Exam 3

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1

The initial work on anaphylaxis was done by

Watson and Crick.
Pasteur.
Fleming.
Richet and Portier.

Richet and Portier

2

If the immune system responds inadequately to antigenic stimulation, this is termed

hypersensitivity.
autoimmunity.
cell-mediated immunity.
immunodeficiency.

immunodeficiency

3

The immunoglobulin associated with Type I hypersensitivity is

IgG.
IgA.
IgM.
IgE.
IgD.

IgE

4

IgE molecules involved in hypersensitivity reactions have become attached to

neutrophils.
mast cells.
B cells.
macrophages.
mast cells AND B cells.

mast cells

5

To produce an allergic reaction in Type I hypersensitivity, the antigen

must bind to mast cells.
must bind to free IgE molecules.
must bind to IgE on mast cells.
must crosslink two IgE molecules on mast cells.

Must crosslink two IgE molecules on mast cells

6

During a Type I hypersensitivity reaction, the mast cells

become phagocytic.
release IgE antibodies.
degranulate.
immediately release histamine.
degranulate AND immediately release histamine.

degranulate and immediately release histamines

7

Urticaria is characterized by

living in Utica.
wheal and flare.
asthma.
inflammation.

Wheal and flare

8

Generalized anaphylaxis is generally characterized by

wheal and flare.
inflammation.
shock.
rash.

Shock

9

Most cases of generalized anaphylaxis are a result of

fire ant stings.
aspirin.
bananas.
peanuts, bee stings or penicillin injections.

peanuts, bee stings, or penicillin injections

10

Desensitization

stimulates an increase in IgG.
reduces the number of mast cells.
increases the number of basophil cells.
is a treatment for hypersensitivity reactions.
stimulates an increase in IgG AND is a treatment for hypersensitivity reactions.

Stimulates an increase in IgG and is a treatment for hypersensitivity reactions

11

The hypersensitivity treatment that stimulates an increase of IgG and T suppressor cells and a decrease in IgE is known as

desensitization.
immunity.
sensitization.
exposure.
anaphylaxis.

Desensitization

12

Recombinant human monoclonal antibody (rhuMAb)

appears promising as a treatment for asthma.
decreases the levels of IgG.
uses an engineered form of an IgG molecule.
promotes crosslinking between IgE molecules on the mast cells.
appears promising as a treatment for asthma AND uses an engineered form of an IgG molecule.

Appeas promising as a treatment for asthma and uses an engineered form of an IgG molecule

13

The type of hypersensitivity expressed with the lysing of red blood cells is

Type I.
Type II.
Type III.
Type IV.
Type V.

Type II

14

A transfusion reaction primarily involves

leukocytes.
phagocytes.
platelets.
erythrocytes.

erythrocytes

15

The natural antibodies in serum that react with A or B polysaccharide antigens are mostly of the class

IgG.
IgE.
IgM.
IgD.
IgA.

IgM

16

Anti-A and anti-B antibodies

are considered natural antibodies.
are present at birth.
are typically IgM.
easily cross the placenta.
are considered natural antibodies AND are typically IgM.

Are considered natural antibodies and are typically IgM

17

Regarding a mismatch of either the Rh antigen or the AB antigen, both

result in destruction of red blood cells.
utilize complement to destroy red blood cells.
utilize antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity to destroy the red blood cells.
result in destruction of only leukocytes.

result in destruction of red blood cells

18

Antibodies that have arisen in the blood plasma without any obvious or deliberate stimulus are called

natural.
acquired.
injurious.
active.

Natural

19

Hemolytic disease of the newborn

may not manifest itself fully until after birth.
is due to the action of IgM.
is due to the action of IgE.
is a Type I hypersensitivity reaction.
may not manifest itself fully until after birth AND is due to the action of IgE.

May not manifest itself fully until after birth

20

The cell type responsible for Type II hypersensitivity is the

mast cell.
B cell.
macrophage.
platelet.
neutrophils.

B cell

21

Immune complexes

consist of antigen-antibody bound together.
are usually cleared rapidly from the body.
bind to Fc receptors on cells.
are involved in Type III hypersensitivity reactions.
All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct

22

Localized injury or death of tissue resulting from repeated injections of an antigen into a person with high levels of circulating specific antibody is known as

farmer's lung.
German measles.
serum sickness.
an Arthus reaction.

