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Module 5: Take Home Exam 5

front 1

The majority of cases of staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome occur in
A. anyone with Staphylococcus aureus infection
B. menstruating women
C. newly delivered mothers
D. nasal surgery patients
E. uncircumcised males

back 1

B

front 2

A small puncture wound on a woman's arm has become swollen, hot to the touch, and intensely painful. There is tissue necrosis, but it is not "gassy," and under the microscope Gram-positive cocci in chains are present. Which of the following microbes is likely to be responsible?
A) Clostridium perfringens
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C) Streptococcus pyogenes
D) Staphylococcus aureus
E) Sporothrix schenckii

back 2

C

front 3

Trichomonas vaginalis is usually transmitted via sexual intercourse because it
A) participates with HIV in coinfections
B) penetrates cells lining the genitourinary tract
C) cannot live long outside the body
D) produces cysts that germinate in the vagina
E) requires a growth factor found only in the vagina

back 3

C

front 4

Which of the following is characteristic of Yersinia pestis infections?
A) petechiae
B) arthritis
C) jaundice
D) a "bulls eye" rash
E) buboes

back 4

E

front 5

Diagnosis of hepatitis B infection is made by the observation of which of the following in the patient's body fluids?
A) endospores
B) Dane particles
C) oocysts
D) enterotoxins
E) O antigens

back 5

B

front 6

A child is brought to the hospital with a high fever, nausea, and vomiting, and complaining of headache. The cerebrospinal fluid collected by spinal tap is cloudy and contains spherical cells which stain Gram-positive. These signs and symptoms are consistent with
A) cryptococcal meningitis due to infection with Cryptococcus neoformans
B) bacterial meningitis probably due to Streptococcus
C) tetanus resulting from infection with Clostridium botulinum
D) aseptic meningitis from infection with Neisseria meningitidis
E) primary amebic encephalitis caused by Naegleria

back 6

B

front 7

Bordetella pertussis produces
A. dermonecrotic toxin
B. adenylate cyclase toxin
C. pyrogenic toxin
D. dermonecrotic, adenylate cyclase toxin, and pyrogenic toxin
E. dermonecrotic and adenylate cyclase toxin

back 7

E

front 8

Ringworm is caused by
A. worms infected with fungi invading the skin.
B. dermatophytes that have invaded deep into the living tissue.
C. dermatophytes growing in the upper dead tissue layers of the skin.
D. a hypersensitivity caused by superficial contact with dermatophytes.
E. toxins produced by dermatophytes.n.

back 8

C

front 9

Which of the following methods of preserving food sterilizes it?

A. lyophilization

B. gamma radiation

C. canning

D. drying

E. pasteurization

back 9

B

front 10

The highly destructive form of Hansen's disease is the result of
A. poor immune response to Streptococcus agalactiae.
B. infection with rabies virus.
C. intracellular infection with Clostridium botulinum.
D. poor immune response to Mycobacterium leprae.
E. autoimmune disease triggered by Myobacteria leprae.

back 10

D

front 11

A child has a rash on the face, arms, upper legs and torso that is splotchy, and intensifies after being in the sun. The child does not complain of fever or itchiness. The signs and symptoms are consistent with
A) cat scratch disease
B) fifth disease
C) roseola
D) chickenpox
E) scabies

back 11

B

front 12

Which of the following diseases is a major problem for AIDS patients?
A) brucellosis
B) Lyme diseas
C) hemorrhagic fevers
D) Chagas' disease
E) toxoplasmosis

back 12

E

front 13

Necrotizing fasciitis is caused by
A. pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. staphylococcus aureus
C. rickettsia ricketsii
D. streptococcus pyogenes
E. both streptococcus pyogenes and staphylococcus aureus

back 13

E

front 14

When bacteria invade the kidney, the result can be
A) prostatitis
B) ectopic
C) pyelonephritis
D) bacteriosis
E) cystitis

back 14

C

front 15

The normal habitat of ______ is rodents, but humans bitten by fleas carrying the pathogen have fever, severely inflamed lymph nodes, and headache. Later, areas of black, necrotic tissue may develop.
A) Borrelia burgdorferi
B) Francisella tularensis
C) Yersinia pestis
D) Clostridium perfringens
E) Toxoplasma gondii

back 15

C

front 16

A young man who works on a ranch and lives in the log bunkhouse experiences sudden fever with muscle aches. A few days later he begins to cough and have difficulty breathing, and goes to an urgent care clinic. A blood sample reveals a high leukocyte count and low platelets. A Gram-stain of sputum sample shows only a few small bacteria present. Which of the following is the most likely infecting agent?
A. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Bacillus anthracis
C. influenza
D. Mycoplasma pneumonia
E. Hantavirus

back 16

E

front 17

Some strains of the virus responsible for genital warts can cause the development of
A) cervical cancer
B) tertiary syphilis
C) trichomoniasis
D) chancroid
E) genital herpes

back 17

A

front 18

A baby arrives at an emergency room suffering from violent muscle spasms and difficulty breathing. The baby's body is so rigid a proper exam is difficult, but the staff note the baby is only a few weeks old and the umbilicus has not healed properly. the signs are consistent with which of the following diseases?
A) rabies
B) acute bacterial meningitis
C) listeriosis
D) tetanus
E) infant botulism

back 18

D

front 19

What member of the human intestinal microbiota occasionally causes life-threatening disease?
A) Lactobacilus
B) Escherichia coli O157:H7
C) Salmonella enterica
D) Giardia intestinalis
E) Clostridium difficile

back 19

E

front 20

A sample from an abscess is stained and examined under the microscope. A Gram stain appears uniformly pink, but a GMS (Gomori methenamine sliver) stain reveals brownish filaments in the sample. These findings suggest
A) sporotrichosis
B) necrotizing fasciitis
C) dermatophytosis
D) leishmaniasis
E) phaeohyphomycosis

back 20

E

front 21

Ultraviolet illumination is the quickest way to diagnose infections of which of the following?
A) Piedraia hortae
B) Pseudallescheria
C) Malassezia furfur
D) Leishmania sp.
E) Sarcoptes scabiei

back 21

C

front 22

A nursing student develops a positive reaction to the tuberculin skin test. A history reveals possible exposure to patients with tuberculosis. A sputum sample is acid-fast negative. When asked for vaccination records, the student reports that childhood vaccination records were lost when the family emigrated from a southeast Asian country. What is the best explanation for the test results?
A) The student has been exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis or was vaccinated with BCG vaccine
B) The student is not infected
C) The student has been infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D) No conclusion is possible with the information provided
E) The student has been exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis

back 22

A

front 23

Which of the following is/are antiphagocytic?
A) M protein
B) leukocidin
C) protein A
D) both protein A and M protein
E) protein A, M protein, and leukocidin

back 23

E

front 24

Accessory organ infections are caused by
A) norovirus
B) mumps virus
C) human herpesvirus 1
D) rotavirus
E) enterovirus

back 24

B

front 25

A young woman being treated for serious burns develops severe diarrhea accompanied by intense abdominal pain. She passes several watery, foul-smelling, bloody stools a day. A colonoscopy reveals patches of yellowish lesions in the large intestine. The probably causative agent is
A) Giardia intestinalis
B) Vibrio cgikerae
C) Clostridium difficile
D) Campylobacter
E) Salmonella enterica serotype Typhi

back 25

C

front 26

Which of the following sets of characteristics describes the highest level of threat potential from biological weapons?
A) a microbe that can be introduced into food during packaging and withstands refrigerator temperatures but not typical cooking temperatures
B) a pathogen of wheat that could be delivered using crop dusters

