Module 5: Take Home Exam 5 Flashcards


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1

The majority of cases of staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome occur in
A. anyone with Staphylococcus aureus infection
B. menstruating women
C. newly delivered mothers
D. nasal surgery patients
E. uncircumcised males

B

2

A small puncture wound on a woman's arm has become swollen, hot to the touch, and intensely painful. There is tissue necrosis, but it is not "gassy," and under the microscope Gram-positive cocci in chains are present. Which of the following microbes is likely to be responsible?
A) Clostridium perfringens
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C) Streptococcus pyogenes
D) Staphylococcus aureus
E) Sporothrix schenckii

C

3

Trichomonas vaginalis is usually transmitted via sexual intercourse because it
A) participates with HIV in coinfections
B) penetrates cells lining the genitourinary tract
C) cannot live long outside the body
D) produces cysts that germinate in the vagina
E) requires a growth factor found only in the vagina

C

4

Which of the following is characteristic of Yersinia pestis infections?
A) petechiae
B) arthritis
C) jaundice
D) a "bulls eye" rash
E) buboes

E

5

Diagnosis of hepatitis B infection is made by the observation of which of the following in the patient's body fluids?
A) endospores
B) Dane particles
C) oocysts
D) enterotoxins
E) O antigens

B

6

A child is brought to the hospital with a high fever, nausea, and vomiting, and complaining of headache. The cerebrospinal fluid collected by spinal tap is cloudy and contains spherical cells which stain Gram-positive. These signs and symptoms are consistent with
A) cryptococcal meningitis due to infection with Cryptococcus neoformans
B) bacterial meningitis probably due to Streptococcus
C) tetanus resulting from infection with Clostridium botulinum
D) aseptic meningitis from infection with Neisseria meningitidis
E) primary amebic encephalitis caused by Naegleria

B

7

Bordetella pertussis produces
A. dermonecrotic toxin
B. adenylate cyclase toxin
C. pyrogenic toxin
D. dermonecrotic, adenylate cyclase toxin, and pyrogenic toxin
E. dermonecrotic and adenylate cyclase toxin

E

8

Ringworm is caused by
A. worms infected with fungi invading the skin.
B. dermatophytes that have invaded deep into the living tissue.
C. dermatophytes growing in the upper dead tissue layers of the skin.
D. a hypersensitivity caused by superficial contact with dermatophytes.
E. toxins produced by dermatophytes.n.

C

9

Which of the following methods of preserving food sterilizes it?

A. lyophilization

B. gamma radiation

C. canning

D. drying

E. pasteurization

B

10

The highly destructive form of Hansen's disease is the result of
A. poor immune response to Streptococcus agalactiae.
B. infection with rabies virus.
C. intracellular infection with Clostridium botulinum.
D. poor immune response to Mycobacterium leprae.
E. autoimmune disease triggered by Myobacteria leprae.

D

11

A child has a rash on the face, arms, upper legs and torso that is splotchy, and intensifies after being in the sun. The child does not complain of fever or itchiness. The signs and symptoms are consistent with
A) cat scratch disease
B) fifth disease
C) roseola
D) chickenpox
E) scabies

B

12

Which of the following diseases is a major problem for AIDS patients?
A) brucellosis
B) Lyme diseas
C) hemorrhagic fevers
D) Chagas' disease
E) toxoplasmosis

E

13

Necrotizing fasciitis is caused by
A. pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. staphylococcus aureus
C. rickettsia ricketsii
D. streptococcus pyogenes
E. both streptococcus pyogenes and staphylococcus aureus

E

14

When bacteria invade the kidney, the result can be
A) prostatitis
B) ectopic
C) pyelonephritis
D) bacteriosis
E) cystitis

C

15

The normal habitat of ______ is rodents, but humans bitten by fleas carrying the pathogen have fever, severely inflamed lymph nodes, and headache. Later, areas of black, necrotic tissue may develop.
A) Borrelia burgdorferi
B) Francisella tularensis
C) Yersinia pestis
D) Clostridium perfringens
E) Toxoplasma gondii

C

16

A young man who works on a ranch and lives in the log bunkhouse experiences sudden fever with muscle aches. A few days later he begins to cough and have difficulty breathing, and goes to an urgent care clinic. A blood sample reveals a high leukocyte count and low platelets. A Gram-stain of sputum sample shows only a few small bacteria present. Which of the following is the most likely infecting agent?
A. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Bacillus anthracis
C. influenza
D. Mycoplasma pneumonia
E. Hantavirus

E

17

Some strains of the virus responsible for genital warts can cause the development of
A) cervical cancer
B) tertiary syphilis
C) trichomoniasis
D) chancroid
E) genital herpes

A

18

A baby arrives at an emergency room suffering from violent muscle spasms and difficulty breathing. The baby's body is so rigid a proper exam is difficult, but the staff note the baby is only a few weeks old and the umbilicus has not healed properly. the signs are consistent with which of the following diseases?
A) rabies
B) acute bacterial meningitis
C) listeriosis
D) tetanus
E) infant botulism

D

19

What member of the human intestinal microbiota occasionally causes life-threatening disease?
A) Lactobacilus
B) Escherichia coli O157:H7
C) Salmonella enterica
D) Giardia intestinalis
E) Clostridium difficile

E

20

A sample from an abscess is stained and examined under the microscope. A Gram stain appears uniformly pink, but a GMS (Gomori methenamine sliver) stain reveals brownish filaments in the sample. These findings suggest
A) sporotrichosis
B) necrotizing fasciitis
C) dermatophytosis
D) leishmaniasis
E) phaeohyphomycosis

E

21

Ultraviolet illumination is the quickest way to diagnose infections of which of the following?
A) Piedraia hortae
B) Pseudallescheria
C) Malassezia furfur
D) Leishmania sp.
E) Sarcoptes scabiei

C

22

A nursing student develops a positive reaction to the tuberculin skin test. A history reveals possible exposure to patients with tuberculosis. A sputum sample is acid-fast negative. When asked for vaccination records, the student reports that childhood vaccination records were lost when the family emigrated from a southeast Asian country. What is the best explanation for the test results?
A) The student has been exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis or was vaccinated with BCG vaccine
B) The student is not infected
C) The student has been infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D) No conclusion is possible with the information provided
E) The student has been exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

23

Which of the following is/are antiphagocytic?
A) M protein
B) leukocidin
C) protein A
D) both protein A and M protein
E) protein A, M protein, and leukocidin

