Final Exam True/False Flashcards


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anatomy & physiology 2
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1

1) The "all or none" phenomenon as applied to nerve
conduction states that the whole nerve<br>cell must be stimulated
for conduction to take place.</p>

FALSE

2

2) Reflexes are rapid, automatic responses to stimuli.</p>

TRUE

3

3) Efferent nerve fibers may be described as motor nerve fibers.

TRUE

4

4) Saltatory conduction occurs because of the presence of salt (NaCl)
around the neuron.

FALSE

5

5) Cell bodies of sensory neurons may be located in ganglia lying
outside the central nervous<br>system.</p>

TRUE

6

7) During depolarization, the inside of the neuronʹs membrane becomes
less negative.

TRUE

7

8) Neurons in the CNS are organized into functional groups.

TRUE

8

9) Strong stimuli cause the amplitude of action potentials generated
to increase.

FALSE

9

10) The oligodendrocytes can myelinate several axons.

TRUE

10

11) Enkephalins and endorphins are peptides that act like morphine.

TRUE

11

13) In myelinated axons the voltageregulated sodium channels are concentrated at the nodes of Ranvier.

TRUE

12

14) Action potentials can be generated by virtually all cells of the body because all cells possess cell membranes.

FALSE

13

15) Voltage is always measured between two points and may be called
the potential between these two points.

TRUE

14

16) Neurons that are far away from the center of the neuron pool and that are not easily excited by an incoming stimulus are in the
discharge zone

FALSE

15

17) Acetylcholine is not a biogenic amine.

TRUE

16

18) The two major classes of graded potentials are transmitter
potentials and receptor potentials

FALSE

17

19) A graded potential that is the result of a neurotransmitter released into the synapse between two neurons is called a postsynaptic potential.

TRUE

18

20) Large diameter nerve fibers conduct impulses much faster than small diameter fibers.

TRUE

19

21) The nodes of Ranvier are found only on myelinated, peripheral
neural processes.</p>

FALSE

20

22) Unipolar neurons have axons structurally divided into peripheral
and central processes.

TRUE

21

23) A stimulus traveling toward a synapse appears to open calcium channels at the presynaptic end, which in turn promotes fusion of synaptic vesicles to the axonal membrane.

TRUE

22

24) A positive feedback cycle is the main force in the generation of graded potentials at receptor ends.

FALSE

23

25) If bacteria invaded the CNS tissue, microglia would migrate to the area to engulf and destroy them.

TRUE

24

1) The meningeal branch of a spinal nerve actually reenters the vertebral canal to innervate<br>the meninges and blood vessels.</p>

TRUE

25

2) In the somatosensory system there are no third order neurons in the cerebellum.

TRUE

26

3) There are 41 pairs of spinal nerves.

FALSE

27

4) The glossopharyngeal nerve is the only cranial nerve that contains sensory fibers.

FALSE

28

5) The musculocutaneous nerve is a major nerve of the brachial plexus.

TRUE

29

6) The second cranial nerve forms a chiasma at the base of the brain for partial crossover of neural fibers.

TRUE

30

7) The only cranial nerves to extend beyond the head and neck region are the vagus nerves.

TRUE

31

8) The dorsal ramus consists only of motor fibers bringing information to the spinal cord.

FALSE

32

9) Dermatomes are skin segments that relate to sensory innervation regions of the spinal<br>nerves.

TRUE

33

10) Dorsal and ventral rami are similar in that they both contain sensory and motor fibers.

TRUE

34

11) Irritation of the phrenic nerve may cause diaphragm spasms called hiccups.

TRUE

35

12) The obturator nerve branches from the sacral plexus.

FALSE

36

13) Reciprocal inhibition means that while one sensory nerve is stimulated, another sensory neuron for synergistic muscles in the same area is inhibited and cannot respond.

FALSE

37

14) External strabismus and ptosis could be caused by damage to the oculomotor nerve.

TRUE

38

15) In order to regulate motor activity, to start and stop movements, and to coordinate postural<br>movements, the cerebellum and basal nuclei are involved.</p>

TRUE

39

1) Since the ANS is a visceral motor system, afferent pathways are of no importance and
actually are rarely found.

FALSE

40

2) The rami communicantes are associated only with the sympathetic division of the ANS.

TRUE

41

3) The gray rami communicantes consist of myelinated postganglionic fibers.

FALSE

42

4) Splanchnic nerves are mixed motor and sensory nerves.