C ) a pathogen of livestock transmitted by contact with infected animals but not infected people
D) a waterborne toxin that is easily introduced into public water supplies and does not replicate in humans
E) a human pathogen easily produced as an aerosol and transmissible by respiratory aerosols

back 26

E

front 27

The major sign of Haemophilus ducryi infection is similar to the major sign of infection by
A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B) Treponema pallidum
C) Candida albicans
D) Chlamydia trachomatis
E) Staphylococcus aureus

back 27

B

front 28

Which of the following statement is TRUE regarding the common cold?
A. Cold viruses are frequently spread by contaminated fomites
B. Only coronaviruses cause the common cold
C. Cold viruses reproduce most effectively at 37 degrees celsius
D. The viruses can infect both upper and lower respiratory tracts
E. The immune system cannot develop an effective response to cold viruses

back 28

A

front 29

Limiting exposure to rodents and their waste materials is an important means of controlling
A) histoplasmosis
B) inhalational anthrax
C) bronchiolitis
D) coccidioidomycosis
E) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome

back 29

E

front 30

24.3 page 763, Chapter 24

The presence of the specimen shown in the figure in a vaginal discharge is evidence of infection with
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Trichomonas vaginalis
C. Treponema palladium
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E. Candida albicans

back 30

E

front 31

A rash characterized by macules which swell, fill with fluid and then pus, then rupture and become crusty lesions, is characteristic of
A) human herpes virus 2 primary infection.
B) poxvirus infection.
C) chickenpox virus reactivation.
D) influenza.
E) papillomavirus infection.

back 31

B

front 32

The intracellular parasite usually acquired in contaminated drinking water which causes a persistent watery diarrhea is
A) Vibrio cholerae
B) Entamoeba histolytica
C) Cryptosporidium parvum
D) hepatitis A virus
E) norovirus

back 32

C

front 33

Even though mycoplasmas pass through filters that normally trap bacteria, they are known to be bacteria, not viruses, because they
A) divide by binary fission
B) synthesize peptidoglycan
C) contain both DNA and RNA
D) contain both DNA and RNA and divide by binary fission
E) synthesize peptidoglycan and divide by snapping division

back 33

D

front 34

Which of the following may result from eating shellfish?
A) salmonellosis
B) polio
C) paralysis
D) botulism
E) norovirus infection

back 34

C

front 35

The rash described as "teardrops on rose petals" is characterized as
A) smallpox
B) anthrax
C) warts
D) chickenpox
E) herpes

back 35

D

front 36

Infection of the lymphatic vessels is known as

A) petechiae.
B) bacteremia
C) lymphangitis
D) disseminated intravascular coagulation
E) recurrent fever

back 36

C

front 37

Botulism toxin disrupts motor control by
A) killing motor neurons
B) blocking inhibitory signals to motor neurons
C) blocking the release of acetylcholine by motor neurons
D) blocking acetylcholine receptors on muscle cells
E) causing demyelination of motor neurons

back 37

C

front 38

The typical signs and symptoms of flu are a result of
A. the death of cells outside the lungs
B. the release of viral toxins
C. secondary bacterial infections
D. syncytium formation
E. cytokines released as part of the immune response

back 38

E

front 39

Schizogony is an important aspect of which of the following pathogens?
A. Yersinia pestis
B. Toxoplasma gondii
C. Plasmodium species
D. Trypanosoma cruzi
E. Schistosoma mansoni

back 39

C

front 40

Which of the following contributes to the invasiveness of Treponema pallidum?
A) IgA protease
B) fimbriae
C) TSST
D) lipooligosaccharide in the cell wall
E) hyaluronidase

back 40

E

front 41

Which of the following is a common cause of otitis media?
A. Pneumocystis jiroveci
B. Blastomyces dermatitidis
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Chlamydophila pneumoniae
E. Streptococcus pneumoniae

back 41

E

front 42

During the spring calving season a ranch hand begins to run a fever and feel nauseous and achy. After he develops a headache and vomiting, he goes to a clinic. A microscopic exam of a urine sample reveals long thin microbes which move very rapidly in a corkscrewing pattern. The man may have contracted
A) staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome
B) glomerulonephritis
C) thrichomoniasis
D) leptospirosis
E) chancroid

back 42

D

front 43

Variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease can be prevented by avoiding
A) consumption of contaminated meat
B) contact with bird droppings
C) contaminated waterways
D) contact with mosquitoes
E) consumption of undercooked meat

back 43

A

front 44

Blood is found in ______ of the heart just before it is pumped into the lungs?
A. the superior vena cava
B. the right atrium
C. the right ventricle
D. the left atrium
E. the left ventricle

back 44

C

front 45

A person is brought to the emergency room with constant high fever, extensive edema, low blood pressure, and petechiae. Which of the following may the person be suffering from?
A) septicemia
B) infectious mononucleosis
C) plague
D) brucellosis
E) Lyme disease

back 45

A

front 46

The disease known as cryptococcal meningitis
A) results from exposure to bird droppings
B) is caused by a Gram-negative coccus
C) begins as a lung infection
D) is transmitted in respiratory aerosols
E) results from exposure to bird droppings and begins as a lung infection

back 46

E

front 47

Which of the following structures allows the exchange of nutrients and wastes between the fetal blood and the mother's blood?
A. the cervix
B. the placenta
C. the uterus
D. the clitoris
E. the uterine tubes

back 47

B

front 48

Care in the handling and disposal of diapers in day care centers may prevent the spread of which of the following?
A. Cryptosporidium parvum
B. Giardia intestinalis
C. hepatitis A virus
D, Salmonella enterica
E. norovirus

back 48

B

front 49

What is the primary determinant of virulence in Streptococcus pneumoniae?
A) the presence of a particular Lancefield antigen
B) the presence of a polysaccharide capsule
C) strain-specific teichoic acids in its cell wall
D) the production of pneumolysin
E) the ability to lyse red blood cells