An Arthus reaction

23

Arthus reactions and serum sickness are examples of _________ hypersensitivity.

type I
type II
type III
type IV
type V

type III

24

Which of the following disease states is not among those caused by immune complexes?

farmer's lung
serum sickness
hay fever
glomerulonephritis

Hay fever

25

Delayed hypersensitivity is also known as ___________ hypersensitivity.

type I
type II
type III
type IV
type V

Type Iv

26

Delayed type hypersensitivity primarily involves

erythrocytes.
B cells.
T cells.
mast cells.

T cells

27

Type IV hypersensitivity reactions typically peak within

minutes.
hours.
12 hours.
2-3 days.

2-3 days

28

Which of the following is associated with contact dermatitis?

poison ivy
latex
tuberculin skin test
hay fever
poison ivy, latex AND tuberculin skin test

Posion ivy, latex and tuberculin skin test

29

The redness and induration found after a tuberculin skin test

involve the action of
sensitized T cells.
IgE.
complement.
basophil cells.

Sensitized T cells

30

Patch tests are used to detect

hives.
serum sickness.
immune complexes.
contact hypersensitivity.

Contact hypersensitivity

31

Which of the following have been an effective immunosuppressant for use in transplantation?

amphotericin B and cyclosporin A
FK506 and cephalosporin
cyclosporin A and tacrolimus
cephalosporin and amphotericin B
FK506 and amphotericin B

cyclosporin A and tacrolimus

32

Graft-versus-host disease is primarily a

Type I reaction.
Type II reaction.
Type III reaction.
Type IV reaction.
Type V reaction.

Type IV reaction

33

The tissue antigens most involved in graft rejection involve

Rh.
ABO.
MHC.
MLB.

MHC

34

Killing of graft cells occurs through a complex series of mechanisms including

sensitized T cytotoxic cells.
NK cells.
erythrocytic cells.
basophilic cells.
sensitized T cytotoxic cells AND NK cells.

sensitized Tcytotoxic cells and NK cells

35

Cyclosporin A

is a relatively general immunosuppressive agent.
suppresses T cell proliferation.
activates macrophages.
stimulates antibody production.
is a relatively general immunosuppressive agent AND suppresses T cell proliferation.

Supresses T cell proliferation

36

Allografts

are normally rejected within hours.
are normally rejected within 10-14 days.
are grafts between non-identical members of the same species.
would include the fetus.
are normally rejected within 10-14 days, are grafts between non-identical members of the same species AND would include the fetus.

Are normally rejected within 10-14 days, are grafts between non-identical members of the same species AND would include the fetus

37

Immunologically privileged sites include the

brain.
eyes.
testes.
kidney.
brain, eyes AND testes.

brain, eyes, and testes

38

The fetus is not rejected because

it is too small.
it is in an immunologically privileged site.
the father is immunosuppressed.
it has no antigens.
it is in an immunologically privileged site AND the father is immunosuppressed.

It is an immunologically privileged site

39

Which of the following primary immunodeficiencies is the most common?

severe combined immunodeficiency
selective IgA deficiency
agammaglobulinemia
Di George's syndrome

Selectove IgA deficiency

40

If the thymus fails to develop

functional T cells are absent.
functional B cells are absent.
Di George's syndrome exists.
complement deficiencies exist.
functional T cells are absent AND Di George's syndrome exists.

Functional T cells are absent and Di George's syndome exists

41

If a patient lacks B cells, the resulting disease is

SCID.
AIDS.
Di George's syndrome.
agammaglobulinemia.

Agammaglobulinemia

42

Defects in bone marrow stem cells result in a condition known as

SCID.
AIDS.
Di George's syndrome.
Chediak-Higashi disease.

SCID

43

A defect in which of the following systems leads to granulomatous disease?

lymphatic system
circulatory system
oxidase system
Golgi system

Oxidase system

44

The condition that results from ineffective digestion after phagocytosis is

AIDS.
Chediak-Higashi disease.
Di George's syndrome.
agammaglobulinemia.