E

24

Accessory organ infections are caused by
A) norovirus
B) mumps virus
C) human herpesvirus 1
D) rotavirus
E) enterovirus

B

25

A young woman being treated for serious burns develops severe diarrhea accompanied by intense abdominal pain. She passes several watery, foul-smelling, bloody stools a day. A colonoscopy reveals patches of yellowish lesions in the large intestine. The probably causative agent is
A) Giardia intestinalis
B) Vibrio cgikerae
C) Clostridium difficile
D) Campylobacter
E) Salmonella enterica serotype Typhi

C

26

Which of the following sets of characteristics describes the highest level of threat potential from biological weapons?
A) a microbe that can be introduced into food during packaging and withstands refrigerator temperatures but not typical cooking temperatures
B) a pathogen of wheat that could be delivered using crop dusters

C ) a pathogen of livestock transmitted by contact with infected animals but not infected people
D) a waterborne toxin that is easily introduced into public water supplies and does not replicate in humans
E) a human pathogen easily produced as an aerosol and transmissible by respiratory aerosols

E

27

The major sign of Haemophilus ducryi infection is similar to the major sign of infection by
A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B) Treponema pallidum
C) Candida albicans
D) Chlamydia trachomatis
E) Staphylococcus aureus

B

28

Which of the following statement is TRUE regarding the common cold?
A. Cold viruses are frequently spread by contaminated fomites
B. Only coronaviruses cause the common cold
C. Cold viruses reproduce most effectively at 37 degrees celsius
D. The viruses can infect both upper and lower respiratory tracts
E. The immune system cannot develop an effective response to cold viruses

A

29

Limiting exposure to rodents and their waste materials is an important means of controlling
A) histoplasmosis
B) inhalational anthrax
C) bronchiolitis
D) coccidioidomycosis
E) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome

E

30

24.3 page 763, Chapter 24

The presence of the specimen shown in the figure in a vaginal discharge is evidence of infection with
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Trichomonas vaginalis
C. Treponema palladium
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E. Candida albicans

E

31

A rash characterized by macules which swell, fill with fluid and then pus, then rupture and become crusty lesions, is characteristic of
A) human herpes virus 2 primary infection.
B) poxvirus infection.
C) chickenpox virus reactivation.
D) influenza.
E) papillomavirus infection.

B

32

The intracellular parasite usually acquired in contaminated drinking water which causes a persistent watery diarrhea is
A) Vibrio cholerae
B) Entamoeba histolytica
C) Cryptosporidium parvum
D) hepatitis A virus
E) norovirus

C

33

Even though mycoplasmas pass through filters that normally trap bacteria, they are known to be bacteria, not viruses, because they
A) divide by binary fission
B) synthesize peptidoglycan
C) contain both DNA and RNA
D) contain both DNA and RNA and divide by binary fission
E) synthesize peptidoglycan and divide by snapping division

D

34

Which of the following may result from eating shellfish?
A) salmonellosis
B) polio
C) paralysis
D) botulism
E) norovirus infection

C

35

The rash described as "teardrops on rose petals" is characterized as
A) smallpox
B) anthrax
C) warts
D) chickenpox
E) herpes

D

36

Infection of the lymphatic vessels is known as

A) petechiae.
B) bacteremia
C) lymphangitis
D) disseminated intravascular coagulation
E) recurrent fever

C

37

Botulism toxin disrupts motor control by
A) killing motor neurons
B) blocking inhibitory signals to motor neurons
C) blocking the release of acetylcholine by motor neurons
D) blocking acetylcholine receptors on muscle cells
E) causing demyelination of motor neurons

C

38

The typical signs and symptoms of flu are a result of
A. the death of cells outside the lungs
B. the release of viral toxins
C. secondary bacterial infections
D. syncytium formation
E. cytokines released as part of the immune response

E

39

Schizogony is an important aspect of which of the following pathogens?
A. Yersinia pestis
B. Toxoplasma gondii
C. Plasmodium species
D. Trypanosoma cruzi
E. Schistosoma mansoni

C

40

Which of the following contributes to the invasiveness of Treponema pallidum?
A) IgA protease
B) fimbriae
C) TSST
D) lipooligosaccharide in the cell wall
E) hyaluronidase

E

41

Which of the following is a common cause of otitis media?
A. Pneumocystis jiroveci
B. Blastomyces dermatitidis
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Chlamydophila pneumoniae
E. Streptococcus pneumoniae

E

42

During the spring calving season a ranch hand begins to run a fever and feel nauseous and achy. After he develops a headache and vomiting, he goes to a clinic. A microscopic exam of a urine sample reveals long thin microbes which move very rapidly in a corkscrewing pattern. The man may have contracted
A) staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome
B) glomerulonephritis
C) thrichomoniasis
D) leptospirosis
E) chancroid

D

43

Variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease can be prevented by avoiding
A) consumption of contaminated meat
B) contact with bird droppings
C) contaminated waterways
D) contact with mosquitoes
E) consumption of undercooked meat

A

44

Blood is found in ______ of the heart just before it is pumped into the lungs?
A. the superior vena cava
B. the right atrium
C. the right ventricle
D. the left atrium
E. the left ventricle

C

45

A person is brought to the emergency room with constant high fever, extensive edema, low blood pressure, and petechiae. Which of the following may the person be suffering from?
A) septicemia
B) infectious mononucleosis
C) plague
D) brucellosis
E) Lyme disease

A

46

The disease known as cryptococcal meningitis
A) results from exposure to bird droppings
B) is caused by a Gram-negative coccus
C) begins as a lung infection
D) is transmitted in respiratory aerosols
E) results from exposure to bird droppings and begins as a lung infection

E

47

Which of the following structures allows the exchange of nutrients and wastes between the fetal blood and the mother's blood?
A. the cervix
B. the placenta
C. the uterus
D. the clitoris
E. the uterine tubes

B

48

Care in the handling and disposal of diapers in day care centers may prevent the spread of which of the following?
A. Cryptosporidium parvum
B. Giardia intestinalis
C. hepatitis A virus
D, Salmonella enterica
E. norovirus

B

49

What is the primary determinant of virulence in Streptococcus pneumoniae?
A) the presence of a particular Lancefield antigen
B) the presence of a polysaccharide capsule
C) strain-specific teichoic acids in its cell wall
D) the production of pneumolysin
E) the ability to lyse red blood cells

