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Exam 3

front 1

The initial work on anaphylaxis was done by

Watson and Crick.
Pasteur.
Fleming.
Richet and Portier.

back 1

Richet and Portier

front 2

If the immune system responds inadequately to antigenic stimulation, this is termed

hypersensitivity.
autoimmunity.
cell-mediated immunity.
immunodeficiency.

back 2

immunodeficiency

front 3

The immunoglobulin associated with Type I hypersensitivity is

IgG.
IgA.
IgM.
IgE.
IgD.

back 3

IgE

front 4

IgE molecules involved in hypersensitivity reactions have become attached to

neutrophils.
mast cells.
B cells.
macrophages.
mast cells AND B cells.

back 4

mast cells

front 5

To produce an allergic reaction in Type I hypersensitivity, the antigen

must bind to mast cells.
must bind to free IgE molecules.
must bind to IgE on mast cells.
must crosslink two IgE molecules on mast cells.

back 5

Must crosslink two IgE molecules on mast cells

front 6

During a Type I hypersensitivity reaction, the mast cells

become phagocytic.
release IgE antibodies.
degranulate.
immediately release histamine.
degranulate AND immediately release histamine.

back 6

degranulate and immediately release histamines

front 7

Urticaria is characterized by

living in Utica.
wheal and flare.
asthma.
inflammation.

back 7

Wheal and flare

front 8

Generalized anaphylaxis is generally characterized by

wheal and flare.
inflammation.
shock.
rash.

back 8

Shock

front 9

Most cases of generalized anaphylaxis are a result of

fire ant stings.
aspirin.
bananas.
peanuts, bee stings or penicillin injections.

back 9

peanuts, bee stings, or penicillin injections

front 10

Desensitization

stimulates an increase in IgG.
reduces the number of mast cells.
increases the number of basophil cells.
is a treatment for hypersensitivity reactions.
stimulates an increase in IgG AND is a treatment for hypersensitivity reactions.

back 10

Stimulates an increase in IgG and is a treatment for hypersensitivity reactions

front 11

The hypersensitivity treatment that stimulates an increase of IgG and T suppressor cells and a decrease in IgE is known as

desensitization.
immunity.
sensitization.
exposure.
anaphylaxis.

back 11

Desensitization

front 12

Recombinant human monoclonal antibody (rhuMAb)

appears promising as a treatment for asthma.
decreases the levels of IgG.
uses an engineered form of an IgG molecule.
promotes crosslinking between IgE molecules on the mast cells.
appears promising as a treatment for asthma AND uses an engineered form of an IgG molecule.

back 12

Appeas promising as a treatment for asthma and uses an engineered form of an IgG molecule

front 13

The type of hypersensitivity expressed with the lysing of red blood cells is

Type I.
Type II.
Type III.
Type IV.
Type V.

back 13

Type II

front 14

A transfusion reaction primarily involves

leukocytes.
phagocytes.
platelets.
erythrocytes.

back 14

erythrocytes

front 15

The natural antibodies in serum that react with A or B polysaccharide antigens are mostly of the class

IgG.
IgE.
IgM.
IgD.
IgA.

back 15

IgM

front 16

Anti-A and anti-B antibodies

are considered natural antibodies.
are present at birth.
are typically IgM.
easily cross the placenta.
are considered natural antibodies AND are typically IgM.

back 16

Are considered natural antibodies and are typically IgM

front 17

Regarding a mismatch of either the Rh antigen or the AB antigen, both

result in destruction of red blood cells.
utilize complement to destroy red blood cells.
utilize antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity to destroy the red blood cells.
result in destruction of only leukocytes.

back 17

result in destruction of red blood cells

front 18

Antibodies that have arisen in the blood plasma without any obvious or deliberate stimulus are called

natural.
acquired.
injurious.
active.

back 18

Natural

front 19

Hemolytic disease of the newborn

may not manifest itself fully until after birth.
is due to the action of IgM.
is due to the action of IgE.
is a Type I hypersensitivity reaction.
may not manifest itself fully until after birth AND is due to the action of IgE.

back 19

May not manifest itself fully until after birth

front 20

The cell type responsible for Type II hypersensitivity is the

mast cell.
B cell.
macrophage.
platelet.
neutrophils.

back 20

B cell

front 21

Immune complexes

consist of antigen-antibody bound together.
are usually cleared rapidly from the body.
bind to Fc receptors on cells.
are involved in Type III hypersensitivity reactions.
All of the choices are correct.

back 21

All of the choices are correct

front 22

Localized injury or death of tissue resulting from repeated injections of an antigen into a person with high levels of circulating specific antibody is known as

farmer's lung.
German measles.
serum sickness.
an Arthus reaction.