Chediak-Higashi disease

45

Secondary immunodeficiency disease is not the result of

genetic defects.
malignancies.
advanced age.
malnutrition.

genetic defects

46

HIV

appears to cause AIDS.
is an RNA virus.
destroys T helper cells.
makes the patient vulnerable to infections, especially those caused by opportunists.
All of the choices are correct.

All choices are correct

47

If the body recognizes parts of itself as being foreign, this is termed

immunodeficiency disease.
agammaglobulinemia.
autoimmune disease.
AIDS.

autoimmune disease

48

Myasthenia gravis is an example of an autoimmune disease that involves

sensitized T cells.
cytotoxic T cells.
antibodies.
IgD.

Antibodies

49

Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus is an example of an

autoimmune disease that involves
sensitized T cells.
cytotoxic T cells.
antibodies.
IgD.

cytotoxic T cells

50

Stem cells

have an almost unlimited capacity to divide.
can differentiate into different tissues.
may be used to test the effects of drugs on human cells.
come from fetal material.
All of the above

All of the above

51

First exposure to an allergen results in a violent hypersensitivity reaction.

True
False

False

52

Anaphylaxis is the name given to allergic reactions caused by IgE-mediated release of mast cell granules.

True
False

True

53

Generalized anaphylaxis may be quickly controlled with the use of antihistamines.

True
False

False

54

Allergic rhinitis and hives may both respond to antihistamines.

True
False

True

55

Type O blood is missing both anti-A and anti-B antibodies.

True
False

True

56

Anti-A and anti-B antibodies are natural antibodies and are present at birth.

True
False

False

57

Mismatch of either the Rh antigen or the AB antigen results in lysis of red blood cells by complement.

True
False

False

58

Anti-Rh antibodies may not cross the placenta.

True
False

False

59

MHC plays a pivotal role in transplant rejection.

True
False

True

60

A lack of T cells makes one more vulnerable to intracellular parasites.

True
False

True

61

The idea that communicable diseases were caused by the passage of living things from one person to another was first put forth by

Fracastorius.
Pasteur.
Thucydides.
Leeuwenhoek.

Fracastorius

62

The connection between a particular organism and a specific disease was first made by
Fracastorius.
Pasteur.
Koch.
Leeuwenhoek.

Koch

63

The series of steps used to connect an organism to a disease are known as

Pasteur's postulates.
Lister's aseptics.
Linnaeus taxonomics.
Koch's postulates.

Koch's postulates

64

The interaction of all organisms within a biological community is called a(n)

dialogue.
chat room.
ecosystem.
relationship.

Ecosystem

65

The microorganisms that are regularly found in or on the body, yet do no apparent harm are called

abnormal flora.
transient flora.
variant flora.
normal flora.

Normal flora

66

The microorganisms that are occasionally found in or on the body are called

abnormal flora.
transient flora.
variant flora.
normal flora.

Transient flora

67

Organisms that are found together and interact on a more or less permanent basis are in a relationship termed

mutualism.
parasitism.
symbiosis.
transient flora.

symbiosis

68

The symbiotic relationship wherein both partners benefit is termed

commensalism.
parasitism.
independence.
mutualism.

Mutualism

69

A relationship in which one partner benefits and the other is unaffected is termed

commensalism.
parasitism.
independence.
mutualism.

commensalism

70

A relationship in which one partner benefits and the other is harmed is termed

commensalism.
parasitism.
independence.
mutualism.

parasitism

71

The resident microbial population of the human fetus is

zero.
sparse.
complex.
symbiotic.

Zero

72

Which of the following is true about the role normal flora plays in maintaining host health?

They provide a surface that is incompatible for attachment of an invader.
They establish competition for nutrients and vitamins.
They produce antimicrobial substances.
They stimulate the immune system.
All of the choices are true.

All choices are true

73

Which of the following members of the normal flora inhibit the growth of Candida albicans?

E. coli.
Lactobacillus species.
Staphylococci species.
Propionibacterium species.

Lactobacillus species

74

The composition of the normal flora may be affected by

hormonal changes.
use of antibiotics.
obesity level.
diet.
All of the choices are correct.

All of the answers are correct

75

The "hygiene hypothesis" proposes that

lack of exposure to microbes can promote development of allergies.
cleanliness truly is next to godliness.
hand washing is the best preventative measure against infection.
the immune system develops best in a clean environment.