B

50

Which of the following infectious diseases is currently of greatest concern as a biological weapon?
A. the plague
B. smallpox
C. anthrax
D. botulism
E. cholera

B

51

Diagnosis of syphilis is usually made by
A) a Pap smear
B) culturing specimens on laboratory media
C) DNA probes
D) the MHA-TP test
E) microscopic evaluation of stained specimens

D

52

Which of the following is true of foodborne botulism?
A) Normal food preparation methods can prevent it
B) an effective vaccine is available
C) large amounts of bacteria must be consumed to produce disease
D) it is an intoxication disorder
E) it is not a life-threatening infection even when left untreated

D

53

Tapeworms are usually transmitted to humans through ingestion of
A) tapeworm eggs
B) cysticerci
C) gravid proglottids
D) mature tapeworms
E) tapeworm larvae

B

54

A pneumonia caused by Gram-positive diplococci is known as
A) pleurisy
B) pneumocystic pneumonia
C) primary atypical pneumonia
D) pneumococcal pneumonia
E) pneumonic plague

D

55

Which of the following can mimic gonorrhea infections?
A. chlamydia
B. syphilis
C. chancriod
D. trichomoniasis
E. candidiasis

A

56

Which of the following statements concerning rabies is FALSE?
A. All mammals can serve as a resevoir for the disease.
B. Treatment includes vaccination.
C. Bats are the source of most cases of rabies in humans
D. It is caused by an ssRNA virus
E. Transmission is usually via a bite from a rabid animal.

A

57

A man is suffering severe foot pain in the area of what looks like a large wart. He reports he has had the wart for some time, and the pain and swelling have developed slowly. A sample from the lesion shows that the pus contains large cells that stain a golden brown color. The man is likely suffering from
A) sporotrichosis
B) phaeohyphomycosis
C) mycetoma
D) chromblasomyosis
E) necrotizing fasciitis

D

58

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding tuberculosis?
A. Only virulent strains of Mycobacterium tuberculosis produce mycolic acid?
B. It remains viable in dried aerosol droplets for up to eight months
C. The immune system is not affected by the infection
D. It occurs only in the lungs
E. Several hundred cells are required for infection

B

59

Which of the following conditions usually results in severe acute liver damage?
A) co-infection with hepatitis B and hepatitis C viruses
B) co-infection with hepatitis B and hepatitis delta viruses
C) superinfection with hepatitis A and hepatitis E viruses
D) superinfection with hepatitis B and hepatitis delta viruses
E) co-infection with hepatitis A and hepatitis B viruses

B

60

Syphilis can be transmitted
A) by fomites
B) from mother to fetus
C) by sexual contact
D) both by sexual contact and from mother to fetus
E) by sexual contact, by fomites, and from mother to fetus

D

61

Smallpox was the first human disease to be
A) analyzed and studied on the genetic level
B) identified as a viral disease
C) treated with antiviral drugs
D) globally eradicated
E) re-created in an experimental animal

D

62

How does tetanospasmin affect motor control?
A) it induces nervous system proteins to fold into abnormal shapes
B) it blocks the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters in the CNS
C) it triggers the endocytosis of skeletal muscle cells
D) it blocks the secretion of acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft
E) it is a pyrogenic toxin

B

63

A young woman develops a fever after a recent trip to a caribbean island. She also experiences severe headache and pain "in the bones." After a few days, she also develops a rash. Which of the following did she most likely contract?
A) malaria
B) Chagas' disease
C) dengue virus
D) Toxoplasma
E) yellow fever virus

C

64

The type of bacterial meningitis that becomes epidemic among adults is caused by
A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Streptococcus agalactiae
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
D) Neisseria meningitidis
E) Listeria monocytogenes

D

65

The disorder ________ is a complication of systemic infections with Streptococcus in which antigen-antibody complexes form in the blood and get trapped in the kidneys.

A. glomerulonephritis
B. leptospirosis
C. cystitis
D. urethritis
E. pyelonephritis

A

66

Figure 21.7 Chapter 21 pg. 648 Picture of a Bulls-eye rash

The appearance of this rash is characteristic of infections with which of the following?
A. Yersinia pestis
B. Epstein-Barr virus

C. dengue virus
D. Francisella tularensis
E. Borrelia burgdorferi

E

67

Inhalation anthrax is frequently fatal even with antibiotic therapy because
A. the anthrax toxin triggers severe edema of the lungs
B. the bacteria are enclosed within a biofilm that antibiotics cannot penetrate
C. Bacillus anthracis is resistant to a wide range of antibiotics
D. it is transmitted by endospores
E. the dying cells release lipid A triggering a severe inflammatory response

A

68

Which of the following vessels carries blood from the heart to the rest of the body?
A. capillaries
B. the pulmonary arteries
C. the superior vena cava
D. the inferior vena cava
E. the aorta

E

69

An indication of infection with Human herpesvirus 4 is
A) high fever and sore throat
B) a bubo
C) "swimmer's itch"
D) an ulcerating sore
E) "bulls eye" rash

A

70

The primary treatment for viral gastroenteritis is
A) antitoxins.
B) antiviral medications.
C) antidiarrheal medication
D) rehydration therapy
E) fever reducers

D

71

Of the following, who is most likely to develop a chronic infection with hepatitis B virus?
A) newborns
B) young adults
C) children between the ages of 2 and 12
D) the elderly
E) females at puberty

A

72

Neisseria gonorrhoeae of the reprodcutive tract in women
A) results in the formation of curd-like discharge.
B) produces painful ulcerations.
C) results in the production of yellow-greenish frothy discharge
D) produces severe inflammation of the vagina and cervix
E) is usually initially symptomatic

E

73

The eukaryote ____ is a common food contaminant that can lead to foodborne illness.

A) Campylobacter jejuni

B) Vibrio vulnificus

C) Yersinia enterocolitica

D) Toxoplasma gondii

E) Listeria monocytogenes

D

74

The condition known as "pinkeye" may be the result of infection with
A) Chlamydia trachomatis
B) Clostridium botulinum
C) Haemophilus influenzae
D) Acanthamoeba
E) Trypanosoma brucei

C

75

Nasal or ocular contact with water containing _____ may result in primary amebic meningoencephalitis.