back 49

B

front 50

Which of the following infectious diseases is currently of greatest concern as a biological weapon?
A. the plague
B. smallpox
C. anthrax
D. botulism
E. cholera

back 50

B

front 51

Diagnosis of syphilis is usually made by
A) a Pap smear
B) culturing specimens on laboratory media
C) DNA probes
D) the MHA-TP test
E) microscopic evaluation of stained specimens

back 51

D

front 52

Which of the following is true of foodborne botulism?
A) Normal food preparation methods can prevent it
B) an effective vaccine is available
C) large amounts of bacteria must be consumed to produce disease
D) it is an intoxication disorder
E) it is not a life-threatening infection even when left untreated

back 52

D

front 53

Tapeworms are usually transmitted to humans through ingestion of
A) tapeworm eggs
B) cysticerci
C) gravid proglottids
D) mature tapeworms
E) tapeworm larvae

back 53

B

front 54

A pneumonia caused by Gram-positive diplococci is known as
A) pleurisy
B) pneumocystic pneumonia
C) primary atypical pneumonia
D) pneumococcal pneumonia
E) pneumonic plague

back 54

D

front 55

Which of the following can mimic gonorrhea infections?
A. chlamydia
B. syphilis
C. chancriod
D. trichomoniasis
E. candidiasis

back 55

A

front 56

Which of the following statements concerning rabies is FALSE?
A. All mammals can serve as a resevoir for the disease.
B. Treatment includes vaccination.
C. Bats are the source of most cases of rabies in humans
D. It is caused by an ssRNA virus
E. Transmission is usually via a bite from a rabid animal.

back 56

A

front 57

A man is suffering severe foot pain in the area of what looks like a large wart. He reports he has had the wart for some time, and the pain and swelling have developed slowly. A sample from the lesion shows that the pus contains large cells that stain a golden brown color. The man is likely suffering from
A) sporotrichosis
B) phaeohyphomycosis
C) mycetoma
D) chromblasomyosis
E) necrotizing fasciitis

back 57

D

front 58

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding tuberculosis?
A. Only virulent strains of Mycobacterium tuberculosis produce mycolic acid?
B. It remains viable in dried aerosol droplets for up to eight months
C. The immune system is not affected by the infection
D. It occurs only in the lungs
E. Several hundred cells are required for infection

back 58

B

front 59

Which of the following conditions usually results in severe acute liver damage?
A) co-infection with hepatitis B and hepatitis C viruses
B) co-infection with hepatitis B and hepatitis delta viruses
C) superinfection with hepatitis A and hepatitis E viruses
D) superinfection with hepatitis B and hepatitis delta viruses
E) co-infection with hepatitis A and hepatitis B viruses

back 59

B

front 60

Syphilis can be transmitted
A) by fomites
B) from mother to fetus
C) by sexual contact
D) both by sexual contact and from mother to fetus
E) by sexual contact, by fomites, and from mother to fetus

back 60

D

front 61

Smallpox was the first human disease to be
A) analyzed and studied on the genetic level
B) identified as a viral disease
C) treated with antiviral drugs
D) globally eradicated
E) re-created in an experimental animal

back 61

D

front 62

How does tetanospasmin affect motor control?
A) it induces nervous system proteins to fold into abnormal shapes
B) it blocks the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters in the CNS
C) it triggers the endocytosis of skeletal muscle cells
D) it blocks the secretion of acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft
E) it is a pyrogenic toxin

back 62

B

front 63

A young woman develops a fever after a recent trip to a caribbean island. She also experiences severe headache and pain "in the bones." After a few days, she also develops a rash. Which of the following did she most likely contract?
A) malaria
B) Chagas' disease
C) dengue virus
D) Toxoplasma
E) yellow fever virus

back 63

C

front 64

The type of bacterial meningitis that becomes epidemic among adults is caused by
A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Streptococcus agalactiae
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
D) Neisseria meningitidis
E) Listeria monocytogenes

back 64

D

front 65

The disorder ________ is a complication of systemic infections with Streptococcus in which antigen-antibody complexes form in the blood and get trapped in the kidneys.

A. glomerulonephritis
B. leptospirosis
C. cystitis
D. urethritis
E. pyelonephritis

back 65

A

front 66

Figure 21.7 Chapter 21 pg. 648 Picture of a Bulls-eye rash

The appearance of this rash is characteristic of infections with which of the following?
A. Yersinia pestis
B. Epstein-Barr virus

C. dengue virus
D. Francisella tularensis
E. Borrelia burgdorferi

back 66

E

front 67

Inhalation anthrax is frequently fatal even with antibiotic therapy because
A. the anthrax toxin triggers severe edema of the lungs
B. the bacteria are enclosed within a biofilm that antibiotics cannot penetrate
C. Bacillus anthracis is resistant to a wide range of antibiotics
D. it is transmitted by endospores
E. the dying cells release lipid A triggering a severe inflammatory response

back 67

A

front 68

Which of the following vessels carries blood from the heart to the rest of the body?
A. capillaries
B. the pulmonary arteries
C. the superior vena cava
D. the inferior vena cava
E. the aorta

back 68

E

front 69

An indication of infection with Human herpesvirus 4 is
A) high fever and sore throat
B) a bubo
C) "swimmer's itch"
D) an ulcerating sore
E) "bulls eye" rash

back 69

A

front 70

The primary treatment for viral gastroenteritis is
A) antitoxins.
B) antiviral medications.
C) antidiarrheal medication
D) rehydration therapy
E) fever reducers

back 70

D

front 71

Of the following, who is most likely to develop a chronic infection with hepatitis B virus?
A) newborns
B) young adults
C) children between the ages of 2 and 12
D) the elderly
E) females at puberty

back 71

A

front 72

Neisseria gonorrhoeae of the reprodcutive tract in women
A) results in the formation of curd-like discharge.
B) produces painful ulcerations.
C) results in the production of yellow-greenish frothy discharge
D) produces severe inflammation of the vagina and cervix
E) is usually initially symptomatic

back 72

E

front 73

The eukaryote ____ is a common food contaminant that can lead to foodborne illness.

A) Campylobacter jejuni

B) Vibrio vulnificus

C) Yersinia enterocolitica

D) Toxoplasma gondii

E) Listeria monocytogenes

back 73

D

front 74

The condition known as "pinkeye" may be the result of infection with
A) Chlamydia trachomatis
B) Clostridium botulinum
C) Haemophilus influenzae
D) Acanthamoeba
E) Trypanosoma brucei

back 74

C

front 75

Nasal or ocular contact with water containing _____ may result in primary amebic meningoencephalitis.