Lack of exposure to microbes can promote develpment of allergies

76

The infectious dose

is the same for all microorganisms.
may be 10-100 cells for Salmonella.
is expressed as ID50.
is defined as the number of microbes necessary to ensure infection.
is expressed as ID50 AND is defined as the number of microbes necessary to ensure infection.

Is expressed as ID50 AND is defined as the number of microbes necessary to ensure infection

77

The number of organisms necessary to insure infection is termed the

infectious dose.
fatal number.
minimum lethal dose.
pathogenic number.

Infectious dose

78

A disease-causing microorganism or virus is referred to as a(n)

avirulent infection.
colony.
commensal.
pathogen.

Pathogen

79

Opportunists or opportunistic pathogens

are usually saprophytes.
take advantage of special circumstances.
are usually mutualistic.
always cause disease.

Take advantage of special circumstances

80

The suffix -emia means in the

body.
lymph.
interstitial tissue.
blood.

Blood

81

Attributes

of an organism that promote pathogenicity are called
disease factors.
colonization factors.
mutualistic.
virulence factors.

Virulence factors

82

Avirulent organisms are

more likely to cause disease.
more likely to cause severe disease.
unable to cause disease.
pathogenic.

Unable to cause disease

83

Which of the following may be considered virulence factor(s)?

adhesins
capsules
endotoxins
proteases
All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct

84

Which of the following does S. pneumoniae use to survive in the host?

plasmids
pili
flagella
capsules

capsules

85

Which of the following would be considered a sign of a disease?

headache
pain
nausea
fever of 39°C

Fever at 39 degrees C

86

People who carry and may spread pathogenic organisms without any overt symptoms of illness are called

primary infections.
secondary infections.
mutualists.
carriers.

carriers

87

The spread of toxin via circulation is called

septicemia.
bacteremia.
sepsis.
toxemia.

toxemia

88

A more modern equivalent to Koch's Postulates is termed

Pasteur's Systematics.
Hoch's Postulates.
Atomic Theory.
Protein Theory.
Molecular Postulates.

Molecular Postulates

89

Species of both Shigella and Streptococcus

invade host cells.
produce a toxin.
cause ergot poisoning.
are delivered via flea bites.
invade host cells AND produce a toxin.

invade host cells AND produce a toxin

90

Which of the following causes a foodborne intoxication?

Staphylococcus aureus
E. coli O157:H7
Clostridium botulinum
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Staphylococcus aureus, E. coli O157:H7 AND Clostridium botulinum

Stapholococcus aureus, E. coli, O157:H7 and clostridium

91

Adhesins are

involved in the first step of the infectious process.
often found at the tip of pili.
found in flagella.
endotoxins.
involved in the first step of the infectious process AND often found at the tip of pili.

involved in the first step of the infecious process and found at the tip of the pili

92

The first step in the establishment of infection is that the organism must

invade host tissues.
attach to host cells.
evade phagocytes.
produce toxins.

attach to host cells

93

Which of the following factors is not considered important for the establishment of an infection?

adherence
dose
toxicity
virulence factors

toxicity

94

Typically, adhesins

are found on pili.
help bacteria attach to host cells.
are proteins.
are found on host cells.
are found on pili, help bacteria attach to host cells AND are proteins.

Are found on pili, help bacteria attach to hosts and are proteins

95

The lack of susceptibility to diseases of other species in humans may be due to the

secretion of exotoxins.
presence of endotoxins.
action of IL-2.
lack of receptors that are recognized by adherence factors.

lack of receptors that are recognized by adherence factos

96

An example of genetic variation used in pathogen survival may be

production of a comet's tail.
protease production.
inhibition of MHC Class I antigen production.
changing the pilus type.
production of a comet's tail AND protease production.

changing the pilus type

97

Colonization of the body is inhibited by

the shedding of skin cells.
the movement of mucus by cilia.
peristalsis.
the flushing action of the urinary tract.
All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct

98

The process by which infectious agents are ingested by host cells is termed

exocytosis.
pinocytosis.
endocytosis.
phagosome fusion.