back 22

An Arthus reaction

front 23

Arthus reactions and serum sickness are examples of _________ hypersensitivity.

type I
type II
type III
type IV
type V

back 23

type III

front 24

Which of the following disease states is not among those caused by immune complexes?

farmer's lung
serum sickness
hay fever
glomerulonephritis

back 24

Hay fever

front 25

Delayed hypersensitivity is also known as ___________ hypersensitivity.

type I
type II
type III
type IV
type V

back 25

Type Iv

front 26

Delayed type hypersensitivity primarily involves

erythrocytes.
B cells.
T cells.
mast cells.

back 26

T cells

front 27

Type IV hypersensitivity reactions typically peak within

minutes.
hours.
12 hours.
2-3 days.

back 27

2-3 days

front 28

Which of the following is associated with contact dermatitis?

poison ivy
latex
tuberculin skin test
hay fever
poison ivy, latex AND tuberculin skin test

back 28

Posion ivy, latex and tuberculin skin test

front 29

The redness and induration found after a tuberculin skin test

involve the action of
sensitized T cells.
IgE.
complement.
basophil cells.

back 29

Sensitized T cells

front 30

Patch tests are used to detect

hives.
serum sickness.
immune complexes.
contact hypersensitivity.

back 30

Contact hypersensitivity

front 31

Which of the following have been an effective immunosuppressant for use in transplantation?

amphotericin B and cyclosporin A
FK506 and cephalosporin
cyclosporin A and tacrolimus
cephalosporin and amphotericin B
FK506 and amphotericin B

back 31

cyclosporin A and tacrolimus

front 32

Graft-versus-host disease is primarily a

Type I reaction.
Type II reaction.
Type III reaction.
Type IV reaction.
Type V reaction.

back 32

Type IV reaction

front 33

The tissue antigens most involved in graft rejection involve

Rh.
ABO.
MHC.
MLB.

back 33

MHC

front 34

Killing of graft cells occurs through a complex series of mechanisms including

sensitized T cytotoxic cells.
NK cells.
erythrocytic cells.
basophilic cells.
sensitized T cytotoxic cells AND NK cells.

back 34

sensitized Tcytotoxic cells and NK cells

front 35

Cyclosporin A

is a relatively general immunosuppressive agent.
suppresses T cell proliferation.
activates macrophages.
stimulates antibody production.
is a relatively general immunosuppressive agent AND suppresses T cell proliferation.

back 35

Supresses T cell proliferation

front 36

Allografts

are normally rejected within hours.
are normally rejected within 10-14 days.
are grafts between non-identical members of the same species.
would include the fetus.
are normally rejected within 10-14 days, are grafts between non-identical members of the same species AND would include the fetus.

back 36

Are normally rejected within 10-14 days, are grafts between non-identical members of the same species AND would include the fetus

front 37

Immunologically privileged sites include the

brain.
eyes.
testes.
kidney.
brain, eyes AND testes.

back 37

brain, eyes, and testes

front 38

The fetus is not rejected because

it is too small.
it is in an immunologically privileged site.
the father is immunosuppressed.
it has no antigens.
it is in an immunologically privileged site AND the father is immunosuppressed.

back 38

It is an immunologically privileged site

front 39

Which of the following primary immunodeficiencies is the most common?

severe combined immunodeficiency
selective IgA deficiency
agammaglobulinemia
Di George's syndrome

back 39

Selectove IgA deficiency

front 40

If the thymus fails to develop

functional T cells are absent.
functional B cells are absent.
Di George's syndrome exists.
complement deficiencies exist.
functional T cells are absent AND Di George's syndrome exists.

back 40

Functional T cells are absent and Di George's syndome exists

front 41

If a patient lacks B cells, the resulting disease is

SCID.
AIDS.
Di George's syndrome.
agammaglobulinemia.

back 41

Agammaglobulinemia

front 42

Defects in bone marrow stem cells result in a condition known as

SCID.
AIDS.
Di George's syndrome.
Chediak-Higashi disease.

back 42

SCID

front 43

A defect in which of the following systems leads to granulomatous disease?

lymphatic system
circulatory system
oxidase system
Golgi system

back 43

Oxidase system

front 44

The condition that results from ineffective digestion after phagocytosis is

AIDS.
Chediak-Higashi disease.
Di George's syndrome.
agammaglobulinemia.

back 44

Chediak-Higashi disease

front 45

Secondary immunodeficiency disease is not the result of

genetic defects.
malignancies.
advanced age.
malnutrition.

back 45

genetic defects

front 46

HIV

appears to cause AIDS.
is an RNA virus.
destroys T helper cells.
makes the patient vulnerable to infections, especially those caused by opportunists.
All of the choices are correct.

