; superego

D) id; superego

back 61

D

front 62

Kareem and Burke are having a heated argument over which theory of personality is correct. Kareem says that Burke's emphasis on learning reduces humans to robots and ignores their perceptions, values, and beliefs. Kareem is probably a _______ theorist, and Burke is a ______ theorist.

A) social-cognitive; psychodynamic

B) humanistic; psychodynamic

C) trait; social-cognitive

D) humanistic; social-cognitive

back 62

D

front 63

Which of the following would a humanistic psychologist use most frequently to assess personality?

A) Behavioral observations

B) Objective tests

C) Assessments of physiological activity

D) Personal interviews

back 63

D

front 64

Fixation occurs when

A) psychosexual conflicts are not resolved

B) we use defense mechanisms to relieve anxiety

C) the rewards in a given situation fix our behaviors

D) our progress toward self-actualization is blocked at some stage

back 64

A

front 65

Charlie acted the way he did because he saw life as a continual struggle. He felt that the world was against him and that everything he tried to do would be difficult and painful. This description of Charlie best fits with which approach to personality?

A) psychodynamic

B) trait

C) social-cognitive

D) humanistic

back 65

D

front 66

The MMPI is an example of a(n) ____ personality test

A) unreliable

B) invalid

C) projective

D) objective

back 66

D

front 67

When being in the presence of other people makes your ability to perform a task decline this is known as _______.

A) social inhibition

B) group think

C) social loafing

D) deindividuation

back 67

A

front 68

One of the strongest predictors of whether or not you will form a relationship with someone is _____.

A) proximity

B) good looks

C) financial security

D) physical attraction

back 68

A

front 69

If the presence of others helps your performance on a task this is known as _____.

A) groupthink

B) social loafing

C) social facilitation

D) social influence

back 69

C

front 70

Performing an action in response to the direct orders of an authority or person of higher status is known as _____.

A) compliance

B) obedience

C) normative social influence

D) informational social influence

back 70

B

front 71

The tendency to make external attributions when the outcome of our behavior is negative and internal attributions when the outcome is positive is known as the

A) actor-observer bias.

B) self-serving bias.

C) fundamental attribution error

back 71

B

front 72

Whenever John and Wendy are driving in the city, John drives because he believes that men can parallel park better than women. This is an example of a _______________.

A) self-serving bias

B) self-schema

C) internal attribution

D) stereotype

back 72

D

front 73

Which of the following fits Sternberg's idea of commitment?

A) feelings of attachment, closeness, and connectedness

B) the desire to remain with another person

C) romance, physical attraction, and sexual consummation

back 73

B

front 74

Benny and Izzy started dating soon after prom night when they were voted most attractive male and female in their graduating class. This fits with which of the following ideas regarding attraction?

A) matching hypothesis

B) commitment

C) intimacy

D) prosocial behavior

back 74

A

front 75

Which of the following defines social influence?

A) how to make sense of one’s own and others’ behavior

B) how to get along with other people

C) attempts by others to change our behavior

back 75

C

front 76

Which of the following is the best synonym for diathesis?

A) prolonged

B) acute

C) disease

D) predisposition

back 76

D

front 77

Which of the following defines explanatory style?

A) A process in which you assess if you have the resources necessary to deal with a situation.

B) Beliefs regarding how much you feel you control the outcome of a situation.

C) Beliefs about the origins or causes of events.

D) A process in which you assess whether a situation holds any danger.

back 77

C

front 78

Which of the following is the most common conflict situation in which there are both pros and cons to two or more decision options?

A) cataclysmic events

B) double approach/avoidance

C) daily hassles

D) economic stressors

back 78

B

front 79

Which of the following defines Post-Traumatic Growth?

A) The urge to run away from or confront a stressor.

B) People may emerge from suffering or challenging life events with increased awareness and more spirituality.

C) Stressors can lead us to band together.

D) The second phase of the General Adaptation Syndrome when the body tries to cope and adapt to ongoing strain.

back 79

B

front 80

You’re out walking late at night. You think you see someone sitting in the bushes just a few paces ahead of you. Your heart starts to pound and you start sweating. Which hormone is responsible for your response?