A) Naegleria

B) Acanthamoeba

C) Trypanosoma brucei

D) both Acanthamoeba and Naegleria

E) Acanthamoeba, Naegleria, and Trypanosoma brucei

A

76

Soy sauce is made using

A) Saccharomyces

B) Aspergillus oryzae and Lactobacillus

C) Lactoccocus cremoris

D) Acetobacter

E) Aspergillus oryzae and Saccharomyces

B

77

Bordetella pertussis causes whooping cough by
A) irritating the diaphragm, which leads to severe coughing attacks
B) forming a pseudomembrane that obstructs the respiratory passages
C) interfering with the activity of ciliated epithelial cells in the trachea
D) suppressing mucus production
E) the development of pneumonia

C

78

A pigment produced by an opportunistic pathogen that contributes to tissue damage is
A. pyocyanin
B. streptokinase
C. hyaluronidase
D. lipase
E. M protein

A

79

Some microbes gain access to the normally axenic central nervous system by

A) damaging the blood-brain barrier.

B) infecting microphages which subsequently enter the CNS

C) axonal transport from infected peripheral neurons.

D) infecting lymph nodes in the cranium.

E) either damaging the blood-brain barrier or by axonal transport from infected peripheral neurons.

E

80

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding genital herpes?
A) It can only be transmitted when lesions are evident.
B) Re-appearance of lesions is the result of new infections.
C) Herpes can be prevented using vaginal spermicidal creams.
D) Acyclovir is effective in reducing the occurrence of lesions, but is not a cure.
E) There is an effective vaccine to prevent infection

D

81

A young man is an avid outdoorsman goes to see his doctor complaining of fever with chills, headache, nausea, and diarrhea. Blood test show that he has low levels of leukocytes and platelets. He may have contracted
A. brucellosis
B. ehrlichiosis
C. Chagas disease
D. tularemia
E. Lyme disease

B

82

Croup is often a result of infection with which of the following?
A. Bordetella pertussis
B. hantavirus
C. respiratory syncytial virus
D. influenzavirus
E. Mycoplasma pneumonia

C

83

Which of the following diseases is currently vaccine-preventable in humans?
A) yellow fever
B) plague
C) schistosomiasis
D) Lyme disease
E) malaria

A

84

Which of the following causes of meningitis can be spread by the fecal-oral route?

A) coxsackie A virus

B) West Nile virus

C) Streptococcus agalactine

D) Streptococcus pneumoniae

E) Haemophilus influenzae

A

85

The presence of Gram-negative diplococci in pus from an inflamed penis is diagnostic for infection by
A. Mycoplasma hominis
B. Treponema pallidum
C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D. human herpesvirus 2
E. Chlamydia trachomatis

C

86

Which of the following statements concerning the biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) is correct?

A) It is used as a bioreceptor index

B) It is a measure of the amount of oxygen in water.

C) It is proportional to how potable water is

D) It is a filter system to purify drinking water.

E) It is a measurement of the amount of oxygen that aerobic bacteria require to fully metabolize organic wastes in water.

E

87

One summer, bird watchers and zookeepers in a major city notice that more birds than usual are dying. At the same time reports of human encephalitis cases increase sharply. The cerebrospinal fluid of human patients is clear. Similar enveloped RNA virus particles are detected in samples from both birds and humans. Which of the following might be responsible for this outbreak?
A. rabies virus

B. an arbovirus
C. Cryptococcus neoformans
D. Neisseria meningitidis
E. coxsackie A virus

B

88

Which of the following is becoming rarer as a result of childhood vaccinations?
A. warts
B. roseola
C. impetigo
D. neonatal herpes
E. subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

E

89

Slow deterioration of muscle function occurring over many years occurs in
A. leprosy
B. minor polio
C. West Nile encephalitis
D. postpolio syndrome
E. African sleeping sickness

D

90

Which of the following is a notable symptom of giardiasis?
A) "rice-water" stools
B) irritability and sleep disturbance
C) cold sores
D) foul-smelling "rotten egg" stools
E) jaundice

D

91

A person reports to a clinic complaining of fever and abdominal pain. The abdomen is swollen, and blood tests indicate kidney damage. A stool sample is examined under a microscope and found to contain eggs with a spine projecting from its surface. The indications are consistent with infection with
A) Plasmodium falciparum
B) Anaplasma phagocytophilium
C) Toxoplasma gondii
D) Trypanosoma cruzi
E) Schistosoma mansoni

E

92

A young adult shows up at a free clinic complaining of painful swellings in the groin. The young woman has a history of occasional casual sex, but denies noticing any genital sores or experiencing painful urination. The young woman is most likely infected with
A) Haemophilus ducreyi
B) Chlamydia trachomatis
C) Trichomonas vaginalis
D) Treponema pallidum
E) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

B

93

Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning diphtheria?
A. The pseudomembrane is easily removed by surgery
B. No effective vaccine is available to prevent infection
C. diffuse rash is the major sign of diphtheria
D. The signs and symptoms of the disease are directly caused by bacterial toxin
E. A microscopic exam of bacterial samples is sufficient for conclusive diagnosis

D

94

Why are nearly all AIDS patients at risk of developing Pneumocystis pneumonia?

A) Pneumocystis jiroveci is becoming a wide-spread contaminant in health care environments.

B) Pneumocystis jiroveci is commonly found in a wide variety of soils.

C) Pneumocystis jiroveci is zoonotic in a wide range of vertebrates and exposure is unavoidable.

D) The pathogen is easily transmitted from infected persons to others.

E) Pneumocystis jiroveci is a common member of the respiratory microbiota in humans and opportunistic pathogen.

E

95

Some strains of Papillomavirus are oncogenic due to their ability to

A. produce deoxyribonucleases

B. integrate into the host cell DNA
C. escape the phagosome before lysosome fusion
D. lie dormant in cells for years
E. cause extensive damage to blood vessels

B

96

Infections with some Salmonella enterica serotypes can progress to typhoid fever when the bacteria
A) attach to cells of the small intestine.
B) induce endocytosis by intestinal cells.
C) reproduce within cells of the small intestine.
D) produce type III secretion system proteins.
E) enter the blood and are engulfed by phagocytes.

E

97

Condylomata acuminata are associated with infections of which of the following?
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B. human herpesvirus 2
C. Trichomonal vaginalis
D. human herpesvirus 1
E. papilomaviruses

E

98

What was the first substance produced by microorganisms to be used pharmaceutically?

A) human insulin

B) streptokinase

C) interferons

D) penicillin

E) taxol

D

99

Chlorinated water contains

A) no endospores

B) no viruses

C) a decreased microbial load

D) no bacteria at all

E) no cysts

C

100

Which of the following microorganisms is the most commonly used indicator organism for water quality testing?

