Human Anatomy & Physiology: AP II Final exam summer 2015 Flashcards


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Human Anatomy & Physiology
Chapters 17, 20-22, 25
updated 8 years ago by salinadanley7
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anatomy & physiology 2, education, teaching methods & materials, science & technology, medical, anatomy, physiology
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1

The thymus is most active during _____ ?

Childhood

2

The Lymphatic capillaries are _______ .

more permeable than blood capillaries

3

Antibodies that act against a particular foreign substance are released by ___

plasma cells

4

Which cells become immunocompetent due to thymic hormones?

lymphocytes

5

Which of the following is characteristic of antibodies?

composed of heavy and light polypeptide chains

6

Which of the following is associated with passive immunity?

passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus

7

B lymphocytes develop immunocompetence in the _____ ?

Bone Marrow

8

Which of the following is NOT a type of T Cell?

antigenic

9

Which of the following is NOT a function of the inflammatory response?

replaces injured tissue with connective tissue

10

The redness and heat of an inflamed area are due to a local hyperemia caused by _____ ?

Vasodialation

11

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in phagocytosis?

chemotaxis, adherence, ingestion, digestion, killing

12

Interferons _______.

interfere with viral replication within cells

13

Select the correct definition about tissue grafts.

Isografts are between identical twins

14

Which of the statements below does NOT describe antigens?

Antigens only come from microbes

15

Which of the following is a part of the second line of defense against microorganisms?

phagocytes

16

Which of the following is characteristic of complete antigens?

reactivity with an antibody

17

The process whereby neutrophils and other white blood cells are attracted to an inflammatory site is called ____ .

Chemotaxis

18

John is a 28 year old male who has an elevated white blood cell count after running. The elevated count is most likely due to .....

An increased neutrophil count

19

Jane is infected with a parasitic infection. Her _______ count may elevate in response to this infection.

Eosinophil Count

20

An increase in the number of white blood cells due to an increase in basophils is _______.

Leukocytosis with a basophilia

21

The cell that produces the granulocytes is a

Myeloblast

22

The most likely first cellular responder in a primary bacterial infection would be

Neutrophil

23

An obstruction of the _________ could cause major swelling (edema) in 75% of the body.

Thoracic Duct

24

The ______ is a primary lymphoid organ.

Thymus

25

A white blood cell is termed that because it _____ .

None of the above

26

One function NOT of the lymphatic system is to ________ .

Carry proteins to the bloodstream after absorption from the gastrointestinal tract

27

The compliment cascade is in the _____________ line of defense, and to get the full effect ________ must be split.

Second, C3

28

Macrophages were once

Monocytes

29

A NK cell is a type of

Lymphocyte

30

A COX inhibitor is a ____________ and blocks the formation of certain ______ .

Non-steroidal Anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), Eicosanoids

31

Once a _____ infected cell produces and secretes interferons - they provide some protection for neighboring cells that receive the interferons against ____ .

None Of The Above

32

The adaptive immune system

Is Systemic, Is specific

33

The antibody involved in ABO incompatibility is _____ .

IgM

34

If an antigen is presented to the T cell or B cell system for the first time (primary response) the defense actions that occur

Lag time differs between T cell system and B cell system

35

The response of the compliment system

Can work independent of antibody activation

36

Jane is a 27 year old female who presents complaining of a fever. After performing a history and physical examination, I order lab tests.

The First test I would most likely order is a ______ ?

CBC

37

Importantly regarding a fever - the results of the test in question 36 shows a ______ .

Leukocytosis

38

I ask for (if not already on the lab test ordered in question 36) a ______.

Differential Count

39

The results (of my requested lab in question 38) show an elevated _____ count with a shift to the left.

Neutrophil

40

This finding in question 39 suggests most likely a possible ______ infection.

Bacterial

41

Betty presents with venereal disease for which the treatment is a penicillin injection. Betty has a reaction to the penicillin within a few minutes. This is an example of a Type _____ hypersensitivity reaction that involves the improper mobilization of _______.