back 46

All choices are correct

front 47

If the body recognizes parts of itself as being foreign, this is termed

immunodeficiency disease.
agammaglobulinemia.
autoimmune disease.
AIDS.

back 47

autoimmune disease

front 48

Myasthenia gravis is an example of an autoimmune disease that involves

sensitized T cells.
cytotoxic T cells.
antibodies.
IgD.

back 48

Antibodies

front 49

Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus is an example of an

autoimmune disease that involves
sensitized T cells.
cytotoxic T cells.
antibodies.
IgD.

back 49

cytotoxic T cells

front 50

Stem cells

have an almost unlimited capacity to divide.
can differentiate into different tissues.
may be used to test the effects of drugs on human cells.
come from fetal material.
All of the above

back 50

All of the above

front 51

First exposure to an allergen results in a violent hypersensitivity reaction.

True
False

back 51

False

front 52

Anaphylaxis is the name given to allergic reactions caused by IgE-mediated release of mast cell granules.

True
False

back 52

True

front 53

Generalized anaphylaxis may be quickly controlled with the use of antihistamines.

True
False

back 53

False

front 54

Allergic rhinitis and hives may both respond to antihistamines.

True
False

back 54

True

front 55

Type O blood is missing both anti-A and anti-B antibodies.

True
False

back 55

True

front 56

Anti-A and anti-B antibodies are natural antibodies and are present at birth.

True
False

back 56

False

front 57

Mismatch of either the Rh antigen or the AB antigen results in lysis of red blood cells by complement.

True
False

back 57

False

front 58

Anti-Rh antibodies may not cross the placenta.

True
False

back 58

False

front 59

MHC plays a pivotal role in transplant rejection.

True
False

back 59

True

front 60

A lack of T cells makes one more vulnerable to intracellular parasites.

True
False

back 60

True

front 61

The idea that communicable diseases were caused by the passage of living things from one person to another was first put forth by

Fracastorius.
Pasteur.
Thucydides.
Leeuwenhoek.

back 61

Fracastorius

front 62

The connection between a particular organism and a specific disease was first made by
Fracastorius.
Pasteur.
Koch.
Leeuwenhoek.

back 62

Koch

front 63

The series of steps used to connect an organism to a disease are known as

Pasteur's postulates.
Lister's aseptics.
Linnaeus taxonomics.
Koch's postulates.

back 63

Koch's postulates

front 64

The interaction of all organisms within a biological community is called a(n)

dialogue.
chat room.
ecosystem.
relationship.

back 64

Ecosystem

front 65

The microorganisms that are regularly found in or on the body, yet do no apparent harm are called

abnormal flora.
transient flora.
variant flora.
normal flora.

back 65

Normal flora

front 66

The microorganisms that are occasionally found in or on the body are called

abnormal flora.
transient flora.
variant flora.
normal flora.

back 66

Transient flora

front 67

Organisms that are found together and interact on a more or less permanent basis are in a relationship termed

mutualism.
parasitism.
symbiosis.
transient flora.

back 67

symbiosis

front 68

The symbiotic relationship wherein both partners benefit is termed

commensalism.
parasitism.
independence.
mutualism.

back 68

Mutualism

front 69

A relationship in which one partner benefits and the other is unaffected is termed

commensalism.
parasitism.
independence.
mutualism.

back 69

commensalism

front 70

A relationship in which one partner benefits and the other is harmed is termed

commensalism.
parasitism.
independence.
mutualism.

back 70

parasitism

front 71

The resident microbial population of the human fetus is

zero.
sparse.
complex.
symbiotic.

back 71

Zero

front 72

Which of the following is true about the role normal flora plays in maintaining host health?

They provide a surface that is incompatible for attachment of an invader.
They establish competition for nutrients and vitamins.
They produce antimicrobial substances.
They stimulate the immune system.
All of the choices are true.

back 72

All choices are true

front 73

Which of the following members of the normal flora inhibit the growth of Candida albicans?

