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AP II Final exam summer 2015

front 1

The thymus is most active during _____ ?

back 1

Childhood

front 2

The Lymphatic capillaries are _______ .

back 2

more permeable than blood capillaries

front 3

Antibodies that act against a particular foreign substance are released by ___

back 3

plasma cells

front 4

Which cells become immunocompetent due to thymic hormones?

back 4

lymphocytes

front 5

Which of the following is characteristic of antibodies?

back 5

composed of heavy and light polypeptide chains

front 6

Which of the following is associated with passive immunity?

back 6

passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus

front 7

B lymphocytes develop immunocompetence in the _____ ?

back 7

Bone Marrow

front 8

Which of the following is NOT a type of T Cell?

back 8

antigenic

front 9

Which of the following is NOT a function of the inflammatory response?

back 9

replaces injured tissue with connective tissue

front 10

The redness and heat of an inflamed area are due to a local hyperemia caused by _____ ?

back 10

Vasodialation

front 11

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in phagocytosis?

back 11

chemotaxis, adherence, ingestion, digestion, killing

front 12

Interferons _______.

back 12

interfere with viral replication within cells

front 13

Select the correct definition about tissue grafts.

back 13

Isografts are between identical twins

front 14

Which of the statements below does NOT describe antigens?

back 14

Antigens only come from microbes

front 15

Which of the following is a part of the second line of defense against microorganisms?

back 15

phagocytes

front 16

Which of the following is characteristic of complete antigens?

back 16

reactivity with an antibody

front 17

The process whereby neutrophils and other white blood cells are attracted to an inflammatory site is called ____ .

back 17

Chemotaxis

front 18

John is a 28 year old male who has an elevated white blood cell count after running. The elevated count is most likely due to .....

back 18

An increased neutrophil count

front 19

Jane is infected with a parasitic infection. Her _______ count may elevate in response to this infection.

back 19

Eosinophil Count

front 20

An increase in the number of white blood cells due to an increase in basophils is _______.

back 20

Leukocytosis with a basophilia

front 21

The cell that produces the granulocytes is a

back 21

Myeloblast

front 22

The most likely first cellular responder in a primary bacterial infection would be

back 22

Neutrophil

front 23

An obstruction of the _________ could cause major swelling (edema) in 75% of the body.

back 23

Thoracic Duct

front 24

The ______ is a primary lymphoid organ.

back 24

Thymus

front 25

A white blood cell is termed that because it _____ .

back 25

None of the above

front 26

One function NOT of the lymphatic system is to ________ .

back 26

Carry proteins to the bloodstream after absorption from the gastrointestinal tract

front 27

The compliment cascade is in the _____________ line of defense, and to get the full effect ________ must be split.

back 27

Second, C3

front 28

Macrophages were once

back 28

Monocytes

front 29

A NK cell is a type of

back 29

Lymphocyte

front 30

A COX inhibitor is a ____________ and blocks the formation of certain ______ .

back 30

Non-steroidal Anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), Eicosanoids

front 31

Once a _____ infected cell produces and secretes interferons - they provide some protection for neighboring cells that receive the interferons against ____ .

back 31

None Of The Above

front 32

The adaptive immune system

back 32

Is Systemic, Is specific

front 33

The antibody involved in ABO incompatibility is _____ .

back 33

IgM

front 34

If an antigen is presented to the T cell or B cell system for the first time (primary response) the defense actions that occur

back 34

Lag time differs between T cell system and B cell system

front 35

The response of the compliment system

back 35

Can work independent of antibody activation

front 36

Jane is a 27 year old female who presents complaining of a fever. After performing a history and physical examination, I order lab tests.

The First test I would most likely order is a ______ ?

back 36

CBC

front 37

Importantly regarding a fever - the results of the test in question 36 shows a ______ .

back 37

Leukocytosis

front 38

I ask for (if not already on the lab test ordered in question 36) a ______.

back 38

Differential Count

front 39

The results (of my requested lab in question 38) show an elevated _____ count with a shift to the left.

back 39

Neutrophil

front 40

This finding in question 39 suggests most likely a possible ______ infection.

back 40

Bacterial

front 41

Betty presents with venereal disease for which the treatment is a penicillin injection. Betty has a reaction to the penicillin within a few minutes. This is an example of a Type _____ hypersensitivity reaction that involves the improper mobilization of _______.

back 41

Type I, IgE

front 42

Candace unfortunately touches poison ivy. She probably will not see the rash till _____ and the rash is a type _______ hypersensitivity reaction caused by ________ .