A) Streptococcus thermophilus

B) Salmonella spp.

C) Hepatitis A virus

D) Shigella spp.

E) Escherichia coli

E

101

Anthrax derives its name from which of the following aspects of the disease?
A. the appearance of eschars on the skin
B. the necessity of burning animals killed by the disease
C. the shape of B. anthracis colonies on agar
D. the microscopic appearance of its cells
E. the shape of its endospores

A

102

A diagnosis of genital herpes is confirmed by the
A) appearance of stained tissue specimens
B) location of herpetic lesions
C) detection of herpesvirus DNA by PCR
D) binding of fluorescent antibodies
E) appearance and size of herpetic lesions

C

103

Viral meningitis is also called "aseptic meningitis"
A. to distinguish it from encephalitis
B. since it is treatable with antiviral medications
C. because it is vaccine-preventable
D. to indicate no bacteria are involved
E. because it is frequently a nosocomial infection

D

104

Which of the following forms of leishmaniasis is typically fatal?
A. mucocutaneous
B. cutaneous
C. visceral
D. both cutaneous and mucocutaneous are frequently fatal

E. visceral, mucocutaneous, and cutaneous are all potentially fatal

C

105

Plasmodium falciparum produces proteins that cause ___ in addition to the anemia due to erythrocyte destruction.

A) capillary damage

B) toxemia

C) DIC

D) black vomit

E) damage to the heart muscle

A

106

Staphylococcal food poisoning is called an intoxication disorder because

A) the bacteria produce type III secretion system toxins.

B) affected people appear drunk.

C) the bacteria release toxins when they are digested.

D) toxic bacteria are ingested in the food.

E) toxins produced by the bacteria growing in the food are ingested along with the food.

E

107

Peritonitis may develop in severe cases of
A) peptic ulcer disease
B) typhoid
C) pinworm infestation
D) giardiasis
E) hepatitis

B

108

Lyme disease becomes chronic because

A) Borrelia is an intracellular parasite of erythrocytes.

B) Borrelia can lie dormant in liver cells

C) the bacterium resists phagocytosis.

D) Borrelia changes its surface antigens frequently.

E) the bacterium resists phagocytosis and "hides" erythrocytes.

D

109

Which of the following is known to be teratogenic?
A. Borrelia
B. cytomegalovirus
C. Plasmodium
D. Epstein-Barr virus
E. dengue virus

B

110

The noninfective, obligately intracellular forms of chlamydia are called
A) pseudohyphae
B) initial bodies
C) elementary bodies
D) trachomas
E) phagosomes

B

111

During treatment of water to make it potable, about 90% of the microbes are removed

A) in the filtration step.

B) in the sedimentation step.

C) by treatment with chlorine or ozone

D) by treatment with biosensors

E) by preliminary fermentation

A

112

A herpetic lesion on the finger or hand is known as a

A) whitlow

B) furuncle

C) macule

D) fever blister

E) pox

A

113

The Gram-positive diplococcus ___ is commonly found in the pharynx but may invade the central nervous system inside cells where it survives after endocytosis.

A) Listeria monocytogenes

B) Haemophilus influenzae

C) Neisseria meningitidis

D) Streptococcus agalactiae

E) Streptococcus pneumoniae

E

114

Pathogenic streptococci of the upper respiratory tract (such as Streptococcus pyogenes) are distinguished from non-pathogenic streptococci by
A) the absece of a capsule
B) beta hemolytic activity
C) the presence of a lysogenic phage
D) no hemolytic activity
E) alpha hemolytic activity

B

115

Shingles, or herpes zoster, is a reactivation of the virus that causes

A) measles

B) chickenpox

C) German measles

D) whitlows

E) smallpox

B

116

The pleomorphic bacterium ___ is an obligate parasite due to its requirement for NAD+ and heme.

A) Haemophilus influenzae

B) Listeria monocytogenes

C) Neisseria meningitidis

D) Streptococcus pneumoniae

E) Streptococcus agalactiae

A

117

Infection known as ___ frequently begins as an injury that rapidly becomes red, swollen, hot to the touch, and intensely painful.

A) Rocky Mountain spotted fever

B) anthrax

C) staphylococcal scaled skin syndrom

D) necrotizing fascitis

E) gas gangrene

D

118

The virulence factor of Vibrio cholera, which is primarily responsible for the signs and symptoms of cholera, is
A. its activation of certain genes within the human body
B. its ability to produce a potent exotoxin
C. its ability to survive in freshwater
D. the presence of polar flagella
E. its ability to form biofilms in saltwater

B

119

A woman goes to her gynecologist and reports that she is experiencing pain during intercourse and frequently has an unusual vaginal discharge that is increased in quantity and sort of foamy. A vaginal smear shows normal appearing epithelial cells along with small leaf-shaped cells with prominent oval nuclei. What disease is the woman experiencing?
A) chancroid
B) syphilis
C) cervical cancer
D) trichomoniasis
E) herpes

D

120

Common skin warts are the result of infection with

A. herpesviruses
B. moriliviruses
C. coxsackieviruses
D. poxviruses
E. papillomaviruses

E

121

The resistance of Pseudomonas to a wide variety of antimicrobial drugs is due, in part, to its
A. production of exoenzyme S.
B. production of pyocyanin
C. ability to utilize a wide range of carbon and nitrogen sources
D. ability to pump drugs out of the cell
E. ability to grow in almost any moist environment

D

122

Where in a tapeworm would you expect to find fertilized eggs?
A) at the end of the strobila
B) the neck region of the strobila
C) in all proglottids
D) inside the scolex
E) outside the cuticle

A

123

Why does taking antibacterial medications put women at risk for candidiasis?

A) Bacteria killed by antibacterials provide nutrients for Candida albicans.

B) Antibacterials deplete the normal bacterial microbiota, resulting in a change of pH.

C) Depletion of the bacterial microbiota results in higher carbon dioxide levels, (which favor the growth of Candida albicans).

D) Antibacterials serve as growth stimulants for Candida albicans.

E) Antibacterials can alter metabolism, creating conditions that favor the growth of Candida albicans.