E. coli.
Lactobacillus species.
Staphylococci species.
Propionibacterium species.

back 73

Lactobacillus species

front 74

The composition of the normal flora may be affected by

hormonal changes.
use of antibiotics.
obesity level.
diet.
All of the choices are correct.

back 74

All of the answers are correct

front 75

The "hygiene hypothesis" proposes that

lack of exposure to microbes can promote development of allergies.
cleanliness truly is next to godliness.
hand washing is the best preventative measure against infection.
the immune system develops best in a clean environment.

back 75

Lack of exposure to microbes can promote develpment of allergies

front 76

The infectious dose

is the same for all microorganisms.
may be 10-100 cells for Salmonella.
is expressed as ID50.
is defined as the number of microbes necessary to ensure infection.
is expressed as ID50 AND is defined as the number of microbes necessary to ensure infection.

back 76

Is expressed as ID50 AND is defined as the number of microbes necessary to ensure infection

front 77

The number of organisms necessary to insure infection is termed the

infectious dose.
fatal number.
minimum lethal dose.
pathogenic number.

back 77

Infectious dose

front 78

A disease-causing microorganism or virus is referred to as a(n)

avirulent infection.
colony.
commensal.
pathogen.

back 78

Pathogen

front 79

Opportunists or opportunistic pathogens

are usually saprophytes.
take advantage of special circumstances.
are usually mutualistic.
always cause disease.

back 79

Take advantage of special circumstances

front 80

The suffix -emia means in the

body.
lymph.
interstitial tissue.
blood.

back 80

Blood

front 81

Attributes

of an organism that promote pathogenicity are called
disease factors.
colonization factors.
mutualistic.
virulence factors.

back 81

Virulence factors

front 82

Avirulent organisms are

more likely to cause disease.
more likely to cause severe disease.
unable to cause disease.
pathogenic.

back 82

Unable to cause disease

front 83

Which of the following may be considered virulence factor(s)?

adhesins
capsules
endotoxins
proteases
All of the choices are correct.

back 83

All of the choices are correct

front 84

Which of the following does S. pneumoniae use to survive in the host?

plasmids
pili
flagella
capsules

back 84

capsules

front 85

Which of the following would be considered a sign of a disease?

headache
pain
nausea
fever of 39°C

back 85

Fever at 39 degrees C

front 86

People who carry and may spread pathogenic organisms without any overt symptoms of illness are called

primary infections.
secondary infections.
mutualists.
carriers.

back 86

carriers

front 87

The spread of toxin via circulation is called

septicemia.
bacteremia.
sepsis.
toxemia.

back 87

toxemia

front 88

A more modern equivalent to Koch's Postulates is termed

Pasteur's Systematics.
Hoch's Postulates.
Atomic Theory.
Protein Theory.
Molecular Postulates.

back 88

Molecular Postulates

front 89

Species of both Shigella and Streptococcus

invade host cells.
produce a toxin.
cause ergot poisoning.
are delivered via flea bites.
invade host cells AND produce a toxin.

back 89

invade host cells AND produce a toxin

front 90

Which of the following causes a foodborne intoxication?

Staphylococcus aureus
E. coli O157:H7
Clostridium botulinum
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Staphylococcus aureus, E. coli O157:H7 AND Clostridium botulinum

back 90

Stapholococcus aureus, E. coli, O157:H7 and clostridium

front 91

Adhesins are

involved in the first step of the infectious process.
often found at the tip of pili.
found in flagella.
endotoxins.
involved in the first step of the infectious process AND often found at the tip of pili.

back 91

involved in the first step of the infecious process and found at the tip of the pili

front 92

The first step in the establishment of infection is that the organism must

invade host tissues.
attach to host cells.
evade phagocytes.
produce toxins.

back 92

attach to host cells

front 93

Which of the following factors is not considered important for the establishment of an infection?

adherence
dose
toxicity
virulence factors

back 93

toxicity

front 94

Typically, adhesins

are found on pili.
help bacteria attach to host cells.
are proteins.
are found on host cells.
are found on pili, help bacteria attach to host cells AND are proteins.

back 94

Are found on pili, help bacteria attach to hosts and are proteins

front 95

The lack of susceptibility to diseases of other species in humans may be due to the

secretion of exotoxins.
presence of endotoxins.
action of IL-2.
lack of receptors that are recognized by adherence factors.

back 95

lack of receptors that are recognized by adherence factos

front 96

An example of genetic variation used in pathogen survival may be

production of a comet's tail.
protease production.
inhibition of MHC Class I antigen production.
changing the pilus type.
production of a comet's tail AND protease production.

back 96

changing the pilus type

front 97

Colonization of the body is inhibited by

the shedding of skin cells.
the movement of mucus by cilia.
peristalsis.
the flushing action of the urinary tract.
All of the choices are correct.

back 97

All of the choices are correct

front 98

The process by which infectious agents are ingested by host cells is termed

exocytosis.
pinocytosis.
endocytosis.
phagosome fusion.

back 98

endocytosis

front 99

Bacteria that resist killing by complement proteins are termed

carriers.
serum resistant.
balanced pathogens.
mutualistic.
carriers AND serum resistant.