FALSE

43

5) The autonomic nervous system may cause activation or inhibition, depending on the
division that is active and the target that is affected.

TRUE

44

6) The celiac ganglion is primarily associated with the sympathetic division.

TRUE

45

7) The sympathetic chain is composed of collateral ganglia.

TRUE

46

8) Thermoregulatory responses to increased heat are mediated by the sympathetic nervous division.

TRUE

47

9) Most disorders of the autonomic nervous system reflect abnormalities of smooth muscle
control.

TRUE

48

10) Alphaadrenergic
effects are usually stimulatory and mediatory.

TRUE

49

11) The adrenal medulla is considered a ʺmisplacedʺ sympathetic ganglion by some.

TRUE

50

12) Acetylcholine is the substance released by the axonal endings of the somatic efferent fibers and
by the parasympathetic nerve fiber endings.

TRUE

51

13) Most body organs are innervated by only the sympathetic division of the nervous system.

FALSE

52

14) Through direct neural stimulation, the sympathetic division promotes many metabolic
effects via hormone release.

TRUE

53

15) Cranial nerves VII, IX, and X contain postganglionic fibers of the parasympathetic
nervous system.

FALSE

54

16) In contrast to the parasympathetic division, the sympathetic division has numerous
postganglionic neurons in the gray matter of the spinal cord.

FALSE

55

17) Norepinephrinereleasing
fibers are called cholinergic fibers.

FALSE

56

18) The parasympathetic division is a branch of the somatic nervous system.

FALSE

57

19) The craniosacral division is another name for the parasympathetic division.

TRUE

58

20) The chain ganglion, like the dorsal root ganglion, contains soma from sensory neurons.

FALSE

59

21) Most blood vessels are innervated by the sympathetic division alone.

TRUE

60

22) The blood vessels of the skin are one of the few areas of the body where the vessels are
innervated by both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.

FALSE

61

23) Events recorded in a lie detector examination are controlled by the sympathetic division.

TRUE

62

24) All splanchnic nerves are sympathetic.

FALSE

63

25) Splanchnic nerves pass through the abdominal aortic plexus.

TRUE

64

26) The structures that specifically exhibit vasomotor tone are mostly under sympathetic
control.

TRUE

65

27) Since many of the same cardiac cells are innervated by both parasympathetic and
sympathetic fibers, the influence of the two divisions on the heart is synergistic.

FALSE

66

βadrenergic
receptors are the only receptors found on the heart.

FALSE

67

29) Autonomic reflex centers occur in the spinal cord, medulla, and midbrain.

TRUE

68

In humans, melatonin may inhibit sexual maturation.

TRUE

69

2) The antagonistic hormones that regulate the blood calcium level are calcitoninparathormone.

TRUE

70

3) The hormone that raises blood sugar levels is insulin.

FALSE

71

4) The endocrine structure that develops from the nervous system is the anterior pituitary.

FALSE

72

5) Both ʺturn onʺ factors (hormonal, humoral, and neural stimuli) and ʺturn offʺ factors
(feedback inhibition and others) may be modulated by the activity of the nervous system.

TRUE

73

6) ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex to release corticosteroid hormones.

TRUE

74

7) LH is also referred to as a gonadotropin.

TRUE

75

8) The only known effect of prolactin in humans is to produce impotence in males.

FALSE

76

9) Oxytocin is a strong stimulant of uterine contractions.

TRUE

77

10) Follicle cells of the thyroid gland produce thyroglobulin, while follicle cells of the parathyroid
produce calcitonin.

FALSE

78

11) The thyroid gland is embedded in the parathyroid tissue.

FALSE

79

12) The prime metabolic effect of cortisol is gluconeogenesis.

TRUE

80

13) The beta cells are the pancreatic islet cells that produce insulin.

TRUE

81

14) Most Type II diabetics do not produce insulin.

FALSE

82

15) Peptide hormones enter the target cells and elicit a response by mediating neurotransmitter
effects.

FALSE

83

16) Calcitonin is a peptide hormone that has destructive effects on the skeletal system.

FALSE

84

17) Aldosterone is the most potent mineralocorticoid produced in the adrenals but the least abundant.

FALSE

85

18) Atrial natriuretic peptide is a hormone that controls blood pressure in part by increasing the
urinary excretion of sodium.

TRUE

86

19) While glucagon is a small polypeptide, it is nevertheless very potent in its regulatory
effects.

