MIDTERM 2 biology Flashcards


Set Details Share
created 6 years ago by Dustin44
12,664 views
updated 6 years ago by Dustin44
Subjects:
bio
show moreless
Page to share:
Embed this setcancel
COPY
code changes based on your size selection
Size:
X
Show:

1

2) Starting with a fertilized egg (zygote), a series of five cell divisions would produce an early embryo with how many cells?
A) 4
B) 8
C) 16
D) 32
E) 64

D)32

2

For a newly evolving protist, what would be the advantage of using eukaryote-like cell division rather than binary fission?

A) Binary fission would not allow for the formation of new organisms.
B) Cell division would allow for the orderly and efficient segregation of multiple linear chromosomes.
C) Cell division would be faster than binary fission.
D) Cell division allows for lower rates of error per chromosome replication.
E) Binary fission would not allow the organism to have complex cells.

B) Cell division would allow for the orderly and efficient segregation of multiple linear chromosomes.

3

Suppose a biologist can separate one of a dozen pieces of chromatin from a eukaryotic (animal) nucleus. It might consist of which of the following?

A) one-twelfth of the genes of the organism
B) two chromosomes, each with six chromatids
C) a single circular piece of DNA
D) two long strands of DNA plus proteins
E) two chromatids attached together at a centromere

D) two long strands of DNA plus proteins

4

6) At which phase are centrioles beginning to move apart in animal cells?

A) telophase
B) anaphase
C) prometaphase
D) metaphase
E) prophase

card image

E) PROPHASE

5

7) If cells in the process of dividing are subjected to colchicine, a drug that interferes with the formation of the spindle apparatus, at which stage will mitosis be arrested?

A) anaphase
B) prophase
C) telophase
D) metaphase
E) interphase

D) metaphase

formation of the spindle apparatus

6

If there are 20 centromeres in a cell at anaphase, how many chromosomes are there in each daughter cell following cytokinesis?

A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40
E) 80

A) 10

7

Where do the microtubules of the spindle originate during mitosis in both plant and animal cells?

A) centromere
B) centrosome
C) centriole
D) chromatid
E) kinetochore

card image

B) centrosome

8

Taxol is an anticancer drug extracted from the Pacific yew tree. In animal cells, Taxol disrupts microtubule formation by binding to microtubules and accelerating their assembly from the protein precursor, tubulin. Surprisingly, this stops mitosis. Specifically, Taxol must affect

A) the formation of the mitotic spindle.
B) anaphase.
C) formation of the centrioles.
D) chromatid assembly.
E) the S phase of the cell cycle.

A) the formation of the mitotic spindle.

9

Which of the following are primarily responsible for cytokinesis in plant cells but not in animal cells?

A) kinetochores
B) Golgi-derived vesicles
C) actin and myosin
D) centrioles and centromeres
E) cyclin-dependent kinases

B) Golgi-derived vesicles

10

In which group of eukaryotic organisms does the nuclear envelope remain intact during mitosis?

A) seedless plants
B) dinoflagellates
C) diatoms
D) dinoflagellates and diatoms only
E) seedless plants, dinoflagellates, and diatoms

D) dinoflagellates and diatoms only

research!!!

11

A group of cells is assayed for DNA content immediately following mitosis and is found to have an average of 8 picograms of DNA per nucleus. How many picograms would be found at the end of S and the end of G₂?

A) 8; 8
B) 8; 16
C) 16; 8
D) 16; 16
E) 12; 16

D) 16; 16

12

For anaphase to begin, which of the following must occur?

A) Chromatids must lose their kinetochores.
B) Cohesin must attach the sister chromatids to each other.
C) Cohesin must be cleaved enzymatically.
D) Kinetochores must attach to the metaphase plate.
E) Spindle microtubules must begin to depolymerize

C) Cohesin must be cleaved enzymatically.

13

Which of the following best describes how chromosomes move toward the poles of the spindle during mitosis?

A) The chromosomes are "reeled in" by the contraction of spindle microtubules.
B) Motor proteins of the kinetochores move the chromosomes along the spindle microtubules.
C) Nonkinetochore spindle fibers serve to push chromosomes in the direction of the poles.
D) The chromosomes are "reeled in" by the contraction of spindle microtubules, and motor proteins of the kinetochores move the chromosomes along the spindle microtubules.
E) The chromosomes are "reeled in" by the contraction of spindle microtubules, motor proteins of the kinetochores move the chromosomes along the spindle microtubules, and nonkinetochore spindle fibers serve to push chromosomes in the direction of the poles.

card image

D) The chromosomes are "reeled in" by the contraction of spindle microtubules, and motor proteins of the kinetochores move the chromosomes along the spindle microtubules.