back 99

serum resistant

front 100

C5a peptidase

is a virulence factor.
synthesizes C5a.
is produced by the host cell in response to infection.
is a molecule promoting chemotaxis.
is a virulence factor AND is a molecule promoting chemotaxis.

back 100

is a virulence factor

front 101

Bacteria may survive phagocytosis by

preventing fusion of the lysosome with the phagosome.
lysing the phagosome.
producing comet tails.
preventing fusion of two phagosomes.
preventing fusion of the lysosome with the phagosome AND lysing the phagosome.

back 101

preventing fusion of the lysosome with the phagosome and lysing the phagosome

front 102

The chemical nature of endotoxins is that of a

protein.
nucleic acid.
lipid.
lipopolysaccharide.

back 102

lipopolysaccharide

front 103

The chemical nature of exotoxins is that of a

protein.
carbohydrate.
lipid.
lipopolysaccharide.

back 103

protein

front 104

Which is true about superantigens?

They are a type of exotoxin.
They bind to MHC class II antigen on T cells.
They enhance specific antibody production.
They are processed intracellularly.
They are a type of exotoxin AND they bind to MHC class II antigen on T cells.

back 104

They are a type of exotoxin and they bind to MHC class II antigen on T cells

front 105

Which is true about botox?

It is an endotoxin.
It is produced by S. aureus.
It may cause botulism.
It is useful in treating conditions related to muscle contractions.
It may cause botulism AND it is useful in treating conditions related to muscle contractions.

back 105

It may cause botulism and it is useful in treating conditions related to muscle contractions

front 106

Which of the following is/are true about endotoxins?

Lipid A is the toxic portion of the molecule.
The toxic effects depend on the bacteria from which it came.
The lipid A is immunogenic.
They are proteins.
The toxic effects depend on the bacteria from which it came AND they are proteins.

back 106

Lipid A is the toxic portion of the molecule

front 107

Which is/are true of viruses?

They may suppress the production of MHC Class I protein.
They may produce an MHC Class I mimic protein.
They may prevent cell suicide.
They may bind to MHC class II antigens.
They may suppress the production of MHC Class I protein, they may produce an MHC Class I mimic protein AND they may prevent cell suicide

back 107

They may supress the production of MHC class I protein, they may produce an MHC class I mimic protein AND they may prevent cell suicide

front 108

Disease(s) in which the causative agent becomes latent is/are

cold sores.
genital herpes.
typhus.
shingles.
All of the choices are correct.

back 108

All of the choices are correct

front 109

The damage caused by parasites may be due to

competition for nutrients.
the physical blocking of organs.
the direct digestion of host tissue.
the host's immune response.
All of the choices are correct.

back 109

All of the choices are correct

front 110

The most successful parasites are the ones that live in harmony with their hosts.

True
False

back 110

True

front 111

A human fetus has no resident microbial population.

True
False

back 111

True

front 112

Infection always leads to disease.

True
False

back 112

False

front 113

A disease is an infection that impairs the normal state of health.

True
False

back 113

True

front 114

Obligate intracellular parasites may be grown in special synthetic media.

True
False

back 114

False

front 115

During incubation and convalescence a person may still spread infectious organisms.

True
False

back 115

True

front 116

The infectious dose of most pathogens is about equal.

True
False

back 116

False

front 117

A strong attachment of a microorganism to a host cell automatically leads to disease.

True
False

back 117

False

front 118

High concentrations of some bacteria are necessary for successful invasion because only at high density are their virulence genes expressed.

True
False

back 118

True

front 119

Only Gram-positive bacteria produce exotoxins.

True
False

back 119

False

front 120

One of the earliest researchers to explore the use of chemicals to kill microbial pathogens was

Koch.
Hooke.
Fleming.
Ehrlich.

back 120

Ehrlich

front 121

The arsenic compound that proved highly effective in treating syphilis was called

penicillin.
sulfa.
erythromycin.
Salvarsan.

back 121

Salvarsan

front 122

The first example of an antimicrobial drug synthesized in the laboratory was

penicillin.
sulfa.
erythromycin.
Salvarsan.

back 122

Salvarsan

front 123

Prontosil effectively acted on streptococci when the drug was split by enzymes to produce

penicillin.
sulfanilamide.
erythromycin.
Salvarsan.

back 123

Sulfanilamide

front 124

The use of Salvarsan and Prontosil to treat microbial infections were early examples of

antibiotics.
toxins.
inhibitors.
chemotherapy.

back 124

Chemotherapy

front 125

Penicillin was discovered by

Koch.
Hooke.
Fleming.
Ehrlich.

back 125

Fleming

front 126

The most effective form of penicillin is

A.
B.
E.
G.

back 126

G

front 127

One of the earliest antimicrobials isolated from a bacterium was

penicillin.
ampicillin.
Salvarsan.
streptomycin.

back 127

Streptomycin

front 128

Which of the following groups of microorganisms produces antibiotics?