TRUE

87

20) The thyroid gland is a large gland that controls metabolic functions throughout the life
of an individual.

TRUE

88

21) Many hormones synthesized in the gastrointestinal tract are chemically identical to
brain
neurotransmitters.

TRUE

89

22) All of the following hormones are secreted by the adenohypophysis: ACTH, FSH, and
LH.

TRUE

90

23) Iodine is an essential element required for the synthesis of thyroxine.

TRUE

91

24) The endocrine gland that is probably malfunctioning if a person has a high metabolic
rate is the parathyroid.

FALSE

92

25) Growth hormone always exerts its influence by targeting other endocrine glands to produce
hormones.

FALSE

93

26) Diabetes insipidus and diabetes mellitus are both caused by a genetic mutation involving
the synthesis of insulin.

FALSE

94

27) The stimulus for calcitonin release is usually excessive amounts of growth hormone
synthesis

FALSE

95

28) Glucocorticoids are steroid hormones that usually enhance the immune responses when
an individual is suffering from severe stress.

FALSE

96

29) Direct gene activation involves a secondmessenger system.

FALSE

97

29) Direct gene activation involves a second messenger system.

TRUE

98

30) All peptide hormone synthesis requires gene activation that produces mRNA.

TRUE

99

31) All adenohypophyseal hormones except GH affect their target cells via a cyclic AMP
secondmessenger.

TRUE

100

1) The primary source of RBCs in the adult human being is the bone marrow in the shafts of the long bones.

FALSE

101

2) Leukemia refers to cancerous conditions of white blood cells.

TRUE

102

3) The immediate response to blood vessel injury is clotting.

FALSE

103

4) The process of fibrinolysis disposes of bacteria when healing has occurred.

FALSE

104

5) The RB graveyard is the liver.

FALSE

105

6) Hemorrhagic anemias result from blood loss.

TRUE

106

7) White blood cells are produced through the action of colonystimulating
factors.

TRUE

107

8) Hemoglobin is made up of the protein heme and the red pigment globin.

FALSE

108

9) Each heme contains an atom of iron and can transport one molecule of oxygen.

TRUE

109

10) Each hemoglobin molecule can transport two molecules of oxygen.

FALSE

110

11) Diapedesis is the process by which red blood cells move into tissue spaces from the interior of blood capillary

FALSE

111

12) Positive chemotaxis is a feedback system that signals leukocyte migration into damaged areas.

TRUE

112

13) A condition of leukocytosis indicates over 11,000 white blood cells per cubic millimeter in the blood.

TRUE

113

14) Basophils increase in number when parasitic invasion occurs.

FALSE

114

15) Leukopenia is an abnormally low number of leukocytes.

TRUE

115

16) A person with type B blood could receive blood from a person with either type B or O blood.

TRUE

116

17) Leukocytes move through the circulatory system by amoeboid motion.

FALSE

117

18) Granulocytes called neutrophils are phagocytic and the most numerous of all white blood cell types.

TRUE

118

19) All lymphocytes are leukocytes, but not all leukocytes are lymphocytes.

TRUE

119

20) Myelocytic leukemia involves a cancerous condition of lymphocytes.

FALSE

120

1) The myocardium receives its blood supply from the coronary arteries.

TRUE

121

2) Cardiac muscle has more mitochondria and depends less on a continual supply of oxygen
than does skeletal muscle.

FALSE

122

3) Anastomoses among coronary arterial branches provide collateral routes for blood delivery to
the heart muscle.

TRUE

123

4) Congestive heart failure means that the pumping efficiency of the heart is depressed so
that there is inadequate delivery of blood to body tissues.

TRUE

124

5) Tissues damaged by myocardial infarction are replaced by connective tissue.

TRUE

125

6) The left side of the heart pumps the same volume of blood as the right.

TRUE

126

7) Chronic release of excess thyroxine can cause a sustained increase in heart rate and a
weakened heart.

TRUE

127

8) Arterial blood supply to heart muscle is continuous whether the heart is in systole or
diastole.

FALSE

128

9) Trabeculae carneae are found in the ventricles and never the atria.

TRUE

129

10) The "lub" sounds of the heart are valuable in diagnosis because they provide information
about the function of the heart's pulmonary and aortic valves.

FALSE

130

11) Autonomic regulation of heart rate is via two reflex centers found in the pons.