Type I, IgE

42

Candace unfortunately touches poison ivy. She probably will not see the rash till _____ and the rash is a type _______ hypersensitivity reaction caused by ________ .

3-4 days, IV, the T-cell system

43

The most active cells that present to a T-helper cell are

Dendritic cells

44

The best second line of defense for cancer cells is

NK cells

45

One difference between the B-cell system and the T-cell system is that B-cells produce antibodies which react with _______ antigens and the T-cell system reacts to ______ antigens.

Extracellular , intracellular

46

Mast cells and basophils can produce

Histamine

47

_________ decreases the start of inflammation and __________ helps reduce the signs and symptoms of inflammation after it has occurred.

Cold compress and /or an antihistamine, heat and/or some local vasodilator

48

A partial antigen

has reactivity

49

The most likely reason a plastic or metal prosthetic device does not generally activate the immune system is

the antigenic determinants are so uniform (little diversity)

50

The T-cell receptor and the Cell Determinant 4 (CD4) surface markers are

Different surface markers on the T-helper cell

51

What is the average normal pH range of blood?

7.35 - 7.45

52

Which of the choices below is the parent cell for all formed elements of blood?

pluripotent stem cell (hemocytoblast)

53

Which of the following might trigger erythropoiesis?

hypoxia of EPO-producing cells

54

When neither anti-A sera nor anti-B sera clot on a blood plate with donor blood, the blood is type ____ ?

Type O

55

Which of the following is NOT a phase of hemostasis?

Fibrinolysis

56

A lack of intrinsic factor, leading to a deficiency of vitamin B12 and large pale cells called macrocytes, is characteristic of _______ .

Pernicious Anemia

57

James has a hemoglobin measurement of 16g/100 ml blood. This is ____

within normal range

58

Which of the events below does NOT occur when the semilunar valves are open?

Ventricles are in diastole

59

The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall in order to ______ .

pump blood with greater pressure

60

Hemorrhage with a large loss of blood causes ______ .

A lowering of blood pressure due to change in cardiac output

61

Small muscle masses attached to the chordae tendineae are the

Papillary muscles

62

The source of blood carried to capillaries in the myocardium would be the

Coronary arteries

63

The arteries that are also called distributing arteries are the _____ .

muscular arteries

64

Aldosterone will ______ .

promote an increase in blood pressure

65

Which of the following is a type of circulatory shock?

Vascular, due to extreme vasodilation as a result of loss of vasomotor tone

66

Which of the choices below does NOT involve tissue perfusion?

Blood Clotting

67

The arteries that directly feed into the capillary beds are called _____ .

Arterioles

68

Factors that aid venous return include all EXCEPT _______ .

urinary output

69

Select the correct statement about factors that influence blood pressure.

Excess red cell production would cause a blood pressure increase

70

The velocity of blood flow is ______

slowest in the capillaries because the total cross - sectional area is the greatest

71

The Partial Thromboplastin Time measures _____

the intrinsic pathway

72

Serum is plasma ____

minus the clotting factors

73

Factor XII is found in the

Intrinsic pathway

74

Heparin _____

prevents new clots

75

The hearts point of maximum impulse is generally found ____

at the 5th intercostal space and midclavicular line

76

An example of a negative inotropic agent is _____

calcium channel blocker

77

The cardiac inhibitory center primarily functions using the

parasympathetic nervous system

78

The QRS complex on an EKG tracing represents _____

Ventricular Depolarization

79

Aerobic Exercise is known to ______

Increase the HDL level

80

LDL (Low Density Lipoprotein)

Primarily carries Cholesterol away from the liver

81

The vasoconstrictor center functions primarily through the

sympathetic nervous system

82

One compensatory mechanism for gram negative shock is

Increased heart rate

83

The T wave on an EKG tracing represents

Ventricular repolarization

84

The First heart sound is in part due to:

closure of the mitral valve

85

The splitting of the second heart sound decreases when:

Breathing Out (exhalation)

86

If the left lateral surface of the left ventricle became ischemic there would be some degree of blockage in the :

anterior interventricular artery

87

Plasminogen must be converted to _________ to cleave __________

Plasmin; fibrin

88

Starlings Law of the Heart states that _______

Heart muscle will contract harder when you stretch it to certain extent

89

The pericardial cavity is surrounded by _______

serous membrane

90

A positive inotropic drug is ____

Digitalis

91

Which of the choices below is NOT a functional process performed by the respiratory system?

transport of respiratory gases

92

The loudness of a person's voice depends on the

force with which air rushed across the vocal folds

93

The walls of the alveoli are composed of two types of cells, Type I and Type II. The function of Type II is to _______

secrete surfactantf

94

Complete the following statement using the choices below. Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is ______

greater than the pressure in the atmosphere

95

Unlike inspiration, expiration is a passive act because no muscular contractions are involved. Expiration, however, depends on two factors. Which of the choices below lists those two factors?

the recoil of elastic fivers that were stretched during inspiration and the inward pull of surface tension due to the film of alveolar fluid

96

Which of the following maintains the potency (openness) of the trachea?

cartilage rings

97

Intrapulmonary pressure is the ______

pressure within the alveoli of the lungs

98

The relationship between the pressure and volume of gases is given by ___?

Boyles Law

99

The statement, "in a mixture of gases, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of gases in the mixture" paraphrases ______.

Daltons Law

100

Surfactant helps to prevent the alveoli from collapsing by ________

interfering with the cohesiveness of water molecules, thereby reducing the surface tension of alveolar fluid

101

For gas exchange to be efficient, the respiratory membrane must be ____?

0.5 - 1 micrometer thick

102

With the Bohr effect, more oxygen is released because a _____?

decrease in pH(acidosis) weakens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond

103

The most powerful respiratory stimulus for breathing in a healthy person is ?

increase in carbon doxide

104

Nerve impulses from ________ will result in inspiration.

the ventral respiratory group

105

In the plasma, the quantity of oxygen in solution is _______ .

only about 1.5% of the oxygen carried in dissolved form

106

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

Respiratory rate is lowest in newborn infants

107

Which of the choices below describes the forces that act to pull the lungs away from the thorax wall and thus collapse the lungs?

the natural tendency for the lungs to recoil and the surface tension of the alveolar fluid

108

Which of the following does NOT influence the increase in ventilation that occurs as exercise is initiated?

decrease in lactic acid levels

109

Which of the following is not a form of lung cancer?

Kaposi's Sarcoma

110

Which of the following is NOT an event necessary to supply the body with O2 and dispose of Co2?

blood pH adjustment

111

Which of the following is NOT true of the respiratory tract from the medium bronchi to the alveoli?

resistance to air flow increases due to the increase in cross-sectional diameter

112

Which of the following determines lung compliance?

alveolar surface tension

113

Tidal Volume in air ______

exchange during normal breathing

114

Which of the choices below determines the direction of respiratory gas movement?

partial pressure gradient

115

possible causes of hypoxia include ______ .

too little oxygen in the atmosphere

116

The lung volume that represents the total volume of exchangeable air is the?

vital capacity

117

Because the lungs are filled with fluid during fetal life, which of the following statements is true regarding respiratory exchange?

Respiratory exchanges are made through the placenta

118

Which of the following is not a stimulus for breathing?

rising blood pressure

119

Respiratory control centers are located in the _________.

medulla and pons

120

The amount of air that can be inspired about the tidal volume is called _____

inspiratory reserve

121

Which statement about Co2 is incorrect?