B

124

How does Borrelia burgdorferi evades the body's defenses?
A) It has a polysaccharide capsule
B) It is capable of antigenic variation
C) It is capable of antigenic variation and has manganese-containing enzymes
D) It has a polysaccharide capsule and is antiphagocytic proteinsE) It has manganese-containing enzymes

C

125

"Swimmer's itch" is an initial syptom of which of the following?
A) tularemia
B) malaria
C) schistosomiasis
D) Lyme disease
E) Chaga's disease

C

126

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding infection with Mycoplasma pneumoniae?
A. the causative agent is a fast-growing GRAM positive bacillus
B. It is extremely difficult to treat
C. The causative agent attaches to ciliated cells in the respiratory tract
D. It causes disease which is usually severe enough to require hospitalization
E. It is diagnosed by the appearance of typical "fried egg" colonies on agar

C

127

A woman who breeds parrots develops a fever and cough, and begins to have difficulty breathing. Small Gram-negative bacteria are detected inside cells of a sputum sample. Which of the following diseases is she likely to have contracted?
A) histoplasmosis
B) ornithosis
C) primary atypical pneumonia
D) influenza
E) inhalation anthrax

B

128

A researcher studying the impact of agricultural pesticides on native plants discovers a bacterium capable of degrading small amounts of a specific pesticide. The researcher then modifies the bacterial species in the lab to increase the rate of pesticide degradation. This research represents Another name for brucellosis is
A) applied microbiology
B) environmental microbiology
C) food microbiology
D) both food microbiology and environmental microbiology

E) both applied microbiology and environmental microbiology

E

129

Another name for brucellosis is ___ fever.

A) rabbit

B) yellow

C) undulant

D) snail

E) blackwater

C

130

The typical sign of primary syphilis is
A) a widespread rash
B) paralysis
C) lymphadenopathy
D) a chancre at the site of infection
E) gummas in various organs

D

131

Which of the following is an opportunistic infection?
A. whooping cough
B. disseminated tuberculosis
C. inflation anthrax
D. SARS
E. legionellosis

E

132

Diptheria toxin kills cells by interfering with which of the following processes?
A) nucleic acid synthesis
B) adenylate cyclase activity
C) protein synthesis
D) complement fixation
E) cytoplasmic membrane function

C

133

Most peptic ulcers are the result of colonization of the stomach by
A) Vibrio cholerae.
B) Escherichia coli O157:H7.
C) Shigella dysenteriae.
D) Salmonella enterica.
E) Helicobacter pylori.

E

134

Bacterial agents of meningitis which can survive phagocytosis include

A) Mycobacterium leprae

B) Neisseria meningitidis

C) Streptococcus pneumoniae

D) both Neisseria meningitidis and Streptococcus pneumoniae

E) Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae and Mycobacterium leprae

D

135

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding gonorrhea?
A. The causative agent can grow on most mucous membranes of the body
B. Gonorrhea produces good long-term consequences
C. Asymptomatic infections have no long-term consequences
D. Women usually experience severe symptoms early in infection
E. It is easily confused with chancriod

A

136

The skin is an effective barrier against invading microbes because
A. the outer layers are dead and covered in salt.
B. no microbes are able to survive on the surface.
C. it is well supplied with blood vessels to flush microbes from the surface.
D. the surface is covered in salt.
E. the outer layers of cells are dead

A

137

Which of the following statements is TRUE with regard to oral herpes?
A) Primary infections are usually characterized by severe lesions.
B) Lesions become more severe with each recurrence.
C) Lesions can be triggered by emotional stress or physiologic changes.
D) Ninety percent of all cases are caused by human herpesvirus 2 (HHV-2)
E) There is an effective cure for oral herpes

C

138

A distinctive feature of secondary syphilis is
A) a widespread rash that can include the palms and soles
B) blister-like lesions which ulcerate
C) soft, painful ulcers
D) rubbery, painful lesions
E) hard, red, painless bumps

A

139

Listeria monocytogenes pathogenesis is directly related to its ability to
A. resist most antimicrobial agents
B. form endospores
C. produce a powerful toxin
D. live and reproduce inside its host's cells
E. produce a polysaccharide capsule

D

140

A man reports to his doctor that he is tired all the time and his urine has become darker in color. He has not experienced fever or vomiting recently. The physician notes that his eyes are yellowish and his abdomen is swollen. The man has a history of kidney transplant and recently returned from an over seas trip. The man may be infected with.
A. Shigella
B. norovirus
C. hepatitis C virus
D. hepatitis E virus
E. Entamoeba histolytica

C

141

Which of the following statements concerning Toxoplasma infection is correct?
A) It is a rare infection
B) In most individuals, the infection results in lasting damage to the heart
C) It is transmitted by biting insects
D) It is typically contracted by eating undercooked meat
E) Freshwater snails are intermediate hosts

D

142

The major symptoms of cholera are attributable to which of the following?

A) death of cells lining the intestinal tract

B) cessation of protein synthesis in host cells

C) activation of adenylate cyclase

D) activity of a type III secretion system

C

143

Ornithosis, a disease of birds that can be transmitted to humans, is caused by

A) Chlamydophila pneumoniae

B) Klebsiella pneumoniae

C) Mycoplasma pneumoniae

D) Yersinia pestis

E) Chlamydophila psittaci

E

144

Chronic infection with ___ may progress to hepatic cancer.

A) HCV

B) HAV

C) HBV

D) HEV

E) both HBV and HCV

E

145

Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding the incidence of STDs?

A) viruses transmitted by sexual contact are not widespread.

B) Bacterial STDs are declining worldwide as a result of the availability of antibiotics.

C) The incidence of STDs is known with a high degree of accuracy.

D) Viral STDs in the U.S. are considered epidemic.

E) The incidence of most STDs could be reduced by vaccination.

D

146

The majority of cases of pneumonia are caused by

A) Mycoplasma pneumoniae

B) Chlamydophila pneumoniae

C) Streptococcus pneumoniae

D) Klebsiella pneumoniae

E) Haemophilus influenzae

C

147

Rickettsias are obligate intracellular parasites because they

A) cannot synthesize amino acids

B) lack ribosomes

C) cannot metabolize lipids

D) lack of glycolytic pathway

E) lack a cell wall

D

148

Potable water is water that

A) contains low amounts of microorganisms and is considered safe to drink

B) contains a dangerous number of microorganisms

C) contains biosensors

D) is considered safe to drink because it is completely sterile

E) is transferred from one place to another

A

149

Which of the following factors is primarily responsible for the ability of Mycobacterium tuberculosis to survive loCng periods of time in dried droplets of respiratory aerosols?