endocytosis

99

Bacteria that resist killing by complement proteins are termed

carriers.
serum resistant.
balanced pathogens.
mutualistic.
carriers AND serum resistant.

serum resistant

100

C5a peptidase

is a virulence factor.
synthesizes C5a.
is produced by the host cell in response to infection.
is a molecule promoting chemotaxis.
is a virulence factor AND is a molecule promoting chemotaxis.

is a virulence factor

101

Bacteria may survive phagocytosis by

preventing fusion of the lysosome with the phagosome.
lysing the phagosome.
producing comet tails.
preventing fusion of two phagosomes.
preventing fusion of the lysosome with the phagosome AND lysing the phagosome.

preventing fusion of the lysosome with the phagosome and lysing the phagosome

102

The chemical nature of endotoxins is that of a

protein.
nucleic acid.
lipid.
lipopolysaccharide.

lipopolysaccharide

103

The chemical nature of exotoxins is that of a

protein.
carbohydrate.
lipid.
lipopolysaccharide.

protein

104

Which is true about superantigens?

They are a type of exotoxin.
They bind to MHC class II antigen on T cells.
They enhance specific antibody production.
They are processed intracellularly.
They are a type of exotoxin AND they bind to MHC class II antigen on T cells.

They are a type of exotoxin and they bind to MHC class II antigen on T cells

105

Which is true about botox?

It is an endotoxin.
It is produced by S. aureus.
It may cause botulism.
It is useful in treating conditions related to muscle contractions.
It may cause botulism AND it is useful in treating conditions related to muscle contractions.

It may cause botulism and it is useful in treating conditions related to muscle contractions

106

Which of the following is/are true about endotoxins?

Lipid A is the toxic portion of the molecule.
The toxic effects depend on the bacteria from which it came.
The lipid A is immunogenic.
They are proteins.
The toxic effects depend on the bacteria from which it came AND they are proteins.

Lipid A is the toxic portion of the molecule

107

Which is/are true of viruses?

They may suppress the production of MHC Class I protein.
They may produce an MHC Class I mimic protein.
They may prevent cell suicide.
They may bind to MHC class II antigens.
They may suppress the production of MHC Class I protein, they may produce an MHC Class I mimic protein AND they may prevent cell suicide

They may supress the production of MHC class I protein, they may produce an MHC class I mimic protein AND they may prevent cell suicide

108

Disease(s) in which the causative agent becomes latent is/are

cold sores.
genital herpes.
typhus.
shingles.
All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct

109

The damage caused by parasites may be due to

competition for nutrients.
the physical blocking of organs.
the direct digestion of host tissue.
the host's immune response.
All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct

110

The most successful parasites are the ones that live in harmony with their hosts.

True
False

True

111

A human fetus has no resident microbial population.

True
False

True

112

Infection always leads to disease.

True
False

False

113

A disease is an infection that impairs the normal state of health.

True
False

True

114

Obligate intracellular parasites may be grown in special synthetic media.

True
False

False

115

During incubation and convalescence a person may still spread infectious organisms.

True
False

True

116

The infectious dose of most pathogens is about equal.

True
False

False

117

A strong attachment of a microorganism to a host cell automatically leads to disease.

True
False

False

118

High concentrations of some bacteria are necessary for successful invasion because only at high density are their virulence genes expressed.

True
False

True

119

Only Gram-positive bacteria produce exotoxins.

True
False

False

120

One of the earliest researchers to explore the use of chemicals to kill microbial pathogens was

Koch.
Hooke.
Fleming.
Ehrlich.

Ehrlich

121

The arsenic compound that proved highly effective in treating syphilis was called

penicillin.
sulfa.
erythromycin.
Salvarsan.

Salvarsan

122

The first example of an antimicrobial drug synthesized in the laboratory was

penicillin.
sulfa.
erythromycin.
Salvarsan.

Salvarsan

123

Prontosil effectively acted on streptococci when the drug was split by enzymes to produce

penicillin.
sulfanilamide.
erythromycin.
Salvarsan.

Sulfanilamide

124

The use of Salvarsan and Prontosil to treat microbial infections were early examples of

antibiotics.
toxins.
inhibitors.
chemotherapy.

Chemotherapy

125

Penicillin was discovered by

Koch.
Hooke.
Fleming.
Ehrlich.