back 42

3-4 days, IV, the T-cell system

front 43

The most active cells that present to a T-helper cell are

back 43

Dendritic cells

front 44

The best second line of defense for cancer cells is

back 44

NK cells

front 45

One difference between the B-cell system and the T-cell system is that B-cells produce antibodies which react with _______ antigens and the T-cell system reacts to ______ antigens.

back 45

Extracellular , intracellular

front 46

Mast cells and basophils can produce

back 46

Histamine

front 47

_________ decreases the start of inflammation and __________ helps reduce the signs and symptoms of inflammation after it has occurred.

back 47

Cold compress and /or an antihistamine, heat and/or some local vasodilator

front 48

A partial antigen

back 48

has reactivity

front 49

The most likely reason a plastic or metal prosthetic device does not generally activate the immune system is

back 49

the antigenic determinants are so uniform (little diversity)

front 50

The T-cell receptor and the Cell Determinant 4 (CD4) surface markers are

back 50

Different surface markers on the T-helper cell

front 51

What is the average normal pH range of blood?

back 51

7.35 - 7.45

front 52

Which of the choices below is the parent cell for all formed elements of blood?

back 52

pluripotent stem cell (hemocytoblast)

front 53

Which of the following might trigger erythropoiesis?

back 53

hypoxia of EPO-producing cells

front 54

When neither anti-A sera nor anti-B sera clot on a blood plate with donor blood, the blood is type ____ ?

back 54

Type O

front 55

Which of the following is NOT a phase of hemostasis?

back 55

Fibrinolysis

front 56

A lack of intrinsic factor, leading to a deficiency of vitamin B12 and large pale cells called macrocytes, is characteristic of _______ .

back 56

Pernicious Anemia

front 57

James has a hemoglobin measurement of 16g/100 ml blood. This is ____

back 57

within normal range

front 58

Which of the events below does NOT occur when the semilunar valves are open?

back 58

Ventricles are in diastole

front 59

The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall in order to ______ .

back 59

pump blood with greater pressure

front 60

Hemorrhage with a large loss of blood causes ______ .

back 60

A lowering of blood pressure due to change in cardiac output

front 61

Small muscle masses attached to the chordae tendineae are the

back 61

Papillary muscles

front 62

The source of blood carried to capillaries in the myocardium would be the

back 62

Coronary arteries

front 63

The arteries that are also called distributing arteries are the _____ .

back 63

muscular arteries

front 64

Aldosterone will ______ .

back 64

promote an increase in blood pressure

front 65

Which of the following is a type of circulatory shock?

back 65

Vascular, due to extreme vasodilation as a result of loss of vasomotor tone

front 66

Which of the choices below does NOT involve tissue perfusion?

back 66

Blood Clotting

front 67

The arteries that directly feed into the capillary beds are called _____ .

back 67

Arterioles

front 68

Factors that aid venous return include all EXCEPT _______ .

back 68

urinary output

front 69

Select the correct statement about factors that influence blood pressure.

back 69

Excess red cell production would cause a blood pressure increase

front 70

The velocity of blood flow is ______

back 70

slowest in the capillaries because the total cross - sectional area is the greatest

front 71

The Partial Thromboplastin Time measures _____

back 71

the intrinsic pathway

front 72

Serum is plasma ____

back 72

minus the clotting factors

front 73

Factor XII is found in the

back 73

Intrinsic pathway

front 74

Heparin _____

back 74

prevents new clots

front 75

The hearts point of maximum impulse is generally found ____

back 75

at the 5th intercostal space and midclavicular line

front 76

An example of a negative inotropic agent is _____

back 76

calcium channel blocker

front 77

The cardiac inhibitory center primarily functions using the

back 77

parasympathetic nervous system

front 78

The QRS complex on an EKG tracing represents _____

back 78

Ventricular Depolarization

front 79

Aerobic Exercise is known to ______

back 79

Increase the HDL level

front 80

LDL (Low Density Lipoprotein)

back 80

Primarily carries Cholesterol away from the liver

front 81

The vasoconstrictor center functions primarily through the

back 81

sympathetic nervous system

front 82

One compensatory mechanism for gram negative shock is

back 82

Increased heart rate

front 83

The T wave on an EKG tracing represents

back 83

Ventricular repolarization

front 84

The First heart sound is in part due to:

back 84

closure of the mitral valve

front 85

The splitting of the second heart sound decreases when:

back 85

Breathing Out (exhalation)

front 86

If the left lateral surface of the left ventricle became ischemic there would be some degree of blockage in the :

back 86

anterior interventricular artery

front 87

Plasminogen must be converted to _________ to cleave __________

back 87

Plasmin; fibrin

front 88

Starlings Law of the Heart states that _______

back 88

Heart muscle will contract harder when you stretch it to certain extent

front 89

The pericardial cavity is surrounded by _______

back 89

serous membrane

front 90

A positive inotropic drug is ____

back 90

Digitalis

front 91

Which of the choices below is NOT a functional process performed by the respiratory system?