A) production of cord factor

B) pyrogenic toxin

C) the presence of mycolic acid in the cell wall

D) the presence of LPS in the outer membrane

E) formation of tubercles

C

150

Disseminated intravascular coagulation is a complication resulting from the

A) release of lipid A from dying Gram-negative bacteria

B) attachment of bacterial cells to the endocardium

C) release of heme from damaged RBC's

D) triggering of the complement system

E) release of cytotoxins

A

151

The illustration is of Gram- negative bacterium frequently responsible for meningitis. What virulence factor(s) of the bacterium is/are illustrated?

A) fimbriae

B) a membrane containing LOS

C) a capsule

D) a capsule and fimbriae

E) a capsule, frimbriae, and a membrane containing LOS

E

152

Exposure to large accumulations of bird dropping may result in which of the following mycoses?

A) blastomycosis

B) coccidioidomycosis

C) histoplasmosis

D) Pneumocystis pneumonia

E) valley fever

C

153

Eating sashimi (uncooked fish) is a risk factor for infection with

A) Giardia intestinalis

B) Entamoeba histolytica

C) Anisakis simplex

D) Enterobius vermicularis

E) Taenia saginata

C

154

Rodents are the natural hosts fro the virus that causes

A) West Nile encephalitis

B) Western equine encephalitis

C) Venezuelan equine encephalitis

D) Eastern equine encephalitis

E) St. Louis encephalitis

C

155

Which of the following is an application of proteases?

A) meat tenderizer

B) cheese

C) indigo

D) wine

E) vodka

A

156

Fever, difficulty breathing, extreme fatigue, and elevated heart rate are characteristic of

A) endocarditis

B) infectious mononucleosis

C) plague

D) Bang's disease

E) ehrlichiosis

A

157

A recently retired man appears at his doctor's office complaining of difficulty breathing, body aches and fatigue. He is also running high fever and has a dry cough. He reports having just returned from a trip to the Middle East where he visited several historical sites. Tests results are negative for a rapid test for influenza A. No bacteria are visible in a microscopic exam of his sputum. Which of the following is a likely explanation?

A) pertussis

B) coronavirus respiratory syndrome

C) primary atypical pneumonia

D) inhalation anthrax

E) valley fever

B

158

Observation of the specimen in the figure is diagnostic for

A) Cryptosporidium parvum

B) Taenia solium

C) Enterobius vermicularis

D) Anisakis simplex

E) Giardia intestinalis

C

159

Streptokinase is useful for which of the following?

A) cheese production

B) insecticide

C) producing antibiotics

D) dissolving blood clots

E) biosensors

D

160

Spreading black necrosis, swelling, pain and froth or bubbles are characteristic of

A) anthrax

B) gas gangrene

C) necrotizing fasciitis

D) Pseudomonas infection

E) chromoblastomycosis

B

161

Which of the following statements is CORRECT concerning tularemia?

A) The disease is easily treated

B) infection occurs by inhalation only

C) The signs include a distinctive pattern of mild but recurring fever

D) The disease is transmitted from person to person

E) The causative agent is an intracellular bacterial parasite

E

162

Which of the following is a characteristic of bacterial vaginosis frequently used to confirm diagnosis?

A) an abnormal vaginal discharge

B) fever and rash

C) the presence of bubbles

D) an acidic vaginal pH

E) the presence of clue cells

E

163

Dengue hemorrhagic fever is the result of

A) an antibody- antigen complex reaction

B) a hyperimmune response to reinfection with dengue virus

C) an immediate immune reaction to the initial infection with dengue virus

D) an autoimmune disease

E) the chronic carrier state associated with dengue virus infection

B

164

A large number of people experience a high fever with a rash during the summer months in a small country. Epidemiologists suspect an emerging disease. Both Aedes and Anopheles mosquitos are endemic to the country. Researchers are able to detect +ssRNA in the blood of fever victims and in some mosquitos. What type of pathogen might be responsible for the epidemic?

A) a filovirus

B) Plasmodium

C) a herpesvirus

D) plague bacteria

E) a flavivirus

E

165

African sleeping sickness is fatal if not treated because the parasite

A) evades destruction by the immune system by changing surface antigens

B) reproduces so fast there is no time for an immune response to develop

C) produces a non-immunogenic toxin the immune system cannot neutralize

D) is an intracellular parasite in RBC's, where they are not detected by the immune system

E) produces a toxin which binds irreversibly to neurons

A

166

Which of the following can cause birth defects?

A) rubella

B) chickenpox

C) smallpox

D) measles

E) roseola

A

167

A common source of antibiotics is

A) Acetobacter

B) Streptococcus thermophilus

C) Aspergillus oryzae and Lactobacillus

D) Streptomyces

E) Lactoccocus cremoris

D

168

Primary infection with Epstein-Barr virus is known as

A) oral hairy leukoplakia

B) chronic fatigue syndrome

C) Burkitt's lymphoma

D) infectious mononucleosis

E) Hodgkin's lymphoma

D

169

A specific example of bioremediation is

A) acid mine drainage

B) the treatment of wastewater

C) the degradation of crude oil spilled into the Gulf of Mexico

D) the treatment of sludge

E) the purification of water for drinking

C

170

Dust storms in arid regions of the Southwestern U.S. may lead to outbreaks of

A) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome

B) blastomycosis

C) Pneumocystis pneumonia

D) valley fever

E) histoplasmosis

D

171

Food contaminated with ___ may contain a potent neurotoxin.

A) Listeria monocytogenes

B) Escherichia coli

C) Clostridium botulinum

D) Salmonella spp.

E) Shigella spp.

A

172

Shigellosis can be differentiated from salmonellosis by the fact that Shigella

A) multiplies in the host cell's cytosol

B) multiplies in phagocytic vesicles

C) kills host cells

D) stimulates intestinal epithelial cells to phagocytize it

E) causes severe diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and fever

A

173

Which of the following causes of viral meningitis is transmitted by the fecal-oral route?

A) California encephalitis virus

B) West Nile virus

C) echovirus

D) rabies

E) equine encephalitis virus

C

174

A series of nodular lesions on an arm that fill with pus and ulcerate through the skin is characteristic of infection with the fungus

A) Epidermophyton

B) Microsporum

C) Micrococcus

D) Trichophyton

E) Sporothrix schenckii

E

175

A new vaccine for the upcoming flu season is developed from an influenza isolate designated A/Shanghai/2/2013(H7N9). This nomenclature means the isolate is

A) a type A with antigens HA 7 and NA 9 isolated in Shanghai in February 2013

B) a type A with 7 HA antigens and 9 NA antigens isolated in Shanghai in February 2013

C) a hybrid of 2 type As combining 7 HA and 9 NA antigens, created in February 2013

D) a type B strain with antigens HA 7 and NA 9, first isolated in February 2013

E) the second type A strain with HA 7 and NA 9 antigens isolated in Shanghai in 2013

A

176

Which of the following is a common childhood parasite in the United States?