FALSE

131

12) The papillary muscles contract after the other ventricular muscles so that they can take
up the slack on the chordae tendineae before the full force of ventricular contractions sends blood
against the AV valve flaps.

FALSE

132

13) An ECG provides direct information about valve function.

FALSE

133

14) As pressure in the aorta rises due to atherosclerosis, more ventricular pressure is
required to open the aortic valve.

TRUE

134

15) Proxysmal atrial tachycardia is characterized by bursts of atrial contractions with little
pause
between them.

TRUE

135

1) The adjustment of blood flow to each tissue in proportion to its requirements at any point in
time is termed autoregulation.

TRUE

136

2) Arterial pressure in the pulmonary circulation is much higher than in the systemic circulation
because of its proximity to the heart.

FALSE

137

3) Osmotic pressure is created by the presence in a fluid of small diffusible molecules that easily
move through the capillary membrane.

FALSE

138

4) The cerebral arterial circle (circle of Willis) is an arterial anastomosis.

TRUE

139

5) The outermost layer of a blood vessel is the tunica intima.

FALSE

140

6) The thick walled arteries close to the heart are called muscular arteries.

FALSE

141

7) Hypotension is generally considered systolic blood pressure that is below 100 mm Hg.

TRUE

142

8) A precapillary sphincter is a cuff of smooth muscle that regulates the flow of blood into
the capillaries.

TRUE

143

9) The carotid sinus reflex protects the blood supply to the brain, whereas the aortic reflex is
more concerned with maintaining adequate blood pressure in the systemic circuit as a
whole.

TRUE

144

10) Vasodilation is a widening of the lumen due to smooth muscle contraction.

FALSE

145

11) The pulmonary circulation does not directly serve the metabolic needs of body tissues.

TRUE

146

12) In infants and young people, congenital vascular problems are less common than
congenital heart disease.

TRUE

147

13) The most common form of shock is hypovolemic shock.

TRUE

148

14) Every minute, about 1.5 ml of fluid leaks out of the capillaries.

TRUE

149

15) The pancreas is an example of an organ with arteries that do not anastomose.

FALSE

150

16) An obstruction in the superior vena cava would decrease the flow of blood from the head
and neck to the heart.

TRUE

151

17) Arteries supplying the same territory are often merged with one another, forming arterial
anastomoses.

TRUE

152

18) An increase in blood viscosity will cause an increase in peripheral resistance.

TRUE

153

19) The first major branch of the femoral artery is the dorsalis pedis artery.

FALSE

154

20) The azygos vein originates in the abdomen.

TRUE

155

21) Whereas diffusion is more important for solute exchange between plasma and interstitial
fluid, bulk flow is more important for regulation of the relative volumes of blood and interstitial
fluid.

TRUE

156

1) Food is contained in the gastrointestinal tract from the time of ingestion until it is
completely digested and the waste prepared for elimination.

TRUE

157

2) The circular folds of the small intestine enhance absorption by causing the chyme to
spiral, rather than to move in a straight line, as it passes through the small intestine.

TRUE

158

3) As food passes through the digestive tract, it becomes less complex and the nutrients are
more readily available to the body.

TRUE

159

4) Some of the microbes that often invade other organs of the body are rarely found in the
stomach. The reason for this is the presence of HCl.

TRUE

160

5) Kupffer cells are found in the liver and are responsible for removing bacteria and wornout
cells.

TRUE

161

6) The pharyngealesophageal phase of swallowing is involuntary and is controlled by the swallowing center in the thalamus and lower pons

FALSE

162

7) All the chemical and mechanical phases of digestion from the mouth through the small
intestine are directed toward changing food into forms that can pass through the epithelial
cells lining the mucosa into the underlying blood and lymphatic vessels.

TRUE

163

8) Pepsinogen is the precursor to the gastric enzyme for protein digestion and is secreted by
the parietal cells.

FALSE

164

9) The main chemical activity of the stomach is to begin the digestion of proteins.

TRUE

165

10) The major role of absorption in the ileum is to reclaim bile salts to be recycled back to
the liver.

TRUE

166

11) The peritoneum is the most extensive serous membrane in the body.

TRUE

167

12) Peyer's patches are found in the submucosa of the distal end of the small intestine.

TRUE

168

13) The myenteric nerve plexus provides the major nerve supply to the GI tract wall and
controls GI motility.

TRUE

169

14) The first teeth to appear are the deciduous teeth.

TRUE

170

15) Dentin anchors the tooth in place.