Penicillium
Streptomyces
Bacillus
All of the choices are correct.
Penicillium AND Streptomyces

back 128

All of the choices are correct

front 129

An antibiotic made by microorganisms and modified by chemists is called

anti-metabolic.
catabolic.
synthetic.
semi-synthetic.

back 129

Semi synthetic

front 130

The antimicrobials produced by some molds and bacteria are generally called

insecticides.
biocides.
antiseptics.
antibiotics.

back 130

antibiotics

front 131

The toxicity of a given drug is expressed as the

selective toxicity.
biocide index.
biostatic index.
therapeutic index.

back 131

Therapeutic index

front 132

A high therapeutic index is

more toxic to the patient.
less toxic to the patient.
has no effect on the patient.
has no effect on the pathogen.

back 132

Less toxic to the patient

front 133

Drugs that are bacteriostatic

kill bacteria.
promote bacterial growth.
inactivate bacterial spores.
inhibit the growth of bacteria.

back 133

inhibit the growth of bacteria

front 134

Antimicrobials that kill microorganisms have the suffix

-cidal.
-static.
-anti.
-genic.

back 134

-cidal

front 135

Antimicrobials that inhibit the growth of microorganisms have the suffix

-cidal.
-static.
-anti.
-genic.

back 135

Static

front 136

Antibiotics that affect various strains of Gram-positive bacteria and various strains of Gram-negative bacteria are called

isolate usable.
stress-induced.
narrow-spectrum.
broad-spectrum.

back 136

Broad spectrum

front 137

The rate of elimination of an antimicrobial is expressed as its

metabolic destructive rate.
half-life.
effective time.
dosage rate.

back 137

half life

front 138

Antibiotics that are most likely to disrupt the normal flora are termed

narrow-spectrum.
broad-spectrum.
targeted spectrum.

back 138

broad spectrum

front 139

Drugs that are more effective when taken together are called

energetic.
antagonistic.
subtractive.
synergistic.

back 139

synergistic

front 140

If drugs are less effective when taken together than when each is taken separately, they are called

energetic.
antagonistic.
additive.
synergistic.

back 140

antagonistic

front 141

Antimicrobials may produce

allergic reactions.
toxic effects.
suppression of normal flora.
All of the choices are correct.

back 141

All of the choices are correct

front 142

Which of the following bacteria have an innate resistance to penicillin?

S. aureus
S. epidermidis
M. luteus
Mycoplasma

back 142

Myoplasma

front 143

Which of the following drugs target peptidoglycan?

penicillin
cephalosporin
vancomycin
bacitracin
All of the choices are correct.

back 143

All of the choices are correct

front 144

All members of the penicillin family have

beta-lactam rings.
alpha-lactam rings.
phenolic rings.
sulfanilic rings.

back 144

beta- lactam rings

front 145

Penicillin-binding proteins

primarily function in the cell to bind to beta-lactam drugs.
are enzymes.
are involved in cell wall synthesis.
inhibit non-growing bacteria.
are enzymes AND are involved in cell wall synthesis.

back 145

Are enzymes and are involved in the cell wall synthesis

front 146

Beta-lactamases

bind to penicillin-binding proteins.
bind to peptides.
prevent the linking of glycan chains in peptidoglycan.
break the beta-lactam ring.

back 146

break the beta-lactam ring

front 147

The major class(es) of antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis is/are

aminoglycosides.
tetracyclines.
macrolides.
bacitracins.
→ aminoglycosides, tetracyclines AND macrolides.

back 147

aminogylcosides, tetracyclines and macrolides

front 148

Inhibitors of protein synthesis typically key on

peptidoglycan precursors.
penicillin-binding proteins.
ribosomes.
porin proteins.

back 148

ribosomes

front 149

Which is true of aminoglycosides?

They are bacteriostatic.
They irreversibly bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit.
They block peptidoglycan synthesis.
They are bactericidal.
They irreversibly bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit AND they are bactericidal.

back 149

They irreversible bind the 30S ribosomal subunit and they are bactericidal

front 150

Fluoroquinolones typically target

ribosomes.
penicillin-binding proteins.
peptidoglycan.
DNA gyrase.

back 150

DNA gyrase

front 151

Sulfonamide and trimethoprim are both

examples of metabolic inhibitors.
folate inhibitors.
protein synthesis inhibitors.
inhibitors of cell wall synthesis.
examples of metabolic inhibitors AND folate inhibitors.