A) Cryptosporidium parvum

B) Enterobius vermicularis

C) Taenia solium

D) Giardia intestinalis

E) Entamoeba histolytica

B

177

Epstein-Barr virus infections are typically asymptomatic in ___ because of incomplete development of adaptive immunity.

A) adolescents

B) adults

C) AIDS patients

D) young children

E) the elderly

D

178

A new industrial park in your community dumps its wastewater into a large aerated pond, to which nutrients are added. The water from this pond makes its way into a nearby marsh, which eventually drains into a slow-moving stream. This is an example of

A) natural bioremediation

B) bioreporter

C) artificial bioremediation

D) a method to make potable water

E) natural fermentation

A

179

A reddening of the skin of the face that intensifies when exposed to the sun is a characteristic of

A) herpes

B) chickenpox

C) rubeola

D) erythema infectiosum

E) rubella

D

180

Human infestation with Taenia saginata results from ingesting ___ in undercooked intermediate host.

A) cysticerci

B) proglottids

C) eggs

D) cysts

E) scolex

A

181

A child complains of intensely itchy "pimples" on the hands and wrists. The lesions are small inflamed streaks , but do not appear to contain pus. The child's condition may be the result of infection with

A) Sarcoptes scabiei

B) Clostridium perfringens

C) Sporothrix schenkii

D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

E) Staphylococcus epidermidis

A

182

The chambers and valves of the heart are lined by hte

A) pericardium

B) erythrocytes

C) endocardium

D) vena cava

E) myocardium

C

183

Newborns exposed to the Gram-positive bacterium ___ during vaginal birth are at risk of developing neonatal meningitis.

A) Streptococcus agalactiae

B) Listeria monocytogenes

C) Haemophilus influenzae

D) Neisseria meningitidis

E) Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

184
card image

Observation of microbes shown in the figure from vaginal discharge specimen is diagnostic for

A) gonorrhea

B) syphilis

C) trachoma

D) trichomoniasis

E) Chlamydia infection

D

185

The most common cause of traveler's diarrhea is

A) Escherichia coli

B) Salmonella enterica

C) Giardia intestinalis

D) Shigella flexneri

E) Cryptosporidium parvum

A

186

Which of the following is classified as a spongiform encephalopathy?

A) African sleeping sickness

B) botulism

C) Hansen's disease

D) arboviral encephalitis

E) variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

E

187

An intracellular parasite primarily transmitted as an STD is the agent of ___, which may cause enough damage to result in blindness.

A) primary amebic menigoencephalopathy

B) tetanus

C) trachoma

D) rabies

E) cryptococcal meningitis

C

188

Blastomycosis results from

A) inhalation of fungal spores

B) inhalation of spherules

C) contact with infected sputum

D) contact with formites

E) inhalation of respiratory droplets

A

189

The ___ is a layer of tough fibers and fat cells that anchors the skin to the deeper tissues.

A) follicles

B) hypodermis

C) fascia

D) dermis

E) epidermis

B

190

Which of the following bacteria is a common soil bacterium that may cause disease in humans?

A) Bacillus anthracis

B) Streptomyces scabies

C) Lactoccocus cremoris

D) Cyanobacteria

E) Aspergillus oryzae

A

191

A young man is experiencing fever and severe headaches, and is having difficulty staying awake . He reports having spent time in Africa on a missionary trip several months ago. Recently he spent time in a park where he went swimming in the lake and was bitten by a bat he attempted to catch. His cerebrospinal fluid is nearly clear, and containing long, slender, mobile cells. The description indicates infection with

A. rabies virus

B. Neisseria meningitidis

C. Trypanosoma brucei

D. Acanthamoeba

E. an enterovirus

C

192

Under some circumstances ____ is beneficial, but under other conditions the bacteria become overabundant leading to inflammation of hair follicles.

A. Streptococcus pyogenes

B. Microsporum

C. Bacillus anthracis

D. Propionibacterium acnes

E. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D

193

Cycles of fever, chills , anemia and headache along with passage of dark colored urine are the symptoms of infection with

A. P. ovale

B. P falciparum

C. dengue virus

D. yellow fever virus

E. P. vivax

B

194

A large number of people in a community experience diarrhea with fever. Public health authorities investigate and find that the people are passing dark urine, and some have yellowish skin. Furthermore, all of the affected individuals recently ate at a new restaurant in town known for its wide variety of fresh imported vegetables . Which of the following is the most likely causative agent?

A. norovirus

B. hepatitis E virus

C. Escherichia coli 0157:H7

D. hepatitis A virus

E. Salmonella enterica

D

195

Chancroid is caused by

A. Haemophilus ducreyi

B. human herpesvirus 2

C. Treponema pallidum

D. Mycoplasma hominis

E. Trichomonas vaginalis

A

196

Legionella pneumophila is an opportunistic pathogen that

A. is part of the microbiota of the nasa cavity which occasionally invades the lungs

B. is capable of forming endospores

C. survives in the environment as an intracellular parasite of a protozoan

D. is part of the microbiota of the lower respiratory system

E. is a disease of birds transmissible to humans

C

197

Escherichia coli O157:H7 is primarily associated with which of the following foods?

A) formites

B) eggs

C) ground beef

D) pork

E) dairy products

C

198

Tetanus vaccine contains

A) fragments of Clostridium tetani cell walls

B) inactivated tetanospasmin

C) inactivated Clostridium tetani endospores

D) antibodies against Clostridium tetani

E) antibodies against Clostridium tetanic endospores

B

199

Which of the following statements is TRUE with regard to Entamoeba histolytica?

A) It reproduces by schizogony

B) It causes a form of hepatitis

C) It is an intracellular parasite

D) It may invade the peritoneal cavity, causing serious trouble

E) An effective vaccine against infection is available

D

200

Which of the following transmits leptospirosis?

A) humans infected with leptospirosis

B) infected animal bites

C) infected animal feces

D) infected animal urine

E) infected human urine

D