FALSE

171

16) The digestive function of the liver is to produce bile.

TRUE

172

17) The pancreas has both an endocrine and an exocrine function.

TRUE

173

18) Another term for swallowing is deglutition.

TRUE

174

19) The intrinsic ability of visceral smooth muscle to exhibit the stress relaxation response is termed platicity

TRUE

175

20) The stomach's contractile rhythm is set by pacemaker cells found in the spinal cord.

FALSE

176

21) The major stimulus for production of intestinal fluid is distention or irritation of the
intestinal mucosa by hypertonic or acidic chyme.

TRUE

177

22) Most nutrients are absorbed through the mucosa of the intestinal villi by active
transport.

TRUE

178

23) Ionic iron is actively transported into the Mucosal cells, where it binds to the protein ferritin, a phenomenon called the mucosal iron barrier.

TRUE

179

24) Mumps is an inflammation of the parotid glands caused by myxovirus.

TRUE

180

25) Fats significantly delay the emptying of the stomach.

TRUE

181

26) The soft palate rises reflexively to open the nasopharynx when we swallow food.

FALSE

182

1) If the GFR is too low, needed substances may pass so quickly through the renal tubules
that they are not absorbed and instead are lost in the urine.

FALSE

183

2) In the kidneys, the countercurrent mechanism involves the interaction between the flow
of filtrate through the loop of Henle of the juxtamedullary nephrons (the countercurrent
multiplier) and the flow of blood through the limbs of adjacent blood vessels (the countercurrent
exchanger). This relationship establishes and maintains an osmotic gradient extending from
the cortex through the depths of the medulla that allows the kidneys to vary urine concentration
dramatically

TRUE

184

3) The ureter transports urine from the kidney to the urinary bladder.

TRUE

185

4) Water reabsorption through the proximal convoluted tubule is termed obligatory water
reabsorption, whereas water reabsorption through the distal convoluted tubule is termed
facultative water reabsorption.

TRUE

186

5) The position of the kidneys behind the
peritoneal lining of the abdominal cavity is described by the term retroperitoneal.

TRUE

187

6) The entire responsibility for urine formation lies with the nephron.

TRUE

188

7) Urine is 95% water by volume.

TRUE

189

8) The act of emptying the bladder is called voiding.

TRUE

190

9) Glomerular filtration is an ATPdriven
process.

FALSE

191

10) In the absence of hormones, the distal tubule and collecting ducts are relatively impermeable
to water.

TRUE

192

11) The collecting duct is impermeable to water in the presence of ADH.

FALSE

193

12) The urethra contains an internal sphincter of smooth muscle.

TRUE

194

13) Angiotensin II is a substance made by the body to lower blood pressure during stress.

FALSE

195

14) Aldosterone is a hormone that causes the renal tubules to reclaim sodium ions from the
filtrate.

TRUE

196

15) Blood pressure in the renal glomerulus is lower than in most parts of the body in order to conserve body water.

FALSE

197

16) The proximal convoluted tubule is the portion of the nephron that attaches to the
collecting
duct.

FALSE

198

17) Urea is reabsorbed in the loop of Henle.

FALSE

199

18) Incontinence is the inability to control voluntary micturition.

TRUE

200

19) The myogenic mechanism reflects the tendency of vascular smooth muscle to stretch.

FALSE

201

20) An excessive urine output is called anuria.

FALSE

202

21) Tubular secretion is effective in controlling blood pH.

TRUE

203

22) The trigone is so named because of the shape of the urinary bladder.

FALSE

204

23) Atrial naturetic peptide inhibits sodium reabsorption.

TRUE

205

24) The macula densa cells are chemoreceptors that respond to changes in the urea content
of the filtrate.

FALSE

206

25) Blood in the urine may be a symptom of bladder cancer.

TRUE

207

26) Obligatory water reabsorption involves the movement of water along an osmotic gradient.

TRUE

208

27) Having a kinked ureter is called renal ptosis.

FALSE

209

1) It is necessary for the testes to be kept below body temperature.

TRUE

210

2) The prostate atrophies as a man ages, and it usually causes no health problems.

FALSE

211

3) The hormone oxytocin combines with enzymes in semen to enhance sperm motility.

FALSE

212

4) When a couple is having difficulty conceiving a child, it is necessary to investigate the sperm
of the male.

TRUE

213

5) The amount of testosterone and sperm produced by the testes is dependent on the influence of
FSH alone.