back 91

transport of respiratory gases

front 92

The loudness of a person's voice depends on the

back 92

force with which air rushed across the vocal folds

front 93

The walls of the alveoli are composed of two types of cells, Type I and Type II. The function of Type II is to _______

back 93

secrete surfactantf

front 94

Complete the following statement using the choices below. Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is ______

back 94

greater than the pressure in the atmosphere

front 95

Unlike inspiration, expiration is a passive act because no muscular contractions are involved. Expiration, however, depends on two factors. Which of the choices below lists those two factors?

back 95

the recoil of elastic fivers that were stretched during inspiration and the inward pull of surface tension due to the film of alveolar fluid

front 96

Which of the following maintains the potency (openness) of the trachea?

back 96

cartilage rings

front 97

Intrapulmonary pressure is the ______

back 97

pressure within the alveoli of the lungs

front 98

The relationship between the pressure and volume of gases is given by ___?

back 98

Boyles Law

front 99

The statement, "in a mixture of gases, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of gases in the mixture" paraphrases ______.

back 99

Daltons Law

front 100

Surfactant helps to prevent the alveoli from collapsing by ________

back 100

interfering with the cohesiveness of water molecules, thereby reducing the surface tension of alveolar fluid

front 101

For gas exchange to be efficient, the respiratory membrane must be ____?

back 101

0.5 - 1 micrometer thick

front 102

With the Bohr effect, more oxygen is released because a _____?

back 102

decrease in pH(acidosis) weakens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond

front 103

The most powerful respiratory stimulus for breathing in a healthy person is ?

back 103

increase in carbon doxide

front 104

Nerve impulses from ________ will result in inspiration.

back 104

the ventral respiratory group

front 105

In the plasma, the quantity of oxygen in solution is _______ .

back 105

only about 1.5% of the oxygen carried in dissolved form

front 106

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

back 106

Respiratory rate is lowest in newborn infants

front 107

Which of the choices below describes the forces that act to pull the lungs away from the thorax wall and thus collapse the lungs?

back 107

the natural tendency for the lungs to recoil and the surface tension of the alveolar fluid

front 108

Which of the following does NOT influence the increase in ventilation that occurs as exercise is initiated?

back 108

decrease in lactic acid levels

front 109

Which of the following is not a form of lung cancer?

back 109

Kaposi's Sarcoma

front 110

Which of the following is NOT an event necessary to supply the body with O2 and dispose of Co2?

back 110

blood pH adjustment

front 111

Which of the following is NOT true of the respiratory tract from the medium bronchi to the alveoli?

back 111

resistance to air flow increases due to the increase in cross-sectional diameter

front 112

Which of the following determines lung compliance?

back 112

alveolar surface tension

front 113

Tidal Volume in air ______

back 113

exchange during normal breathing

front 114

Which of the choices below determines the direction of respiratory gas movement?

back 114

partial pressure gradient

front 115

possible causes of hypoxia include ______ .

back 115

too little oxygen in the atmosphere

front 116

The lung volume that represents the total volume of exchangeable air is the?

back 116

vital capacity

front 117

Because the lungs are filled with fluid during fetal life, which of the following statements is true regarding respiratory exchange?

back 117

Respiratory exchanges are made through the placenta

front 118

Which of the following is not a stimulus for breathing?

back 118

rising blood pressure

front 119

Respiratory control centers are located in the _________.

back 119

medulla and pons

front 120

The amount of air that can be inspired about the tidal volume is called _____

back 120

inspiratory reserve

front 121

Which statement about Co2 is incorrect?

back 121

More Co2 dissolves in the blood plasma than is carried in the RBCs

front 122

Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lungs and through all cell membranes by

back 122

diffusion

front 123

Select the correct statement about the pharynx

back 123

the auditory tube drains into the nasopharynx

front 124

The larynx contains _____ .

back 124

the thyroid cartilage

front 125

Which respiratory associated muscles would contract if you were to blow up a ballon?

back 125

internal intercostals and abdominal muscles would contract

front 126

How is the bulk of carbon dioxide carried in blood?