A) Naegleria

B) Acanthamoeba

C) Trypanosoma brucei

D) both Acanthamoeba and Naegleria

E) Acanthamoeba, Naegleria, and Trypanosoma brucei

back 75

A

front 76

Soy sauce is made using

A) Saccharomyces

B) Aspergillus oryzae and Lactobacillus

C) Lactoccocus cremoris

D) Acetobacter

E) Aspergillus oryzae and Saccharomyces

back 76

B

front 77

Bordetella pertussis causes whooping cough by
A) irritating the diaphragm, which leads to severe coughing attacks
B) forming a pseudomembrane that obstructs the respiratory passages
C) interfering with the activity of ciliated epithelial cells in the trachea
D) suppressing mucus production
E) the development of pneumonia

back 77

C

front 78

A pigment produced by an opportunistic pathogen that contributes to tissue damage is
A. pyocyanin
B. streptokinase
C. hyaluronidase
D. lipase
E. M protein

back 78

A

front 79

Some microbes gain access to the normally axenic central nervous system by

A) damaging the blood-brain barrier.

B) infecting microphages which subsequently enter the CNS

C) axonal transport from infected peripheral neurons.

D) infecting lymph nodes in the cranium.

E) either damaging the blood-brain barrier or by axonal transport from infected peripheral neurons.

back 79

E

front 80

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding genital herpes?
A) It can only be transmitted when lesions are evident.
B) Re-appearance of lesions is the result of new infections.
C) Herpes can be prevented using vaginal spermicidal creams.
D) Acyclovir is effective in reducing the occurrence of lesions, but is not a cure.
E) There is an effective vaccine to prevent infection

back 80

D

front 81

A young man is an avid outdoorsman goes to see his doctor complaining of fever with chills, headache, nausea, and diarrhea. Blood test show that he has low levels of leukocytes and platelets. He may have contracted
A. brucellosis
B. ehrlichiosis
C. Chagas disease
D. tularemia
E. Lyme disease

back 81

B

front 82

Croup is often a result of infection with which of the following?
A. Bordetella pertussis
B. hantavirus
C. respiratory syncytial virus
D. influenzavirus
E. Mycoplasma pneumonia

back 82

C

front 83

Which of the following diseases is currently vaccine-preventable in humans?
A) yellow fever
B) plague
C) schistosomiasis
D) Lyme disease
E) malaria

back 83

A

front 84

Which of the following causes of meningitis can be spread by the fecal-oral route?

A) coxsackie A virus

B) West Nile virus

C) Streptococcus agalactine

D) Streptococcus pneumoniae

E) Haemophilus influenzae

back 84

A

front 85

The presence of Gram-negative diplococci in pus from an inflamed penis is diagnostic for infection by
A. Mycoplasma hominis
B. Treponema pallidum
C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D. human herpesvirus 2
E. Chlamydia trachomatis

back 85

C

front 86

Which of the following statements concerning the biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) is correct?

A) It is used as a bioreceptor index

B) It is a measure of the amount of oxygen in water.

C) It is proportional to how potable water is

D) It is a filter system to purify drinking water.

E) It is a measurement of the amount of oxygen that aerobic bacteria require to fully metabolize organic wastes in water.

back 86

E

front 87

One summer, bird watchers and zookeepers in a major city notice that more birds than usual are dying. At the same time reports of human encephalitis cases increase sharply. The cerebrospinal fluid of human patients is clear. Similar enveloped RNA virus particles are detected in samples from both birds and humans. Which of the following might be responsible for this outbreak?
A. rabies virus

B. an arbovirus
C. Cryptococcus neoformans
D. Neisseria meningitidis
E. coxsackie A virus

back 87

B

front 88

Which of the following is becoming rarer as a result of childhood vaccinations?
A. warts
B. roseola
C. impetigo
D. neonatal herpes
E. subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

back 88

E

front 89

Slow deterioration of muscle function occurring over many years occurs in
A. leprosy
B. minor polio
C. West Nile encephalitis
D. postpolio syndrome
E. African sleeping sickness

back 89

D

front 90

Which of the following is a notable symptom of giardiasis?
A) "rice-water" stools
B) irritability and sleep disturbance
C) cold sores
D) foul-smelling "rotten egg" stools
E) jaundice

back 90

D

front 91

A person reports to a clinic complaining of fever and abdominal pain. The abdomen is swollen, and blood tests indicate kidney damage. A stool sample is examined under a microscope and found to contain eggs with a spine projecting from its surface. The indications are consistent with infection with
A) Plasmodium falciparum
B) Anaplasma phagocytophilium
C) Toxoplasma gondii
D) Trypanosoma cruzi
E) Schistosoma mansoni

back 91

E

front 92

A young adult shows up at a free clinic complaining of painful swellings in the groin. The young woman has a history of occasional casual sex, but denies noticing any genital sores or experiencing painful urination. The young woman is most likely infected with
A) Haemophilus ducreyi
B) Chlamydia trachomatis
C) Trichomonas vaginalis
D) Treponema pallidum
E) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

back 92

B

front 93

Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning diphtheria?
A. The pseudomembrane is easily removed by surgery
B. No effective vaccine is available to prevent infection
C. diffuse rash is the major sign of diphtheria
D. The signs and symptoms of the disease are directly caused by bacterial toxin
E. A microscopic exam of bacterial samples is sufficient for conclusive diagnosis

back 93

D

front 94

Why are nearly all AIDS patients at risk of developing Pneumocystis pneumonia?

A) Pneumocystis jiroveci is becoming a wide-spread contaminant in health care environments.

B) Pneumocystis jiroveci is commonly found in a wide variety of soils.

C) Pneumocystis jiroveci is zoonotic in a wide range of vertebrates and exposure is unavoidable.

D) The pathogen is easily transmitted from infected persons to others.

E) Pneumocystis jiroveci is a common member of the respiratory microbiota in humans and opportunistic pathogen.

back 94

E

front 95

Some strains of Papillomavirus are oncogenic due to their ability to

A. produce deoxyribonucleases

B. integrate into the host cell DNA
C. escape the phagosome before lysosome fusion
D. lie dormant in cells for years
E. cause extensive damage to blood vessels

back 95

B

front 96

Infections with some Salmonella enterica serotypes can progress to typhoid fever when the bacteria
A) attach to cells of the small intestine.
B) induce endocytosis by intestinal cells.
C) reproduce within cells of the small intestine.
D) produce type III secretion system proteins.
E) enter the blood and are engulfed by phagocytes.

back 96

E

front 97

Condylomata acuminata are associated with infections of which of the following?
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B. human herpesvirus 2
C. Trichomonal vaginalis
D. human herpesvirus 1
E. papilomaviruses

back 97

E

front 98

What was the first substance produced by microorganisms to be used pharmaceutically?

A) human insulin

B) streptokinase

C) interferons

D) penicillin

E) taxol

back 98

D

front 99

Chlorinated water contains

A) no endospores

B) no viruses

C) a decreased microbial load

D) no bacteria at all

E) no cysts

back 99

C

front 100

Which of the following microorganisms is the most commonly used indicator organism for water quality testing?