Fleming

126

The most effective form of penicillin is

A.
B.
E.
G.

G

127

One of the earliest antimicrobials isolated from a bacterium was

penicillin.
ampicillin.
Salvarsan.
streptomycin.

Streptomycin

128

Which of the following groups of microorganisms produces antibiotics?

Penicillium
Streptomyces
Bacillus
All of the choices are correct.
Penicillium AND Streptomyces

All of the choices are correct

129

An antibiotic made by microorganisms and modified by chemists is called

anti-metabolic.
catabolic.
synthetic.
semi-synthetic.

Semi synthetic

130

The antimicrobials produced by some molds and bacteria are generally called

insecticides.
biocides.
antiseptics.
antibiotics.

antibiotics

131

The toxicity of a given drug is expressed as the

selective toxicity.
biocide index.
biostatic index.
therapeutic index.

Therapeutic index

132

A high therapeutic index is

more toxic to the patient.
less toxic to the patient.
has no effect on the patient.
has no effect on the pathogen.

Less toxic to the patient

133

Drugs that are bacteriostatic

kill bacteria.
promote bacterial growth.
inactivate bacterial spores.
inhibit the growth of bacteria.

inhibit the growth of bacteria

134

Antimicrobials that kill microorganisms have the suffix

-cidal.
-static.
-anti.
-genic.

-cidal

135

Antimicrobials that inhibit the growth of microorganisms have the suffix

-cidal.
-static.
-anti.
-genic.

Static

136

Antibiotics that affect various strains of Gram-positive bacteria and various strains of Gram-negative bacteria are called

isolate usable.
stress-induced.
narrow-spectrum.
broad-spectrum.

Broad spectrum

137

The rate of elimination of an antimicrobial is expressed as its

metabolic destructive rate.
half-life.
effective time.
dosage rate.

half life

138

Antibiotics that are most likely to disrupt the normal flora are termed

narrow-spectrum.
broad-spectrum.
targeted spectrum.

broad spectrum

139

Drugs that are more effective when taken together are called

energetic.
antagonistic.
subtractive.
synergistic.

synergistic

140

If drugs are less effective when taken together than when each is taken separately, they are called

energetic.
antagonistic.
additive.
synergistic.

antagonistic

141

Antimicrobials may produce

allergic reactions.
toxic effects.
suppression of normal flora.
All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct

142

Which of the following bacteria have an innate resistance to penicillin?

S. aureus
S. epidermidis
M. luteus
Mycoplasma

Myoplasma

143

Which of the following drugs target peptidoglycan?

penicillin
cephalosporin
vancomycin
bacitracin
All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct

144

All members of the penicillin family have

beta-lactam rings.
alpha-lactam rings.
phenolic rings.
sulfanilic rings.

beta- lactam rings

145

Penicillin-binding proteins

primarily function in the cell to bind to beta-lactam drugs.
are enzymes.
are involved in cell wall synthesis.
inhibit non-growing bacteria.
are enzymes AND are involved in cell wall synthesis.

Are enzymes and are involved in the cell wall synthesis

146

Beta-lactamases

bind to penicillin-binding proteins.
bind to peptides.
prevent the linking of glycan chains in peptidoglycan.
break the beta-lactam ring.

break the beta-lactam ring

147

The major class(es) of antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis is/are

aminoglycosides.
tetracyclines.
macrolides.
bacitracins.
→ aminoglycosides, tetracyclines AND macrolides.

aminogylcosides, tetracyclines and macrolides

148

Inhibitors of protein synthesis typically key on

peptidoglycan precursors.
penicillin-binding proteins.
ribosomes.
porin proteins.

ribosomes

149

Which is true of aminoglycosides?

They are bacteriostatic.
They irreversibly bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit.
They block peptidoglycan synthesis.
They are bactericidal.
They irreversibly bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit AND they are bactericidal.

They irreversible bind the 30S ribosomal subunit and they are bactericidal

150

Fluoroquinolones typically target

ribosomes.
penicillin-binding proteins.
peptidoglycan.
DNA gyrase.