back 126

as the bicarbonate ion in the plasma after first entering the red blood cells

front 127

Which of the following is not found on the right lobe of the lung?

back 127

cardiac notch

front 128

Which of the choices below in not a role of the pleura?

back 128

aids in blood flow to and from the heart because the heart sits between the lungs

front 129

Factors that influence the rate and depth of breathing include _____

back 129

voluntary cortical control

front 130

Which of the following provide the greatest surface area for gas exchange?

back 130

Alveoli

front 131

The respiratory membrane is a combination of _______

back 131

alveolar and capillary walls and their fused basement membranes

front 132

Gas emboli may occur because a

back 132

diver holds his breath upon ascent

front 133

Inspiratory capacity is

back 133

the total amount of air that can be inspired after a tidal expiration

front 134

Which center is located in the pons?

back 134

pontine respirator group (PRG)

front 135

The nose serves all the following functions except _______.

back 135

as the initiator of the cough reflex

front 136

A premature baby usually has difficulty breathing. However, the respiratory system is developed enough for survival by _____

back 136

28 weeks

front 137

Which of the following statements is true regarding the respiratory rate of a newborn?

back 137

The respiratory rate of a newborn is, at its highest rate, approximately 40-80 respirations per minute

front 138

Select the correct statement about the neural mechanisms of respiratory control.

back 138

The pons is thought to be instrumental in the smooth transition from inspiration to expiration

front 139

Which of the choices below is NOT a factor that promotes oxygen binding to and dissociation from hemoglobin?

back 139

number of red blood cells

front 140

The factors responsible for holding the lungs to the thorax wall are ___.

back 140

surface tension from pleural fluid and negative pressure in the pleural cavity

front 141

The erythrocyte count increases after a while when an individual goes from a low to a high altitude because the _____ .

back 141

concentration of oxygen and/or total atmospheric pressure is lower at high altitudes

front 142

Most inspired particles such as dust fail to reach the lungs because of the

back 142

ciliated mucous lining in the nose

front 143

Which of the following is not possible?

back 143

Pressure gradient equals gas flow over resistance

front 144

Select the correct statement about the physical factors influencing pulmonary ventilation.

back 144

As alveolar surface tension increases additional muscle action will be required

front 145

Select the correct statement about oxygen transport in blood:

back 145

A 50% oxygen saturation level of blood returning to the lungs might indicate an activity level higher than normal

front 146

Which of the disorders below is characterized by destruction of the walls of the alveoli producing abnormally large air spaces that remain filled with air during exhalation?

back 146

emphysema

front 147

The mechanism that establishes the medullary osmotic gradient depends most on the permeability properties of the _______

back 147

loop of Henle

front 148

Urine passes through the _________

back 148

pelvis of the kidney to ureter to bladder to urethra

front 149

Which of the following is not associated with the renal corpuscle?

back 149

A Vasa Recta

front 150

An increase in the permeability of the cells of the collecting tubule to water is due to an _______

back 150

increase in the production of ADH

front 151

The urinary bladder is composed of __________ epithelium

back 151

Transitional

front 152

The kidneys are stimulated to produce renin _______

back 152

by a decrease in the blood pressure.

front 153

Which of the choices below is not a function of the urinary system?

back 153

eliminates solid, undigested wastes and excretes carbon dioxide, water, salts and heat

front 154

Which gland sits atop each kidney?

back 154

Adrenal

front 155

The ________ artery lies on the boundary between the cortex and medulla of the kidney.

back 155

Arcuate

front 156

The glomerulus differs from other capillaries in the body in that it ______

back 156

is drained by an efferent arteriole

front 157

The defending limb of the loop of Henle _______

back 157

contains fluid that becomes more concentrated as it moves down into the medulla.

front 158

Select the correct statement about the ureters

back 158

the ureters are capable of peristalsis like that of the gastrointestinal tract

front 159

The fatty tissue surrounding the kidneys is important because it ______

back 159

stabilizes the position of the kidneys by holding them in their normal position

front 160

The renal corpuscle is made up of _________

back 160

Bowman's Capsule and Glomerulus

front 161

The functional and structural unit of the kidneys is the

back 161

Nephron

front 162

The Juxtaglomerular apparatus is responsible for

back 162

regulating the rate of filtrate formation and controlling systemic blood pressure

front 163

The chief force pushing water and solutes out of the blood across the filtration membrane is

back 163

glomerular hydrostatic pressure (glomerular blood pressure)

front 164

Which of the following statements describes the histology of the ureters?