A) estrogen

B) adrenaline

C) testosterone

D) cortisol

back 80

B

front 81

Which of the following terms is defined by characteristics that are hard on the heart and include being mistrustful of others, cynical, and aggressively expression emotion?

A) hostility

B) internal locus of control

C) optimism

D) hardiness

back 81

A

front 82

Nadiya has tried many different diets but can't seem to loose the weight she wants. She feels like to no matter what she tries, she will not be successful because things like work and family obligations are what get in her way. Based on this, which of the following would be an appropriate characterization of Nadiya?

A) She is high in optimism.

B) She is high in hardiness.

C) She has an external locus of control.

D) She is low in conscientiousness.

back 82

C

front 83

Dr. Cass is questioning her patient's thought patterns and why he thinks things are the way they are. Dr. Cass is using which of the following techniques?

A) self-care

B) cognitive behavioral therapy

C) emotional disclosure

D) motivational interviewing

back 83

B

front 84

In his study of obedience, Stanley Milgram found that the majority of subjects:

A) Refused to shock the learner even once

B) Complied with the experiment until the "learner" first indicated pain

C) Complied with the experiment until the "learner" began screaming in agony

D) Complied with all the demands of the experiment

back 84

D

front 85

The phenomenon in which individuals lose their identity and relinquish normal restraints when they are part of a group called

A) Groupthink

B) Cognitive dissonance

C) Empathy

D) Deindividuation

back 85

D

front 86

Subjects in Asch's line-judgement experiment conformed to the group standard when their judgments were observed by others but not when they were made in private. This tendency to conform in public demonstrates:

A) Social facilitation

B) Overjustification

C) Informational Social Influence

D) Normative Social Influence

back 86

D

front 87

Which type of conflict is usually the MOST stressful?

A) Approach-approach

B) Avoidance-avoidance

C) Approach-avoidance

D) They are equally stressful.

back 87

B

front 88

Merida’s brother has autism. When they are on the playground together, she sees other kids making fun of him and excluding him from kickball. This is an example of

A) Prevelance.

B) Prognosis.

C) Stigma.

D) Diathesis.

back 88

C

front 89

Which of the following is a personality trait characterized by nervousness, sensitivity, and excitability?

A) High-strung temperament

B) Cognitive distortion

C) Attributional style

D) High levels of GABA

back 89

A

front 90

Kesha's therapist tells her that because her major depression has not responded to medication or other treatment approaches she recommends a procedure that delivers small doses of electric current through the brain, creating a brief seizure. Which treatment method is her therapist describing?

A) CBT

B) SSRI

C) ECT

D) tricyclics

back 90

C

front 91

Jackson hears voices coming from the walls of his house. They are telling him to hurt himself. He is experiencing which of the following symptoms of schizophrenia?

A) Flat affect

B) Hallucinations

C) Apathy

D) Delusions

back 91

B

front 92

Anna speaks in a monotone voice and avoids eye contact. She is displaying which of the following symptoms of schizophrenia?

A) Delusions

B) Flat affect

C) Hallucinations

D) Disorganized speech

back 92

B

front 93

Which of the following describes the structural brain abnormality often found in patients diagnosed with schizophrenia?

A) Diminished activity in the frontal lobes and enlarged ventricles

B) A missing hippocampus

C) Reduced levels of dopamine

D) Enlarged occipital and parietal lobe

back 93

A

front 94

What is correlational research?

A) Focuses on how a behavior of one group of people varies in relation to a behavior of another group of people

B) Focuses on what is going on at each age

C) Can determine the cause, uses random assignment of participants to groups

D) Design that compares the behavior of one age group at multiple points across time

E) Design that compares the behavior of multiple age groups at one point in time

back 94

A

front 95

What is longitudinal research?

A) Focuses on how a behavior of one group of people varies in relation to a behavior of another group of people

B) Focuses on what is going on at each age

C) Can determine the cause, uses random assignment of participants to groups

D) Design that compares the behavior of one age group at multiple points across time

E) Design that compares the behavior of multiple age groups at one point in time

back 95

D

front 96

The way primary influences like teachers and parents interact with each other would be a part of which of Brofenbrenner's systems?