14

Which of the following is a function of those spindle microtubules that do not attach to kinetochores?

A) maintaining an appropriate spacing among the moving chromosomes
B) producing a cleavage furrow when telophase is complete
C) providing the ATP needed by the fibers attached to kinetochores
D) maintaining the region of overlap of microtubules in the cell's center
E) pulling the poles of the spindles closer to one another

D) maintaining the region of overlap of microtubules in the cell's center

15

During which phase of mitosis do the chromatids become chromosomes?

A) telophase
B) anaphase
C) prophase
D) metaphase
E) cytokinesis

A) telophase

16

The human genome is minimally contained in which of the following?

A) every human cell
B) each human chromosome
C) the entire DNA of a single human
D) the entire human population
E) each human gene

A) every human cell

17

In the human species, all somatic cells have 46 chromosomes. Which of the following can also be true?

A) A plant species (privet shrubs) has 46 chromosomes per cell.
B) Some adult humans have 69 chromosomes per cell.
C) Some adult humans have 23 chromosomes per cell.
D) A certain fungal species has only one chromosome per cell.
E) A certain bacterial species has 23 chromosomes

A) A plant species (privet shrubs) has 46 chromosomes per cell.

18

Which of the following is a true statement about sexual vs. asexual reproduction?
A) Asexual reproduction, but not sexual reproduction, is characteristic of plants and fungi.
B) In sexual reproduction, individuals transmit 50% of their genes to each of their offspring.
C) In asexual reproduction, offspring are produced by fertilization without meiosis.
D) Sexual reproduction requires that parents be diploid.
E) Asexual reproduction produces only haploid offspring

B) In sexual reproduction, individuals transmit 50% of their genes to each of their offspring.

19
card image

At which stage of mitosis are chromosomes usually photographed in the preparation of a karyotype?
A) prophase
B) metaphase
C) anaphase
D) telophase
E) interphase

card image

B) metaphase

20

Which of the following defines a genome?
A) representation of a complete set of a cell's polypeptides
B) the complete set of an organism's polypeptides
C) the complete set of a species' polypeptides
D) a karyotype
E) the complete set of an organism's genes

E) the complete set of an organism's genes

Answer: E

21

Which of the following is true of a species that has a chromosome number of 2n = 16?

A) The species is diploid with 32 chromosomes per cell.
B) The species has 16 sets of chromosomes per cell.
C) Each cell has eight homologous pairs.
D) During the S phase of the cell cycle there will be 32 separate chromosomes.
E) A gamete from this species has four chromosomes

C) Each cell has eight homologous pairs.

22

Eukaryotic sexual life cycles show tremendous variation. Of the following elements, which do all sexual life cycles have in common?

I. Alternation of generations
II. Meiosis
III. Fertilization
IV. Gametes
V. Spores

A) I, IV, and V
B) I, II, and IV
C) II, III, and IV
D) II, IV, and V
E) I, II, III, IV, and V

C) II, III, and IV

23

Which of these statements is false?
A) In humans, each of the 22 maternal autosomes has a homologous paternal chromosome.
B) In humans, the 23rd pair, the sex chromosomes, determines whether the person is female (XX) or male (XY).
C) Single, haploid (n) sets of chromosomes in ovum and sperm unite during fertilization, forming a diploid (2n), single-celled zygote.
D) At sexual maturity, ovaries and testes produce diploid gametes by meiosis.
E) Sexual life cycles differ with respect to the relative timing of meiosis and fertilization

D) At sexual maturity, ovaries and testes produce diploid gametes by meiosis.

24

Referring to a plant's sexual life cycle, which of the following terms describes the process that leads directly to the formation of gametes?
A) sporophyte meiosis
B) gametophyte mitosis
C) gametophyte meiosis
D) sporophyte mitosis
E) alternation of generations

B) gametophyte mitosis

25

Which of the following is an example of alternation of generations?
A) A grandparent and grandchild each have dark hair, but the parent has blond hair.
B) A diploid plant (sporophyte) produces, by meiosis, a spore that gives rise to a multicellular, haploid pollen grain (gametophyte).
C) A diploid animal produces gametes by meiosis, and the gametes undergo fertilization to produce a diploid zygote.
D) A haploid mushroom produces gametes by mitosis, and the gametes undergo fertilization, which is immediately followed by meiosis.
E) A diploid cell divides by mitosis to produce two diploid daughter cells, which then fuse to produce a tetraploid cell.

B) A diploid plant (sporophyte) produces, by meiosis, a spore that gives rise to a multicellular, haploid pollen grain (gametophyte).