A) Streptococcus thermophilus

B) Salmonella spp.

C) Hepatitis A virus

D) Shigella spp.

E) Escherichia coli

back 100

E

front 101

Anthrax derives its name from which of the following aspects of the disease?
A. the appearance of eschars on the skin
B. the necessity of burning animals killed by the disease
C. the shape of B. anthracis colonies on agar
D. the microscopic appearance of its cells
E. the shape of its endospores

back 101

A

front 102

A diagnosis of genital herpes is confirmed by the
A) appearance of stained tissue specimens
B) location of herpetic lesions
C) detection of herpesvirus DNA by PCR
D) binding of fluorescent antibodies
E) appearance and size of herpetic lesions

back 102

C

front 103

Viral meningitis is also called "aseptic meningitis"
A. to distinguish it from encephalitis
B. since it is treatable with antiviral medications
C. because it is vaccine-preventable
D. to indicate no bacteria are involved
E. because it is frequently a nosocomial infection

back 103

D

front 104

Which of the following forms of leishmaniasis is typically fatal?
A. mucocutaneous
B. cutaneous
C. visceral
D. both cutaneous and mucocutaneous are frequently fatal

E. visceral, mucocutaneous, and cutaneous are all potentially fatal

back 104

C

front 105

Plasmodium falciparum produces proteins that cause ___ in addition to the anemia due to erythrocyte destruction.

A) capillary damage

B) toxemia

C) DIC

D) black vomit

E) damage to the heart muscle

back 105

A

front 106

Staphylococcal food poisoning is called an intoxication disorder because

A) the bacteria produce type III secretion system toxins.

B) affected people appear drunk.

C) the bacteria release toxins when they are digested.

D) toxic bacteria are ingested in the food.

E) toxins produced by the bacteria growing in the food are ingested along with the food.

back 106

E

front 107

Peritonitis may develop in severe cases of
A) peptic ulcer disease
B) typhoid
C) pinworm infestation
D) giardiasis
E) hepatitis

back 107

B

front 108

Lyme disease becomes chronic because

A) Borrelia is an intracellular parasite of erythrocytes.

B) Borrelia can lie dormant in liver cells

C) the bacterium resists phagocytosis.

D) Borrelia changes its surface antigens frequently.

E) the bacterium resists phagocytosis and "hides" erythrocytes.

back 108

D

front 109

Which of the following is known to be teratogenic?
A. Borrelia
B. cytomegalovirus
C. Plasmodium
D. Epstein-Barr virus
E. dengue virus

back 109

B

front 110

The noninfective, obligately intracellular forms of chlamydia are called
A) pseudohyphae
B) initial bodies
C) elementary bodies
D) trachomas
E) phagosomes

back 110

B

front 111

During treatment of water to make it potable, about 90% of the microbes are removed

A) in the filtration step.

B) in the sedimentation step.

C) by treatment with chlorine or ozone

D) by treatment with biosensors

E) by preliminary fermentation

back 111

A

front 112

A herpetic lesion on the finger or hand is known as a

A) whitlow

B) furuncle

C) macule

D) fever blister

E) pox

back 112

A

front 113

The Gram-positive diplococcus ___ is commonly found in the pharynx but may invade the central nervous system inside cells where it survives after endocytosis.

A) Listeria monocytogenes

B) Haemophilus influenzae

C) Neisseria meningitidis

D) Streptococcus agalactiae

E) Streptococcus pneumoniae

back 113

E

front 114

Pathogenic streptococci of the upper respiratory tract (such as Streptococcus pyogenes) are distinguished from non-pathogenic streptococci by
A) the absece of a capsule
B) beta hemolytic activity
C) the presence of a lysogenic phage
D) no hemolytic activity
E) alpha hemolytic activity

back 114

B

front 115

Shingles, or herpes zoster, is a reactivation of the virus that causes

A) measles

B) chickenpox

C) German measles

D) whitlows

E) smallpox

back 115

B

front 116

The pleomorphic bacterium ___ is an obligate parasite due to its requirement for NAD+ and heme.

A) Haemophilus influenzae

B) Listeria monocytogenes

C) Neisseria meningitidis

D) Streptococcus pneumoniae

E) Streptococcus agalactiae

back 116

A

front 117

Infection known as ___ frequently begins as an injury that rapidly becomes red, swollen, hot to the touch, and intensely painful.

A) Rocky Mountain spotted fever

B) anthrax

C) staphylococcal scaled skin syndrom

D) necrotizing fascitis

E) gas gangrene

back 117

D

front 118

The virulence factor of Vibrio cholera, which is primarily responsible for the signs and symptoms of cholera, is
A. its activation of certain genes within the human body
B. its ability to produce a potent exotoxin
C. its ability to survive in freshwater
D. the presence of polar flagella
E. its ability to form biofilms in saltwater

back 118

B

front 119

A woman goes to her gynecologist and reports that she is experiencing pain during intercourse and frequently has an unusual vaginal discharge that is increased in quantity and sort of foamy. A vaginal smear shows normal appearing epithelial cells along with small leaf-shaped cells with prominent oval nuclei. What disease is the woman experiencing?
A) chancroid
B) syphilis
C) cervical cancer
D) trichomoniasis
E) herpes

back 119

D

front 120

Common skin warts are the result of infection with

A. herpesviruses
B. moriliviruses
C. coxsackieviruses
D. poxviruses
E. papillomaviruses

back 120

E

front 121

The resistance of Pseudomonas to a wide variety of antimicrobial drugs is due, in part, to its
A. production of exoenzyme S.
B. production of pyocyanin
C. ability to utilize a wide range of carbon and nitrogen sources
D. ability to pump drugs out of the cell
E. ability to grow in almost any moist environment

back 121

D

front 122

Where in a tapeworm would you expect to find fertilized eggs?
A) at the end of the strobila
B) the neck region of the strobila
C) in all proglottids
D) inside the scolex
E) outside the cuticle

back 122

A

front 123

Why does taking antibacterial medications put women at risk for candidiasis?

A) Bacteria killed by antibacterials provide nutrients for Candida albicans.

B) Antibacterials deplete the normal bacterial microbiota, resulting in a change of pH.

C) Depletion of the bacterial microbiota results in higher carbon dioxide levels, (which favor the growth of Candida albicans).

D) Antibacterials serve as growth stimulants for Candida albicans.