A) Macrosystem

B) Microsystem

C) Exosystem

D) Mesosystem

back 96

D

front 97

Holly's daughter could produce about 3 words at her first birthday. Now, at age 2 she has a vocabulary of approximately 100 words. Developmental psychologists would refer to this as a _____ change.

A) Qualitative

B) Psychological

C) Physical

D) Quantitative

back 97

D

front 98

Which cognitive ability enables us to believe that things exist even if they cannot be seen?

A) Conservation

B) Object permanence

C) Egocentrism

D) Scaffolding

back 98

B

front 99

Elena is participating in an experiment. The experimenter first shows her five pennies stacked on top of one another and places this next to five other pennies spread out on the table. Elena says that the second arrangement has more. Elena is likely in which stage of cognitive development according to Piaget?

A) Concrete operational

B) Sensorimotor

C) Formal operational

D) Preoperational

back 99

D

front 100

What is the name for experimental set up designed by Ainsworth to study attachment which involves the mother leaving the room and a research assistant attempting to comfort the child until the mother returns?

A) Systems test

B) Attachment paradigm

C) Psychosocial Dilemma

D) Strange Situation

back 100

D

front 101

Lucy is upset when her mother leaves the room but does not really know how to react when she returns. She can't decide if she wants her or is angry. She even tries to hit her mom. Lucy is displaying which type of attachment style?

A) Ambivalent

B) Secure

C) Disorganized

D) Avoidant

back 101

A

front 102

Padma is trying to decide what she wants to be when she grows up. She considers what she likes and dislikes about school as well as what her parents would like for her. She is dealing with which of the following dilemmas?

A) Identity vs. role confusion

B) Trust vs. mistrust

C) Intimacy vs. isolation

D) Generativity vs. stagnation

back 102

A

front 103

The following statements either describe, explain, predict, or suggest changes for the behavior of a woman named Kellyann. Which of the following statements is best categorized as one that DESCRIBES Kellyann's behavior?

A) Kellyann wants to try something different and considers whether meditating might improve her mood.

B) In the future, Kellyann believes she will have difficulty sleeping.

C) Kellyann drinks three cups of coffee a day.

D) Kellyann's three young children are the reason she is tired.

back 103

C

front 104

Which of the following is an example of a P (Person) variable?

A) your father

B) your place of work

C) your anxious personality

D) your sister

back 104

C

front 105

The more alcohol people consume, the less accurate they are when performing a motor task. This represents a ______ correlation.

A) negative

B) positive

C) correlation

D) serial order

back 105

A

front 106

Which of the following is NOT a measure of central tendency?

A) Mean

B) Range

C) Median

D) Mode

back 106

B

front 107

Communication between neurons occurs at the ____.

A) Vesicles

B) Ion channels

C) Myelin sheath

D) Synapse

back 107

D

front 108

Daron's grandmother has Parkinson's disease. He learns in class that the _____ producing neurons in her brain are deteriorating resulting in the tremors and decreased mobility she is experiencing.

A) Endorphins

B) Serotonin

C) Dopamine

D) Glutamate

back 108

C

front 109

Jodi smokes a few times a week. The substance she smokes increases relaxation, alters her perception, and impairs coordination. It is likely that the substance she is smoking is a member of which category of drugs?

A) Hallucinogens

B) Cannabinoids

C) Stimulants

D) Opiates

back 109

B

front 110

Which part of the brain is one of the last to develop which explains why children and teenagers often make impulsive decisions and behavior in inappropriate ways?

A) Prefrontal cortex

B) Broca's area

C) Medulla

D) Thalamus

back 110

A

front 111

Which forebrain structure receives axons from dopamine cell bodies and is part of the pathway involved in the initiation and fluidity of movement?

A) Striatum

B) Broca's area

C) Medulla

D) Association cortex

back 111

A

front 112

Transduction for the olfactory system occurs in the _______.

A) Olfactory receptor cells

B) Limbic system

C) Olfactory bulb

D) Odorants

back 112

A

front 113

Transduction for the vestibular sense occurs in the ____.

A) Proprioceptors

B) Cochlea

C) Vestibular sacs and semicircular canals

D) Nociceptors

back 113

C

front 114

The specialized cells that respond to angles, lines, and edges of objects are known as _____.

A) Rods

B) Ganglion cells

C) Feature detectors

D) Bipolar cells

back 114

C