26

The karyotype of one species of primate has 48 chromosomes. In a particular female, cell division goes awry and she produces one of her eggs with an extra chromosome (25). The most probable source of this error would be a mistake in which of the following?
A) mitosis in her ovary
B) metaphase I of one meiotic event
C) telophase II of one meiotic event
D) telophase I of one meiotic event
E) either anaphase I or II

E) either anaphase 1 and 2

27

A given organism has 46 chromosomes in its karyotype. We can therefore conclude which of the following?
A) It must be human.
B) It must be a primate.
C) It must be an animal.
D) It must be sexually reproducing.
E) Its gametes must have 23 chromosomes

E) Its gametes must have 23 chromosomes.

28

A triploid cell contains three sets of chromosomes. If a cell of a usually diploid species with 42 chromosomes per cell is triploid, this cell would be expected to have which of the following?
A) 63 chromosomes in 31 1/2 pairs
B) 63 chromosomes in 21 sets of 3
C) 63 chromosomes, each with three chromatids
D) 21 chromosome pairs and 21 unique chromosomes

B) 63 chromosomes in 21 sets of 3

29

A karyotype results from which of the following?
A) a natural cellular arrangement of chromosomes in the nucleus
B) an inherited ability of chromosomes to arrange themselves
C) the ordering of human chromosome images
D) the cutting and pasting of parts of chromosomes to form the standard array
E) the separation of homologous chromosomes at metaphase I of meiosis

C) the ordering of human chromosome images

30

Which of the following best describes a karyotype?

A) a pictorial representation of all the genes for a species
B) a display of each of the chromosomes of a single cell
C) the combination of all the maternal and paternal chromosomes of a species
D) the collection of all the chromosomes in an individual organism
E) a photograph of all the cells with missing or extra chromosomes

B) a display of each of the chromosomes of a single cell

31

If a cell has completed the first meiotic division and is just beginning meiosis II, which of the following is an appropriate description of its contents?
A) It has half the amount of DNA as the cell that began meiosis.
B) It has the same number of chromosomes but each of them has different alleles than another cell from the same meiosis.
C) It has half the chromosomes but twice the DNA of the originating cell.
D) It has one-fourth the DNA and one-half the chromosomes as the originating cell.
E) It is identical in content to another cell from the same meiosis

A) It has half the amount of DNA as the cell that began meiosis.

32

Which of the following can utilize both mitosis and meiosis in the correct circumstances?
A) a haploid animal cell
B) a diploid cell from a plant stem
C) any diploid animal cell
D) a plantlike protist
E) an archaebacterium

D) a plantlike protist

33

Which of the following might result in a human zygote with 45 chromosomes?
A) an error in either egg or sperm meiotic anaphase
B) failure of the egg nucleus to be fertilized by the sperm
C) fertilization of a 23 chromosome human egg by a 22 chromosome sperm of a closely related species
D) an error in the alignment of chromosomes on the metaphase plate
E) lack of chiasmata in prophase I

A) an error in either egg or sperm meiotic anaphase

34

Which of the following was a discovery that had to be made before human chromosomes could be correctly counted?

A) how to use a hypotonic solution to swell nuclei
B) how to visualize sperm nuclei
C) how to visualize chromosomes
D) when to see chromosomes separate from one another
E) when to see chromosomes in pairs

A) how to use a hypotonic solution to swell nuclei

35

Which of the following is (are) required for motor proteins to function in the movement of chromosomes toward the poles of the mitotic spindle?

A) intact centromeres
B) an MTOC (microtubule organizing center)
C) a kinetochore attached to the metaphase plate
D) ATP as an energy source
E) synthesis of cohesin

D) ATP as an energy source

36

Which of the following proteins are involved in binary fission as well as eukaryotic mitotic division?
A) cyclins
B) Cdks
C) MPF
D) actin and tubulin
E) cohesins

D) actin and tubulin

37

Using which of the following techniques would enable your lab group to distinguish between a cell in G₂ and a cell from the same organism in G₁?

A) fluorescence microscopy
B) electron microscopy
C) spectrophotometry
D) radioactive-labeled nucleotides
E) labeled kinetochore proteins

card image

D) radioactive-labeled nucleotides

38

You have the technology necessary to measure each of the following in a sample of animal cells: chlorophylls, organelle density, picograms of DNA, cell wall components, and enzymatic activity. Which would you expect to increase significantly from M to G₁?

A) organelle density and enzymatic activity
B) cell wall components and DNA
C) chlorophyll and cell walls
D) organelle density and cell walls
E) chlorophyll and DNA

A) organelle density and enzymatic activity

39

A plant-derived protein known as colchicine can be used to poison cells by blocking the formation of the spindle. Which of the following would result if colchicine is added to a sample of cells in G₂?