E) Antibacterials can alter metabolism, creating conditions that favor the growth of Candida albicans.

back 123

B

front 124

How does Borrelia burgdorferi evades the body's defenses?
A) It has a polysaccharide capsule
B) It is capable of antigenic variation
C) It is capable of antigenic variation and has manganese-containing enzymes
D) It has a polysaccharide capsule and is antiphagocytic proteinsE) It has manganese-containing enzymes

back 124

C

front 125

"Swimmer's itch" is an initial syptom of which of the following?
A) tularemia
B) malaria
C) schistosomiasis
D) Lyme disease
E) Chaga's disease

back 125

C

front 126

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding infection with Mycoplasma pneumoniae?
A. the causative agent is a fast-growing GRAM positive bacillus
B. It is extremely difficult to treat
C. The causative agent attaches to ciliated cells in the respiratory tract
D. It causes disease which is usually severe enough to require hospitalization
E. It is diagnosed by the appearance of typical "fried egg" colonies on agar

back 126

C

front 127

A woman who breeds parrots develops a fever and cough, and begins to have difficulty breathing. Small Gram-negative bacteria are detected inside cells of a sputum sample. Which of the following diseases is she likely to have contracted?
A) histoplasmosis
B) ornithosis
C) primary atypical pneumonia
D) influenza
E) inhalation anthrax

back 127

B

front 128

A researcher studying the impact of agricultural pesticides on native plants discovers a bacterium capable of degrading small amounts of a specific pesticide. The researcher then modifies the bacterial species in the lab to increase the rate of pesticide degradation. This research represents Another name for brucellosis is
A) applied microbiology
B) environmental microbiology
C) food microbiology
D) both food microbiology and environmental microbiology

E) both applied microbiology and environmental microbiology

back 128

E

front 129

Another name for brucellosis is ___ fever.

A) rabbit

B) yellow

C) undulant

D) snail

E) blackwater

back 129

C

front 130

The typical sign of primary syphilis is
A) a widespread rash
B) paralysis
C) lymphadenopathy
D) a chancre at the site of infection
E) gummas in various organs

back 130

D

front 131

Which of the following is an opportunistic infection?
A. whooping cough
B. disseminated tuberculosis
C. inflation anthrax
D. SARS
E. legionellosis

back 131

E

front 132

Diptheria toxin kills cells by interfering with which of the following processes?
A) nucleic acid synthesis
B) adenylate cyclase activity
C) protein synthesis
D) complement fixation
E) cytoplasmic membrane function

back 132

C

front 133

Most peptic ulcers are the result of colonization of the stomach by
A) Vibrio cholerae.
B) Escherichia coli O157:H7.
C) Shigella dysenteriae.
D) Salmonella enterica.
E) Helicobacter pylori.

back 133

E

front 134

Bacterial agents of meningitis which can survive phagocytosis include

A) Mycobacterium leprae

B) Neisseria meningitidis

C) Streptococcus pneumoniae

D) both Neisseria meningitidis and Streptococcus pneumoniae

E) Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae and Mycobacterium leprae

back 134

D

front 135

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding gonorrhea?
A. The causative agent can grow on most mucous membranes of the body
B. Gonorrhea produces good long-term consequences
C. Asymptomatic infections have no long-term consequences
D. Women usually experience severe symptoms early in infection
E. It is easily confused with chancriod

back 135

A

front 136

The skin is an effective barrier against invading microbes because
A. the outer layers are dead and covered in salt.
B. no microbes are able to survive on the surface.
C. it is well supplied with blood vessels to flush microbes from the surface.
D. the surface is covered in salt.
E. the outer layers of cells are dead

back 136

A

front 137

Which of the following statements is TRUE with regard to oral herpes?
A) Primary infections are usually characterized by severe lesions.
B) Lesions become more severe with each recurrence.
C) Lesions can be triggered by emotional stress or physiologic changes.
D) Ninety percent of all cases are caused by human herpesvirus 2 (HHV-2)
E) There is an effective cure for oral herpes

back 137

C

front 138

A distinctive feature of secondary syphilis is
A) a widespread rash that can include the palms and soles
B) blister-like lesions which ulcerate
C) soft, painful ulcers
D) rubbery, painful lesions
E) hard, red, painless bumps

back 138

A

front 139

Listeria monocytogenes pathogenesis is directly related to its ability to
A. resist most antimicrobial agents
B. form endospores
C. produce a powerful toxin
D. live and reproduce inside its host's cells
E. produce a polysaccharide capsule

back 139

D

front 140

A man reports to his doctor that he is tired all the time and his urine has become darker in color. He has not experienced fever or vomiting recently. The physician notes that his eyes are yellowish and his abdomen is swollen. The man has a history of kidney transplant and recently returned from an over seas trip. The man may be infected with.
A. Shigella
B. norovirus
C. hepatitis C virus
D. hepatitis E virus
E. Entamoeba histolytica

back 140

C

front 141

Which of the following statements concerning Toxoplasma infection is correct?
A) It is a rare infection
B) In most individuals, the infection results in lasting damage to the heart
C) It is transmitted by biting insects
D) It is typically contracted by eating undercooked meat
E) Freshwater snails are intermediate hosts

back 141

D

front 142

The major symptoms of cholera are attributable to which of the following?

A) death of cells lining the intestinal tract

B) cessation of protein synthesis in host cells

C) activation of adenylate cyclase

D) activity of a type III secretion system

back 142

C

front 143

Ornithosis, a disease of birds that can be transmitted to humans, is caused by

A) Chlamydophila pneumoniae

B) Klebsiella pneumoniae

C) Mycoplasma pneumoniae

D) Yersinia pestis

E) Chlamydophila psittaci

back 143

E

front 144

Chronic infection with ___ may progress to hepatic cancer.

A) HCV

B) HAV

C) HBV

D) HEV

E) both HBV and HCV

back 144

E

front 145

Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding the incidence of STDs?

A) viruses transmitted by sexual contact are not widespread.

B) Bacterial STDs are declining worldwide as a result of the availability of antibiotics.

C) The incidence of STDs is known with a high degree of accuracy.

D) Viral STDs in the U.S. are considered epidemic.

E) The incidence of most STDs could be reduced by vaccination.

back 145

D

front 146

The majority of cases of pneumonia are caused by

A) Mycoplasma pneumoniae

B) Chlamydophila pneumoniae

C) Streptococcus pneumoniae

D) Klebsiella pneumoniae

E) Haemophilus influenzae

back 146

C

front 147

Rickettsias are obligate intracellular parasites because they

A) cannot synthesize amino acids

B) lack ribosomes

C) cannot metabolize lipids

D) lack of glycolytic pathway

E) lack a cell wall

back 147

D

front 148

Potable water is water that

A) contains low amounts of microorganisms and is considered safe to drink

B) contains a dangerous number of microorganisms

C) contains biosensors

D) is considered safe to drink because it is completely sterile

E) is transferred from one place to another

back 148

A

front 149

Which of the following factors is primarily responsible for the ability of Mycobacterium tuberculosis to survive loCng periods of time in dried droplets of respiratory aerosols?