back 151

exampes of metabolic inhibitors and folate inhibitors

front 152

Folic acid is ultimately used in the synthesis of

topoisomerases.
proteins.
DNA gyrases.
sulfonamides.
coenzymes.

back 152

coenzymes

front 153

Sulfonamides are similar in structure to

DNA gyrases.
LPS.
ribosomes.
PABA.

back 153

PABA

front 154

Sulfonamides work as

competitive inhibitors.
noncompetitive inhibitors.
ribosome-binding molecules.
feedback inhibitors.

back 154

Competitive inhibitors

front 155

Trimethoprim and sulfonamides have a(n)

antagonistic effect.
synergistic effect.
energetic effect.
subtractive.

back 155

synergistic effect

front 156

Mycolic acids are targeted by isoniazid in the treatment of

S. aureus.
S. epidermidis.
M. luteus.
M. tuberculosis.

back 156

M tuberculosis

front 157

The lowest concentration of a drug that prevents growth of a microorganism is the

infectious dose.
lethal dose.
effective dose.
minimum inhibitory concentration.

back 157

minimum inhibitory concentration

front 158

The minimum bactericidal concentration is the lowest concentration of a specific antimicrobial drug that kills _______ of a specific type of bacteria.

10%
50%
99.9%
100%

back 158

99.9%

front 159

The diffusion bioassay

determines the concentration of antimicrobial necessary to kill a bacteria.
determines the concentration of antimicrobial necessary to inhibit growth of a bacteria.
is similar in principal to the Kirby-Bauer test.
determines the concentration of antimicrobial in a fluid.
is similar in principal to the Kirby-Bauer test AND determines the concentration of antimicrobial in a fluid.

back 159

Is similar in principal to the Kirby Bauer test and determines the concentration of antimicrobial in a fluid

front 160

Which test is used to determine the susceptibility of a microorganism to an antimicrobial?

MIC
MIB
MLB
Kirby-Bauer test

back 160

Kirby-Bauer test

front 161

The zone size obtained in the Kirby-Bauer test is influenced

by the drug's
size.
stability.
concentration.
All of the choices are correct.

back 161

All of the choices are correct

front 162

A commercial modification of the disk diffusion test is called the

A test.
B test.
C test.
D test.
E test.

back 162

E test

front 163

Bacteria may become antibiotic resistant due to

drug-inactivating enzymes.
alteration in the target molecule.
decreased uptake of the drug.
increased elimination of the drug.
All of the choices are correct.

back 163

All of the choices are correct

front 164

The most common method of transfer of antimicrobialresistance is through the use of

viruses.
R plasmids.
introns.
exons.

back 164

R plasmids

front 165

Compliance problems are leading to a large increase in antibiotic resistant strains of

Streptococcus.
Staphylococcus.
Mycobacterium.
Pseudomonas.

back 165

Mycobacterium

front 166

Antiviral drugs may target

uncoating.
nucleic acid synthesis.
viral assembly.
viral ribosomes.
uncoating, nucleic acid synthesis AND viral assembly.

back 166

Uncoating, nucleic acid synthesis, and viral assembly

front 167

The target of most antifungal drugs is

the ribosome.
nucleus.
cholesterol.
ergosterol.
cholesterol AND ergosterol.

back 167

ergosterol

front 168

The key characteristic of a useful antimicrobial is selective toxicity.

True
False

back 168

True

front 169

Antimicrobials that have a high therapeutic index are less toxic to the patient.

True
False

back 169

True

front 170

Broad-spectrum antibiotics have minimal effect on the normal flora.

True
False

back 170

False

front 171

Certain antimicrobials may be life-threatening.

True
False

back 171

True

front 172

Drugs that target peptidoglycan do not affect eukaryotes.

True
False

back 172

True

front 173

Beta-lactam drugs are only effective against growing bacteria.

True
False

back 173

True

front 174

The MBC may be determined by an extension of the MIC.

True
False

back 174

True

front 175

Antimicrobial resistance can be due to spontaneous mutation or gene acquisition.

True
False

back 175

True

front 176

Viruses are very effectively treated with antibiotics.

True
False

back 176

False

front 177

Antifungal drugs usually target the cell membrane.