A) The cells would immediately die.
B) The cells would be unable to begin M and stay in G₂.
C) The chromosomes would coil and shorten but have no spindle to which to attach.
D) The chromosomes would segregate but in a disorderly pattern.
E) Each resultant daughter cell would also be unable to form a spindle

C) The chromosomes would coil and shorten but have no spindle to which to attach.

40

What causes the decrease in the amount of cyclin at a specific point in the cell cycle?

A) an increase in production once the restriction point is passed
B) the cascade of increased production once its protein is phosphorylated by Cdk
C) the changing ratio of cytoplasm to genome
D) its destruction by a process initiated by the activity of its complex with a cyclin
E) the binding of PDGF to receptors on the cell surface

D) its destruction by a process initiated by the activity of its complex with a cyclin

41

Which of the following is released by platelets in the vicinity of an injury?

A) PDGF
B) MPF
C) protein kinase
D) cyclin
E) Cdk

A) PDGF

Тромбоцитарный фактор роста

Platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) is one of the numerous growth factors or proteins that regulate cell growth and division. In particular, it plays a significant role in blood vessel formation (angiogenesis), the growth of blood vessels from already-existing blood vessel tissue

42

Which of the following is a protein synthesized at specific times during the cell cycle that associates with a kinase to form a catalytically active complex?

A) PDGF
B) MPF
C) protein kinase
D) cyclin
E) Cdk

D) cyclin

43

Proteins that are involved in the regulation of the cell cycle, and that show fluctuations in concentration during the cell cycle, are called
A) ATPases.
B) kinetochores.
C) kinases.
D) proton pumps.
E) cyclins.

E) cyclins

44

A mutation results in a cell that no longer produces a normal protein kinase for the M phase checkpoint. Which of the following would likely be the immediate result of this mutation?

A) The cell would prematurely enter anaphase.
B) The cell would never leave metaphase.
C) The cell would never enter metaphase.
D) The cell would never enter prophase.
E) The cell would undergo normal mitosis, but fail to enter the next G₁ phase.

E) The cell would undergo normal mitosis, but fail to enter the next G₁ phase.

45

Which of the following is true concerning cancer cells?

A) They do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition when growing in culture.
B) When they stop dividing, they do so at random points in the cell cycle.
C) They are not subject to cell cycle controls.
D) When they stop dividing, they do so at random points in the cell cycle, and they are not subject to cell cycle controls.
E) When they stop dividing, they do so at random points in the cell cycle; they are not subject to cell cycle controls; and they do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition when growing in culture

E) When they stop dividing, they do so at random points in the cell cycle; they are not subject to cell cycle controls; and they do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition when growing in culture

46

Besides the ability of some cancer cells to overproliferate, what else could logically result in a tumor?

A) metastasis
B) changes in the order of cell cycle stages
C) lack of appropriate cell death
D) inability to form spindles
E) inability of chromosomes to meet at the metaphase plate

C) lack of appropriate cell death

47

After which checkpoint is the cell first committed to continue the cell cycle through M?
A) G₀
B) G₁
C) G₂
D) S
E) previous M

card image

B) G₁

48

Why do neurons and some other specialized cells divide infrequently?

A) They no longer have active nuclei.
B) They no longer carry receptors for signal molecules.
C) They have been shunted into G₀.
D) They can no longer bind Cdk to cyclin.
E) They show a drop in MPF concentration

C) They have been shunted into G₀.

49

All cell cycle checkpoints are similar in which way?

A) They respond to the same cyclins.
B) They utilize the same Cdks.
C) They give the go-ahead signal to progress to the next checkpoint.
D) They each have only one cyclin/Cdk complex.
E) They activate or inactivate other proteins

E) They activate or inactivate other proteins

50

At the M phase checkpoint, the complex allows for what to occur?

A) Separase enzyme cleaves cohesins and allows chromatids to separate.
B) Cohesins alter separase to allow chromatids to separate.
C) Kinetochores are able to bind to spindle microtubules.
D) All microtubules are made to bind to kinetochores.
E) Daughter cells are allowed to pass into G₁

A) Separase enzyme cleaves cohesins and allows chromatids to separate.

51

For the following question, match the key event of meiosis with the stages listed below.

I. Prophase I V. Prophase II
II. Metaphase I VI. Metaphase II
III. Anaphase I VII. Anaphase II
IV. Telophase I VIII. Telophase II

Tetrads of chromosomes are aligned at the equator of the spindle; alignment determines independent assortment.
A) I
B) II
C) IV
D) VI
E) VIII

B) II

52

Which of the following best describes the frequency of crossing over in mammals?
A) ~50 per chromosome pair
B) ~2 per meiotic cell
C) at least 1-2 per chromosome pair
D) ~1 per pair of sister chromatids
E) a very rare event among hundreds of cells

C) at least 1-2 per chromosome pair