DNA gyrase

151

Sulfonamide and trimethoprim are both

examples of metabolic inhibitors.
folate inhibitors.
protein synthesis inhibitors.
inhibitors of cell wall synthesis.
examples of metabolic inhibitors AND folate inhibitors.

exampes of metabolic inhibitors and folate inhibitors

152

Folic acid is ultimately used in the synthesis of

topoisomerases.
proteins.
DNA gyrases.
sulfonamides.
coenzymes.

coenzymes

153

Sulfonamides are similar in structure to

DNA gyrases.
LPS.
ribosomes.
PABA.

PABA

154

Sulfonamides work as

competitive inhibitors.
noncompetitive inhibitors.
ribosome-binding molecules.
feedback inhibitors.

Competitive inhibitors

155

Trimethoprim and sulfonamides have a(n)

antagonistic effect.
synergistic effect.
energetic effect.
subtractive.

synergistic effect

156

Mycolic acids are targeted by isoniazid in the treatment of

S. aureus.
S. epidermidis.
M. luteus.
M. tuberculosis.

M tuberculosis

157

The lowest concentration of a drug that prevents growth of a microorganism is the

infectious dose.
lethal dose.
effective dose.
minimum inhibitory concentration.

minimum inhibitory concentration

158

The minimum bactericidal concentration is the lowest concentration of a specific antimicrobial drug that kills _______ of a specific type of bacteria.

10%
50%
99.9%
100%

99.9%

159

The diffusion bioassay

determines the concentration of antimicrobial necessary to kill a bacteria.
determines the concentration of antimicrobial necessary to inhibit growth of a bacteria.
is similar in principal to the Kirby-Bauer test.
determines the concentration of antimicrobial in a fluid.
is similar in principal to the Kirby-Bauer test AND determines the concentration of antimicrobial in a fluid.

Is similar in principal to the Kirby Bauer test and determines the concentration of antimicrobial in a fluid

160

Which test is used to determine the susceptibility of a microorganism to an antimicrobial?

MIC
MIB
MLB
Kirby-Bauer test

Kirby-Bauer test

161

The zone size obtained in the Kirby-Bauer test is influenced

by the drug's
size.
stability.
concentration.
All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct

162

A commercial modification of the disk diffusion test is called the

A test.
B test.
C test.
D test.
E test.

E test

163

Bacteria may become antibiotic resistant due to

drug-inactivating enzymes.
alteration in the target molecule.
decreased uptake of the drug.
increased elimination of the drug.
All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct

164

The most common method of transfer of antimicrobialresistance is through the use of

viruses.
R plasmids.
introns.
exons.

R plasmids

165

Compliance problems are leading to a large increase in antibiotic resistant strains of

Streptococcus.
Staphylococcus.
Mycobacterium.
Pseudomonas.

Mycobacterium

166

Antiviral drugs may target

uncoating.
nucleic acid synthesis.
viral assembly.
viral ribosomes.
uncoating, nucleic acid synthesis AND viral assembly.

Uncoating, nucleic acid synthesis, and viral assembly

167

The target of most antifungal drugs is

the ribosome.
nucleus.
cholesterol.
ergosterol.
cholesterol AND ergosterol.

ergosterol

168

The key characteristic of a useful antimicrobial is selective toxicity.

True
False

True

169

Antimicrobials that have a high therapeutic index are less toxic to the patient.

True
False

True

170

Broad-spectrum antibiotics have minimal effect on the normal flora.

True
False

False

171

Certain antimicrobials may be life-threatening.

True
False

True

172

Drugs that target peptidoglycan do not affect eukaryotes.

True
False

True

173

Beta-lactam drugs are only effective against growing bacteria.

True
False

True

174

The MBC may be determined by an extension of the MIC.

True
False

True

175

Antimicrobial resistance can be due to spontaneous mutation or gene acquisition.

True
False

True

176

Viruses are very effectively treated with antibiotics.

True
False

False

177

Antifungal drugs usually target the cell membrane.

True
False

True

178

Naturally acquired immunity

Acquisition of adaptive immunity through natural events

179

What does immunization do?

Mimics the events of naturally acquired immunity by inducing articially acquired immunity

180

What two subdivisions can natural or artifical immunity be divided into

Active immunity and passive immunity

181

Active immunity

Results from immune response upon exposure to an antigen and can occur either naturally following illness or artifically after immunization

182

Passive Immunity

Occurs naturally during pregnancy because the IgG from the mother cross the placenta

183

How does passive immunity occur naturally?