More Co2 dissolves in the blood plasma than is carried in the RBCs

122

Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lungs and through all cell membranes by

diffusion

123

Select the correct statement about the pharynx

the auditory tube drains into the nasopharynx

124

The larynx contains _____ .

the thyroid cartilage

125

Which respiratory associated muscles would contract if you were to blow up a ballon?

internal intercostals and abdominal muscles would contract

126

How is the bulk of carbon dioxide carried in blood?

as the bicarbonate ion in the plasma after first entering the red blood cells

127

Which of the following is not found on the right lobe of the lung?

cardiac notch

128

Which of the choices below in not a role of the pleura?

aids in blood flow to and from the heart because the heart sits between the lungs

129

Factors that influence the rate and depth of breathing include _____

voluntary cortical control

130

Which of the following provide the greatest surface area for gas exchange?

Alveoli

131

The respiratory membrane is a combination of _______

alveolar and capillary walls and their fused basement membranes

132

Gas emboli may occur because a

diver holds his breath upon ascent

133

Inspiratory capacity is

the total amount of air that can be inspired after a tidal expiration

134

Which center is located in the pons?

pontine respirator group (PRG)

135

The nose serves all the following functions except _______.

as the initiator of the cough reflex

136

A premature baby usually has difficulty breathing. However, the respiratory system is developed enough for survival by _____

28 weeks

137

Which of the following statements is true regarding the respiratory rate of a newborn?

The respiratory rate of a newborn is, at its highest rate, approximately 40-80 respirations per minute

138

Select the correct statement about the neural mechanisms of respiratory control.

The pons is thought to be instrumental in the smooth transition from inspiration to expiration

139

Which of the choices below is NOT a factor that promotes oxygen binding to and dissociation from hemoglobin?

number of red blood cells

140

The factors responsible for holding the lungs to the thorax wall are ___.

surface tension from pleural fluid and negative pressure in the pleural cavity

141

The erythrocyte count increases after a while when an individual goes from a low to a high altitude because the _____ .

concentration of oxygen and/or total atmospheric pressure is lower at high altitudes

142

Most inspired particles such as dust fail to reach the lungs because of the

ciliated mucous lining in the nose

143

Which of the following is not possible?

Pressure gradient equals gas flow over resistance

144

Select the correct statement about the physical factors influencing pulmonary ventilation.

As alveolar surface tension increases additional muscle action will be required

145

Select the correct statement about oxygen transport in blood:

A 50% oxygen saturation level of blood returning to the lungs might indicate an activity level higher than normal

146

Which of the disorders below is characterized by destruction of the walls of the alveoli producing abnormally large air spaces that remain filled with air during exhalation?

emphysema

147

The mechanism that establishes the medullary osmotic gradient depends most on the permeability properties of the _______

loop of Henle

148

Urine passes through the _________

pelvis of the kidney to ureter to bladder to urethra

149

Which of the following is not associated with the renal corpuscle?

A Vasa Recta

150

An increase in the permeability of the cells of the collecting tubule to water is due to an _______

increase in the production of ADH

151

The urinary bladder is composed of __________ epithelium

Transitional

152

The kidneys are stimulated to produce renin _______

by a decrease in the blood pressure.

153

Which of the choices below is not a function of the urinary system?

eliminates solid, undigested wastes and excretes carbon dioxide, water, salts and heat

154

Which gland sits atop each kidney?

Adrenal

155

The ________ artery lies on the boundary between the cortex and medulla of the kidney.

Arcuate

156

The glomerulus differs from other capillaries in the body in that it ______

is drained by an efferent arteriole

157

The defending limb of the loop of Henle _______

contains fluid that becomes more concentrated as it moves down into the medulla.

158

Select the correct statement about the ureters

the ureters are capable of peristalsis like that of the gastrointestinal tract

159

The fatty tissue surrounding the kidneys is important because it ______

stabilizes the position of the kidneys by holding them in their normal position

160

The renal corpuscle is made up of _________

Bowman's Capsule and Glomerulus

161

The functional and structural unit of the kidneys is the

Nephron

162

The Juxtaglomerular apparatus is responsible for

regulating the rate of filtrate formation and controlling systemic blood pressure

163

The chief force pushing water and solutes out of the blood across the filtration membrane is

glomerular hydrostatic pressure (glomerular blood pressure)

164

Which of the following statements describes the histology of the ureters?