True
False

back 177

True

front 178

Naturally acquired immunity

back 178

Acquisition of adaptive immunity through natural events

front 179

What does immunization do?

back 179

Mimics the events of naturally acquired immunity by inducing articially acquired immunity

front 180

What two subdivisions can natural or artifical immunity be divided into

back 180

Active immunity and passive immunity

front 181

Active immunity

back 181

Results from immune response upon exposure to an antigen and can occur either naturally following illness or artifically after immunization

front 182

Passive Immunity

back 182

Occurs naturally during pregnancy because the IgG from the mother cross the placenta

front 183

How does passive immunity occur naturally?

back 183

As a result of breast feeding. IgA antibodies in breast milk given to the child

front 184

What does artifical passive immunity involve?

back 184

The transfer of antibodies produced by another person or animal and can be usedto prevent disease before or after exposure

front 185

Attenuated vaccines

back 185

-Weakened form of pathogens and is generally unable to cause disease

front 186

What happens when the strain replicates in vaccine recipient (attenuated vaccines)

back 186

It causes an infection with undetectable or mild symptoms which results in long lasting immunity

front 187

Anthrax

back 187

-Acellular

-People in occupations that put them at risk such as military personnel

front 188

Advantages of attenuated vaccines

back 188

-Single dose is usually sufficient to induce long lasting immunity

-Vaccine has added potential for being spread

front 189

Disadvantages of attentuated vaccines

back 189

-Has potential to cause disease in immuncompromised individuals

-Pregnant women should avoid it

front 190

Attenuated vaccines in use include

back 190

-Sabin polio vaccine

-MMR

-Yellow fever

front 191

Inactivated vaccines

back 191

-Unable to replicate in vaccinated recipient

-Retains immunogenicity of infectious agent (not pathogenic)

front 192

What two categories do inactivated vaccines fall under?

back 192

-Whole agents and Fragments

front 193

Whole Agents (inactivated vaccines)

back 193

-Contain killed organisms of inactivated virus

-Does not change epitopes

-Cholera, plague, influenza, and Salk polio

front 194

Fragments (inactivated vaccines)

back 194

-Portions of organisms or agents including toxins, proteins, and cell wall components

-Includes toxoids, protein subunit vaccines and polysaccharide vaccines

front 195

Seronegative

back 195

Person not yet exposed to antigen and has no specific antibodies

front 196

Seropositive

back 196

Person with exposure and actively producing antibodies

front 197

Titer

back 197

Concentration of antibody in serum- indicates previous exposure

front 198

Serum

back 198

Fluid portion of the blood with no clotting factors

front 199

Plasma

back 199

Fluid portion of the blood with clotting factors

front 200

What is used to produce known antibodies?

back 200

Laboratory animals

front 201

How are animals used to produce known antibodies?

back 201

-Animal is immunized with antigen and produces specific antibodies

-Antibodies are retrieved by harvesting the animal's serum

front 202

Quantifying antigen-antibody reactions

back 202

-Concentrations of antibody are usually determined through dilution

-Antigen is added to dilution and titer is taken from last dilution to give detectable reaction

front 203

What do antigen-antibody complexes form?

back 203

Aggregates

front 204

Antigen-antibody binding can be seen in what kind of reactions

back 204

precipation and agglutination

front 205

Precipitation Reactions

back 205

-Antibodies binding to soluble antigen form insoluble complexes and precipiatete out of solution

front 206

How to achieve concentrations in precipiation reactions?

back 206

Place separate antigen and antibody suspensions side by side

front 207

Most widely known immunodiffusion test

back 207

ouchterlony

front 208

Antigen and antibody are placed in seperate wells cut in the gell and they diffuse and meet between the wells what does this form?

back 208

Line of precipiation at zone of optimal proportion

front 209

Radial immunodiffusion test

back 209

quantitative immodiffusion test

front 210

How does radial immunodiffusion test go?

back 210

-Antibody is added to liquid agar that is allowed to harden then antigen is added to the wells cut in the gel and diffuses outward forming a concentration gradient and a ring forms at antigen antibody precipiation

front 211

Immunoelectrophoresis

back 211

-Proteins seperated using gel electroporesis

-Antibodies are placed in wells and allowed to diffuse towards seperate proteins

-Line of precipation forms at antibody protein recognition

-Used to determind patient antibody leve;s

front 212

What can high levels of certain antibody classes indicate?

back 212

Disease

front 213

Aggulation reactions

back 213

-Large insoluble particles are involved

-Obvious aggregations are formed making them easier to see

Two types: direct and indirect

front 214

Direct agglutination

back 214

Specific antibody mixed with insoluble antigen and readily visible clumping indicates positive result

front 215

Indirect agglutination

back 215

Amplifies aggregation formation

-Antibody attaches to latex bead

-Agglutination of these beads is much easier to see

front 216

Using labeled antibodies to detect interactions

back 216

-Detectable markers can be attached to specfic antibodies which are marked to detect presence of given antigen

front 217

Which tests are included in labeled antibody detection?

back 217

-Fluorescent Antibody test(FA)

-Enzyme linked immunosorbant assay(ELISA)

-Western blotting

-Flourescence activates cell sorter )FACS)