As a result of breast feeding. IgA antibodies in breast milk given to the child

184

What does artifical passive immunity involve?

The transfer of antibodies produced by another person or animal and can be usedto prevent disease before or after exposure

185

Attenuated vaccines

-Weakened form of pathogens and is generally unable to cause disease

186

What happens when the strain replicates in vaccine recipient (attenuated vaccines)

It causes an infection with undetectable or mild symptoms which results in long lasting immunity

187

Anthrax

-Acellular

-People in occupations that put them at risk such as military personnel

188

Advantages of attenuated vaccines

-Single dose is usually sufficient to induce long lasting immunity

-Vaccine has added potential for being spread

189

Disadvantages of attentuated vaccines

-Has potential to cause disease in immuncompromised individuals

-Pregnant women should avoid it

190

Attenuated vaccines in use include

-Sabin polio vaccine

-MMR

-Yellow fever

191

Inactivated vaccines

-Unable to replicate in vaccinated recipient

-Retains immunogenicity of infectious agent (not pathogenic)

192

What two categories do inactivated vaccines fall under?

-Whole agents and Fragments

193

Whole Agents (inactivated vaccines)

-Contain killed organisms of inactivated virus

-Does not change epitopes

-Cholera, plague, influenza, and Salk polio

194

Fragments (inactivated vaccines)

-Portions of organisms or agents including toxins, proteins, and cell wall components

-Includes toxoids, protein subunit vaccines and polysaccharide vaccines

195

Seronegative

Person not yet exposed to antigen and has no specific antibodies

196

Seropositive

Person with exposure and actively producing antibodies

197

Titer

Concentration of antibody in serum- indicates previous exposure

198

Serum

Fluid portion of the blood with no clotting factors

199

Plasma

Fluid portion of the blood with clotting factors

200

What is used to produce known antibodies?

Laboratory animals

201

How are animals used to produce known antibodies?

-Animal is immunized with antigen and produces specific antibodies

-Antibodies are retrieved by harvesting the animal's serum

202

Quantifying antigen-antibody reactions

-Concentrations of antibody are usually determined through dilution

-Antigen is added to dilution and titer is taken from last dilution to give detectable reaction

203

What do antigen-antibody complexes form?

Aggregates

204

Antigen-antibody binding can be seen in what kind of reactions

precipation and agglutination

205

Precipitation Reactions

-Antibodies binding to soluble antigen form insoluble complexes and precipiatete out of solution

206

How to achieve concentrations in precipiation reactions?

Place separate antigen and antibody suspensions side by side

207

Most widely known immunodiffusion test

ouchterlony

208

Antigen and antibody are placed in seperate wells cut in the gell and they diffuse and meet between the wells what does this form?

Line of precipiation at zone of optimal proportion

209

Radial immunodiffusion test

quantitative immodiffusion test

210

How does radial immunodiffusion test go?

-Antibody is added to liquid agar that is allowed to harden then antigen is added to the wells cut in the gel and diffuses outward forming a concentration gradient and a ring forms at antigen antibody precipiation

211

Immunoelectrophoresis

-Proteins seperated using gel electroporesis

-Antibodies are placed in wells and allowed to diffuse towards seperate proteins

-Line of precipation forms at antibody protein recognition

-Used to determind patient antibody leve;s

212

What can high levels of certain antibody classes indicate?

Disease

213

Aggulation reactions

-Large insoluble particles are involved

-Obvious aggregations are formed making them easier to see

Two types: direct and indirect

214

Direct agglutination

Specific antibody mixed with insoluble antigen and readily visible clumping indicates positive result

215

Indirect agglutination

Amplifies aggregation formation

-Antibody attaches to latex bead

-Agglutination of these beads is much easier to see

216

Using labeled antibodies to detect interactions

-Detectable markers can be attached to specfic antibodies which are marked to detect presence of given antigen

217

Which tests are included in labeled antibody detection?

-Fluorescent Antibody test(FA)

-Enzyme linked immunosorbant assay(ELISA)

-Western blotting

-Flourescence activates cell sorter )FACS)