FALSE

214

6) Ovarian follicles contain mature eggs.

FALSE

215

7) Sexually transmitted infections are the most important cause of reproductive disorders.

TRUE

216

8) Reproduction is not possible in males or females until one year after puberty has begun.

FALSE

217

9) The smaller cell produced by oogenesis meiosis I, called the first polar body, is essentially a packet of discarded nuclear material.

TRUE

218

10) Pain during ovulation is called dysmenorrhea.

FALSE

219

11) A human egg or sperm contains 23 pairs of chromosomes.

TRUE

220

12) The Pap smear is a test to detect cancerous changes in cells of the cervix.

TRUE

221

13) The adenohypophyseal hormone that triggers ovulation is estrogen.

FALSE

222

14) The male urethra serves the urinary system only.

FALSE

223

15) Both tetrads and crossovers are seen during meiosis.

TRUE

224

16) Failure to attain erection is called impotence.

TRUE

225

17) Ovulation occurs near the end of the ovarian cycle.

FALSE

226

18) The corpus luteum secretes progesterone only.

FALSE

227

19) Female orgasm is required for conception.

FALSE

228

20) The first sign of puberty in females is budding breasts.

TRUE

229

21) The primary function of the testes is to produce testosterone.

FALSE

230

22) The stage in meiosis where chromosomal exchange takes place is telophase.

FALSE

231

23) The diamondshaped
area between the coccyx, pubic arch, and ischial tuberosities in the female is the vulva.

FALSE

232

24) The soft mucosal lining of the uterus is the endometrium.

TRUE

233

25) A scrotal muscle that contracts in response to cold environmental temperature is the
cremaster.

TRUE

234

26) The secretions of the bulbourethral glands neutralize traces of acidic urine in the urethra and
serve as a lubricant during sexual intercourse.

TRUE

235

27) The zona pellucida is formed as the follicle becomes a secondary follicle.

TRUE

236

28) The molecule that enhances the ability of testosterone to promote spermatogenesis is
inhibin.

TRUE

237

1) Conceptus is a term used to describe the developing human offspring.

TRUE

238

2) The period from fertilization through week eight is called the embryonic period.

TRUE

239

3) Fertilization occurs while the egg is still in the ovarian follicle.

FALSE

240

4) Freshly deposited sperm are not capable of penetrating an oocyte.

TRUE

241

5) By 72 hours after fertilization, the egg has divided into more than 160 cells and is called
the morula.

FALSE

242

6) Implantation begins six to seven days after ovulation.

TRUE

243

7) A pregnancy test involves antibodies that detect GH levels in a woman's blood or urine.

FALSE

244

8) The body systems of the developing embryo are present in at least rudimentary form at
eight weeks.

TRUE

245

9) Of the three germ layers, the mesoderm forms the most body parts.

TRUE

246

10) A pregnant woman urinates more often than usual because the uterus compresses the
bladder, and she must also dispose of fetal metabolic wastes.

TRUE

247

The "fluidfilled,
hollow ball of cells" stage of development is the blastocyst.

TRUE

248

12) The embryonic stage lasts until the end of the eighth week.

TRUE

249

13) The embryo is directly enclosed in and protected by the amnion.

TRUE

250

14) In fetal circulation, one way in which blood bypasses the nonaerated lungs is by way of
the foramen ovale.

TRUE

251

15) An episiotomy is an incision made to widen the vaginal orifice, aiding fetal expulsion.

TRUE

252

16) The placenta and its attached fetal membranes are collectively called the afterbirth.

TRUE

253

17) Human placental lactogen initiates labor.

FALSE

254

18) Surfactant production in premature infants is rarely a factor in providing normal
respiratory activity.

FALSE

255

19) A blastocyst is a hollow ball of cells, while the morula is a solid ball of cells.

TRUE

256

20) A zygote is usually formed within the uterus.

FALSE

257

1) NREM sleep normally exhibits four distinct stages, which appear to alternate.

TRUE

258

2) Petit mal seizures found in children generally go away with age.

TRUE

259

3) NREM sleep episodes are frequently associated with erection of the penis.

FALSE

260

4) A flat EEG is a good indication of deep sleep.

FALSE

261

5) Theta waves are a brain wave pattern that can be seen during deep sleep and during
anesthesia.

FALSE

262

6) One disorder of the substantia nigra is Parkinsonʹs disease.