A) production of cord factor

B) pyrogenic toxin

C) the presence of mycolic acid in the cell wall

D) the presence of LPS in the outer membrane

E) formation of tubercles

back 149

C

front 150

Disseminated intravascular coagulation is a complication resulting from the

A) release of lipid A from dying Gram-negative bacteria

B) attachment of bacterial cells to the endocardium

C) release of heme from damaged RBC's

D) triggering of the complement system

E) release of cytotoxins

back 150

A

front 151

The illustration is of Gram- negative bacterium frequently responsible for meningitis. What virulence factor(s) of the bacterium is/are illustrated?

A) fimbriae

B) a membrane containing LOS

C) a capsule

D) a capsule and fimbriae

E) a capsule, frimbriae, and a membrane containing LOS

back 151

E

front 152

Exposure to large accumulations of bird dropping may result in which of the following mycoses?

A) blastomycosis

B) coccidioidomycosis

C) histoplasmosis

D) Pneumocystis pneumonia

E) valley fever

back 152

C

front 153

Eating sashimi (uncooked fish) is a risk factor for infection with

A) Giardia intestinalis

B) Entamoeba histolytica

C) Anisakis simplex

D) Enterobius vermicularis

E) Taenia saginata

back 153

C

front 154

Rodents are the natural hosts fro the virus that causes

A) West Nile encephalitis

B) Western equine encephalitis

C) Venezuelan equine encephalitis

D) Eastern equine encephalitis

E) St. Louis encephalitis

back 154

C

front 155

Which of the following is an application of proteases?

A) meat tenderizer

B) cheese

C) indigo

D) wine

E) vodka

back 155

A

front 156

Fever, difficulty breathing, extreme fatigue, and elevated heart rate are characteristic of

A) endocarditis

B) infectious mononucleosis

C) plague

D) Bang's disease

E) ehrlichiosis

back 156

A

front 157

A recently retired man appears at his doctor's office complaining of difficulty breathing, body aches and fatigue. He is also running high fever and has a dry cough. He reports having just returned from a trip to the Middle East where he visited several historical sites. Tests results are negative for a rapid test for influenza A. No bacteria are visible in a microscopic exam of his sputum. Which of the following is a likely explanation?

A) pertussis

B) coronavirus respiratory syndrome

C) primary atypical pneumonia

D) inhalation anthrax

E) valley fever

back 157

B

front 158

Observation of the specimen in the figure is diagnostic for

A) Cryptosporidium parvum

B) Taenia solium

C) Enterobius vermicularis

D) Anisakis simplex

E) Giardia intestinalis

back 158

C

front 159

Streptokinase is useful for which of the following?

A) cheese production

B) insecticide

C) producing antibiotics

D) dissolving blood clots

E) biosensors

back 159

D

front 160

Spreading black necrosis, swelling, pain and froth or bubbles are characteristic of

A) anthrax

B) gas gangrene

C) necrotizing fasciitis

D) Pseudomonas infection

E) chromoblastomycosis

back 160

B

front 161

Which of the following statements is CORRECT concerning tularemia?

A) The disease is easily treated

B) infection occurs by inhalation only

C) The signs include a distinctive pattern of mild but recurring fever

D) The disease is transmitted from person to person

E) The causative agent is an intracellular bacterial parasite

back 161

E

front 162

Which of the following is a characteristic of bacterial vaginosis frequently used to confirm diagnosis?

A) an abnormal vaginal discharge

B) fever and rash

C) the presence of bubbles

D) an acidic vaginal pH

E) the presence of clue cells

back 162

E

front 163

Dengue hemorrhagic fever is the result of

A) an antibody- antigen complex reaction

B) a hyperimmune response to reinfection with dengue virus

C) an immediate immune reaction to the initial infection with dengue virus

D) an autoimmune disease

E) the chronic carrier state associated with dengue virus infection

back 163

B

front 164

A large number of people experience a high fever with a rash during the summer months in a small country. Epidemiologists suspect an emerging disease. Both Aedes and Anopheles mosquitos are endemic to the country. Researchers are able to detect +ssRNA in the blood of fever victims and in some mosquitos. What type of pathogen might be responsible for the epidemic?

A) a filovirus

B) Plasmodium

C) a herpesvirus

D) plague bacteria

E) a flavivirus

back 164

E

front 165

African sleeping sickness is fatal if not treated because the parasite

A) evades destruction by the immune system by changing surface antigens

B) reproduces so fast there is no time for an immune response to develop

C) produces a non-immunogenic toxin the immune system cannot neutralize

D) is an intracellular parasite in RBC's, where they are not detected by the immune system

E) produces a toxin which binds irreversibly to neurons

back 165

A

front 166

Which of the following can cause birth defects?

A) rubella

B) chickenpox

C) smallpox

D) measles

E) roseola

back 166

A

front 167

A common source of antibiotics is

A) Acetobacter

B) Streptococcus thermophilus

C) Aspergillus oryzae and Lactobacillus

D) Streptomyces

E) Lactoccocus cremoris

back 167

D

front 168

Primary infection with Epstein-Barr virus is known as

A) oral hairy leukoplakia

B) chronic fatigue syndrome

C) Burkitt's lymphoma

D) infectious mononucleosis

E) Hodgkin's lymphoma

back 168

D

front 169

A specific example of bioremediation is

A) acid mine drainage

B) the treatment of wastewater

C) the degradation of crude oil spilled into the Gulf of Mexico

D) the treatment of sludge

E) the purification of water for drinking

back 169

C

front 170

Dust storms in arid regions of the Southwestern U.S. may lead to outbreaks of

A) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome

B) blastomycosis

C) Pneumocystis pneumonia

D) valley fever

E) histoplasmosis

back 170

D

front 171

Food contaminated with ___ may contain a potent neurotoxin.

A) Listeria monocytogenes

B) Escherichia coli

C) Clostridium botulinum

D) Salmonella spp.

E) Shigella spp.

back 171

A

front 172

Shigellosis can be differentiated from salmonellosis by the fact that Shigella

A) multiplies in the host cell's cytosol

B) multiplies in phagocytic vesicles

C) kills host cells

D) stimulates intestinal epithelial cells to phagocytize it

E) causes severe diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and fever

back 172

A

front 173

Which of the following causes of viral meningitis is transmitted by the fecal-oral route?