back 164

They are tri-layered (mucosa, muscularis, and adventitia)

front 165

Which of the following statements is a false or incorrect statement?

back 165

The male urethra serves both the urinary and reproductive systems at the same time.

front 166

Which of the following acts as the trigger for the initiation of micturition (voiding)?

back 166

the stretching of the bladder wall

front 167

The filtration membrane includes all except ________

back 167

renal fascia

front 168

The mechanism of water reabsorption by the renal tubules is ______

back 168

osmosis

front 169

Most electrolyte reabsorption by the renal tubules is _________

back 169

hormonally controlled in distal tubule segments

front 170

The macula densa cells respond to _________.

back 170

changes in solute content of the filtrate

front 171

Which of the following is not reabsorbed by the proximal convoluted tubule?

back 171

Creatinine

front 172

The fluid in the glomerular (Bowman's) capsule is similar to plasma except that is does not contain a significant amount of ________.

back 172

Plasma Protein

front 173

Alcohol acts as a diuretic because it _______.

back 173

inhibits the release of ADH

front 174

The function of angiotensin II is to ________.

back 174

constrict arterioles and increase blood pressure

front 175

A disease caused by inadequate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) by the pituitary gland with symptoms of polyuria is _________.

back 175

Diabetes Insipidus

front 176

An important characteristic of urine is its specific gravity or density, which is ____.

back 176

1.001-1.035

front 177

Place the following in correct sequence from the formation of a drop of urine to its elimination from the body.

back 177

3. Nephron 6.collecting duct 2.minor calyx 1.major calyx 5. ureter 4. urethra

front 178

Select the correct statement about the nephrons.

back 178

The parietal layer of the glomerular capsule is simple squamous epithelium

front 179

What would happen if the capsular hydrostatic pressure were increased above normal?

back 179

Net filtration would decrease.

front 180

Which of the following is not a part of the juxtaglomerular apparatus?

back 180

podocyte cells

front 181

Tubular reabsorption _________

back 181

by active mechanisms usually involves movement against an electrical and or chemical gradient

front 182

Which of the following is not a reason why substances are either not reabsorbed or are incompletely reabsorbed from the nephron?

back 182

They are extremely complex molecules

front 183

Reabsorption of high levels of glucose and amino acids in the filtrate is accomplished by

back 183

secondary active transport

front 184

Which of the choices below is a function of the loop of Henle?

back 184

form a large volume of very dilute urine or a small volume of very concentrated urine

front 185

Fetal kidneys don not have to work very hard because _________.

back 185

the placenta allows the mother's urinary system to clear the waste from fetal blood.

front 186

Which of the following best describes kidney function in older adults (70 years or older)?

back 186

Kidney function decreases due to kidney atrophy

front 187

The factor favoring filtrate formation at the glomerulus is the ________

back 187

glomerular hydrostatic pressure

front 188

If the Tm for a particular amino acid is 120mg/100ml and the concentration of that amino acid in the blood is 230mg/100 ml, the amino acid will _____

back 188

appear in the urine

front 189

If one says that the clearance value of glucose is zero, what does that mean?

back 189

Normally all the glucose is reabsorbed

front 190

Excretion of dilute urine requires _________

back 190

impermeability of the collecting tubule to water

front 191

Which of the choices below is not a method by which the cells of the renal tubules can raise blood pH?

back 191

by secreting sodium ions

front 192

In the ascending limb of the loop of Henle the _________

back 192

thick segment moves ions out into interstitial spaces for reabsorption

front 193

Select the correct statement about urinary system development.

back 193

Kidneys develop from urogenital ridges

front 194

Which of the choices below does not describe the importance of tubular secretion?

back 194

ridding the body of bicarbonate ions

front 195

Which statement is correct ?

back 195

Reabsorption of water is hormonally controlled

front 196

What is the function of the juxtaglomerular apparatus?

back 196

help regulate blood pressure and the rate of blood filtration by the kidneys

front 197

Which of the choices below is the salt-level-monitoring part of the nephron?

back 197

Macula densa

front 198

Which of the hormones below is responsible for facultative water reabsorption?

back 198

ADH

front 199

Which of the choices below is not a glomerular filtration rate control method?

back 199

electrolyte levels

front 200

Which of the choices below are the most important hormone regulators of electrolyte reabsorption and secretion?

back 200

angiotensin II and aldosterone

front 201

Which cells of the kidney are chemoreceptors that respond to changes in solute content of the filtrate?

back 201

Macula densa cells