They are tri-layered (mucosa, muscularis, and adventitia)

165

Which of the following statements is a false or incorrect statement?

The male urethra serves both the urinary and reproductive systems at the same time.

166

Which of the following acts as the trigger for the initiation of micturition (voiding)?

the stretching of the bladder wall

167

The filtration membrane includes all except ________

renal fascia

168

The mechanism of water reabsorption by the renal tubules is ______

osmosis

169

Most electrolyte reabsorption by the renal tubules is _________

hormonally controlled in distal tubule segments

170

The macula densa cells respond to _________.

changes in solute content of the filtrate

171

Which of the following is not reabsorbed by the proximal convoluted tubule?

Creatinine

172

The fluid in the glomerular (Bowman's) capsule is similar to plasma except that is does not contain a significant amount of ________.

Plasma Protein

173

Alcohol acts as a diuretic because it _______.

inhibits the release of ADH

174

The function of angiotensin II is to ________.

constrict arterioles and increase blood pressure

175

A disease caused by inadequate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) by the pituitary gland with symptoms of polyuria is _________.

Diabetes Insipidus

176

An important characteristic of urine is its specific gravity or density, which is ____.

1.001-1.035

177

Place the following in correct sequence from the formation of a drop of urine to its elimination from the body.

3. Nephron 6.collecting duct 2.minor calyx 1.major calyx 5. ureter 4. urethra

178

Select the correct statement about the nephrons.

The parietal layer of the glomerular capsule is simple squamous epithelium

179

What would happen if the capsular hydrostatic pressure were increased above normal?

Net filtration would decrease.

180

Which of the following is not a part of the juxtaglomerular apparatus?

podocyte cells

181

Tubular reabsorption _________

by active mechanisms usually involves movement against an electrical and or chemical gradient

182

Which of the following is not a reason why substances are either not reabsorbed or are incompletely reabsorbed from the nephron?

They are extremely complex molecules

183

Reabsorption of high levels of glucose and amino acids in the filtrate is accomplished by

secondary active transport

184

Which of the choices below is a function of the loop of Henle?

form a large volume of very dilute urine or a small volume of very concentrated urine

185

Fetal kidneys don not have to work very hard because _________.

the placenta allows the mother's urinary system to clear the waste from fetal blood.

186

Which of the following best describes kidney function in older adults (70 years or older)?

Kidney function decreases due to kidney atrophy

187

The factor favoring filtrate formation at the glomerulus is the ________

glomerular hydrostatic pressure

188

If the Tm for a particular amino acid is 120mg/100ml and the concentration of that amino acid in the blood is 230mg/100 ml, the amino acid will _____

appear in the urine

189

If one says that the clearance value of glucose is zero, what does that mean?

Normally all the glucose is reabsorbed

190

Excretion of dilute urine requires _________

impermeability of the collecting tubule to water

191

Which of the choices below is not a method by which the cells of the renal tubules can raise blood pH?

by secreting sodium ions

192

In the ascending limb of the loop of Henle the _________

thick segment moves ions out into interstitial spaces for reabsorption

193

Select the correct statement about urinary system development.

Kidneys develop from urogenital ridges

194

Which of the choices below does not describe the importance of tubular secretion?

ridding the body of bicarbonate ions

195

Which statement is correct ?

Reabsorption of water is hormonally controlled

196

What is the function of the juxtaglomerular apparatus?

help regulate blood pressure and the rate of blood filtration by the kidneys

197

Which of the choices below is the salt-level-monitoring part of the nephron?

Macula densa

198

Which of the hormones below is responsible for facultative water reabsorption?

ADH

199

Which of the choices below is not a glomerular filtration rate control method?

electrolyte levels

200

Which of the choices below are the most important hormone regulators of electrolyte reabsorption and secretion?

angiotensin II and aldosterone

201

Which cells of the kidney are chemoreceptors that respond to changes in solute content of the filtrate?

Macula densa cells