A) California encephalitis virus

B) West Nile virus

C) echovirus

D) rabies

E) equine encephalitis virus

back 173

C

front 174

A series of nodular lesions on an arm that fill with pus and ulcerate through the skin is characteristic of infection with the fungus

A) Epidermophyton

B) Microsporum

C) Micrococcus

D) Trichophyton

E) Sporothrix schenckii

back 174

E

front 175

A new vaccine for the upcoming flu season is developed from an influenza isolate designated A/Shanghai/2/2013(H7N9). This nomenclature means the isolate is

A) a type A with antigens HA 7 and NA 9 isolated in Shanghai in February 2013

B) a type A with 7 HA antigens and 9 NA antigens isolated in Shanghai in February 2013

C) a hybrid of 2 type As combining 7 HA and 9 NA antigens, created in February 2013

D) a type B strain with antigens HA 7 and NA 9, first isolated in February 2013

E) the second type A strain with HA 7 and NA 9 antigens isolated in Shanghai in 2013

back 175

A

front 176

Which of the following is a common childhood parasite in the United States?

A) Cryptosporidium parvum

B) Enterobius vermicularis

C) Taenia solium

D) Giardia intestinalis

E) Entamoeba histolytica

back 176

B

front 177

Epstein-Barr virus infections are typically asymptomatic in ___ because of incomplete development of adaptive immunity.

A) adolescents

B) adults

C) AIDS patients

D) young children

E) the elderly

back 177

D

front 178

A new industrial park in your community dumps its wastewater into a large aerated pond, to which nutrients are added. The water from this pond makes its way into a nearby marsh, which eventually drains into a slow-moving stream. This is an example of

A) natural bioremediation

B) bioreporter

C) artificial bioremediation

D) a method to make potable water

E) natural fermentation

back 178

A

front 179

A reddening of the skin of the face that intensifies when exposed to the sun is a characteristic of

A) herpes

B) chickenpox

C) rubeola

D) erythema infectiosum

E) rubella

back 179

D

front 180

Human infestation with Taenia saginata results from ingesting ___ in undercooked intermediate host.

A) cysticerci

B) proglottids

C) eggs

D) cysts

E) scolex

back 180

A

front 181

A child complains of intensely itchy "pimples" on the hands and wrists. The lesions are small inflamed streaks , but do not appear to contain pus. The child's condition may be the result of infection with

A) Sarcoptes scabiei

B) Clostridium perfringens

C) Sporothrix schenkii

D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

E) Staphylococcus epidermidis

back 181

A

front 182

The chambers and valves of the heart are lined by hte

A) pericardium

B) erythrocytes

C) endocardium

D) vena cava

E) myocardium

back 182

C

front 183

Newborns exposed to the Gram-positive bacterium ___ during vaginal birth are at risk of developing neonatal meningitis.

A) Streptococcus agalactiae

B) Listeria monocytogenes

C) Haemophilus influenzae

D) Neisseria meningitidis

E) Streptococcus pneumoniae

back 183

A

front 184

Observation of microbes shown in the figure from vaginal discharge specimen is diagnostic for

A) gonorrhea

B) syphilis

C) trachoma

D) trichomoniasis

E) Chlamydia infection

back 184

D

front 185

The most common cause of traveler's diarrhea is

A) Escherichia coli

B) Salmonella enterica

C) Giardia intestinalis

D) Shigella flexneri

E) Cryptosporidium parvum

back 185

A

front 186

Which of the following is classified as a spongiform encephalopathy?

A) African sleeping sickness

B) botulism

C) Hansen's disease

D) arboviral encephalitis

E) variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

back 186

E

front 187

An intracellular parasite primarily transmitted as an STD is the agent of ___, which may cause enough damage to result in blindness.

A) primary amebic menigoencephalopathy

B) tetanus

C) trachoma

D) rabies

E) cryptococcal meningitis

back 187

C

front 188

Blastomycosis results from

A) inhalation of fungal spores

B) inhalation of spherules

C) contact with infected sputum

D) contact with formites

E) inhalation of respiratory droplets

back 188

A

front 189

The ___ is a layer of tough fibers and fat cells that anchors the skin to the deeper tissues.

A) follicles

B) hypodermis

C) fascia

D) dermis

E) epidermis

back 189

B

front 190

Which of the following bacteria is a common soil bacterium that may cause disease in humans?

A) Bacillus anthracis

B) Streptomyces scabies

C) Lactoccocus cremoris

D) Cyanobacteria

E) Aspergillus oryzae

back 190

A

front 191

A young man is experiencing fever and severe headaches, and is having difficulty staying awake . He reports having spent time in Africa on a missionary trip several months ago. Recently he spent time in a park where he went swimming in the lake and was bitten by a bat he attempted to catch. His cerebrospinal fluid is nearly clear, and containing long, slender, mobile cells. The description indicates infection with

A. rabies virus

B. Neisseria meningitidis

C. Trypanosoma brucei

D. Acanthamoeba

E. an enterovirus

back 191

C

front 192

Under some circumstances ____ is beneficial, but under other conditions the bacteria become overabundant leading to inflammation of hair follicles.

A. Streptococcus pyogenes

B. Microsporum

C. Bacillus anthracis

D. Propionibacterium acnes

E. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

back 192

D

front 193

Cycles of fever, chills , anemia and headache along with passage of dark colored urine are the symptoms of infection with

A. P. ovale

B. P falciparum

C. dengue virus

D. yellow fever virus

E. P. vivax

back 193

B

front 194

A large number of people in a community experience diarrhea with fever. Public health authorities investigate and find that the people are passing dark urine, and some have yellowish skin. Furthermore, all of the affected individuals recently ate at a new restaurant in town known for its wide variety of fresh imported vegetables . Which of the following is the most likely causative agent?

A. norovirus

B. hepatitis E virus

C. Escherichia coli 0157:H7

D. hepatitis A virus

E. Salmonella enterica

back 194

D

front 195

Chancroid is caused by

A. Haemophilus ducreyi

B. human herpesvirus 2

C. Treponema pallidum

D. Mycoplasma hominis

E. Trichomonas vaginalis

back 195

A

front 196

Legionella pneumophila is an opportunistic pathogen that

A. is part of the microbiota of the nasa cavity which occasionally invades the lungs

B. is capable of forming endospores

C. survives in the environment as an intracellular parasite of a protozoan

D. is part of the microbiota of the lower respiratory system

E. is a disease of birds transmissible to humans

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C

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Escherichia coli O157:H7 is primarily associated with which of the following foods?

A) formites

B) eggs

C) ground beef

D) pork

E) dairy products

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C

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Tetanus vaccine contains

A) fragments of Clostridium tetani cell walls

B) inactivated tetanospasmin

C) inactivated Clostridium tetani endospores

D) antibodies against Clostridium tetani

E) antibodies against Clostridium tetanic endospores

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B

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Which of the following statements is TRUE with regard to Entamoeba histolytica?

A) It reproduces by schizogony

B) It causes a form of hepatitis

C) It is an intracellular parasite

D) It may invade the peritoneal cavity, causing serious trouble

E) An effective vaccine against infection is available

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D

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Which of the following transmits leptospirosis?

A) humans infected with leptospirosis

B) infected animal bites

C) infected animal feces

D) infected animal urine

E) infected human urine

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D