TRUE

263

7) Cell bodies of the somatic motor neurons of the spinal nerves are located in the ventral
horn of
the spinal cord.

TRUE

264

8) Meningitis is the most accurate term for inflammation of neurons.

FALSE

265

9) The spinal cord ends between L1 and L2.

TRUE

266

10) Cerebrospinal fluid circulates within the ventricles of the brain and in the subarachnoid
space outside the brain.

TRUE

267

12) The RAS is comprised of specific pathways primarily in the limbic system.

FALSE

268

13) Nondeclarative memories preserve the circumstances in which they are learned.

FALSE

269

14) The first obvious sign that the nervous system is forming in the embryo is the thickening
of the
surface ectoderm to form the neural plate.

TRUE

270

15) The left cerebral hemisphere is usually dominant.

TRUE

271

16) The limbic system acts as our emotional, or affective, brain.

TRUE

272

17) The canal connecting the third and fourth ventricles and running through the midbrain
is the
foramen of Monro.

FALSE

273

18) Commissural fibers form the corpus striatum.

FALSE

274

19) A disturbance of posture, muscle tremors at rest, and uncontrolled muscle contraction
are all
symptoms of damage to the basal nuclei.

TRUE

275

20) Projection fibers in the brain mainly connect the right and left hemispheres.

FALSE

276

21) Most of the ascending and descending pathways to and from the brain cross over from
one
side of the body to the other.

TRUE

277

22) The primary visual cortex contains a map of visual space.

TRUE

278

23) One functional center found within the medulla oblongata is a respiratory center
involved in
the control of the rate and depth of breathing.

TRUE

279

24) Sorting of sensory information and relaying it to the appropriate cerebral sensory area
occurs
in the hypothalamus.

FALSE

280

25) Sensory areas of the cortex for the genitals are located deep in the postcentral gyrus.

TRUE

281

26) Embryonic damage to the mesencephalon could result in improper formation of the
midbrain

TRUE

282

1) Adipose tissue is one of the most hydrated of all tissues in the human body.

FALSE

283

2) The most abundant cation in intracellular fluid is sodium.

FALSE

284

3) Electrolytes determine most of the chemical and physical reactions of the body.

TRUE

285

4) Solutes, regardless of size, are able to move freely between compartments because water
carries them along the osmotic gradients.

FALSE

286

5) The thirst center in the brain is located in the hypothalamus.

TRUE

287

6) Dehydration can be caused by endocrine disturbances such as diabetes mellitus or
diabetes
insipidus.

TRUE

288

7) It is impossible to overhydrate because people need as much water as they can drink to
carry
out ordinary body functions.

FALSE

289

8) Water imbalance, in which output exceeds intake, causing an imbalance in body fluids, is
termed dehydration.

TRUE

290

9) Salts are lost from the body in perspiration, feces, and urine.

TRUE

291

10) Hypoproteinemia reflects a condition of unusually high levels of plasma proteins and
causes
tissue edema.

FALSE

292

11) While the sodium content of the body may be altered, its concentration in the ECF
remains
stable because of immediate adjustments in water volume.

TRUE

293

12) Sodium is pivotal to fluid and electrolyte balance and to the homeostasis of all body
systems.

TRUE

294

13) When aldosterone release is inhibited, sodium reabsorption cannot occur beyond the
collecting
tube.

TRUE

295

14) Aldosterone stimulates the reabsorption of sodium while enhancing potassium secretion.

TRUE

296

15) Pressure diuresis decreases blood volume and blood pressure.

TRUE

297

16) Aldosterone is secreted in response to low extracellular potassium.

FALSE

298

17) To remain properly hydrated, water intake must equal water output.

TRUE

299

18) The main way the kidney regulates potassium ions is to excrete them.

TRUE

300

19) Atrial natriuretic peptide reduces blood pressure and blood volume by inhibiting nearly
all
events that promote vasodilation and potassium and water retention.

FALSE

301

20) Premenstrual edema may be due to enhanced reabsorption of sodium chloride.

TRUE

302

21) Heavy consumption of salt substitutes high in potassium can present a serious clinical
problem when aldosterone release is not normal.

TRUE

303

22) Hypercalcemia causes muscle tetany.

FALSE

304

23) The two hormones responsible for the regulation of calcium are pituitary hormone and
calcitonin.

FALSE

305

24) Calcitonin targets the bones and causes the release of calcium from storage when serum
levels
are low.

FALSE

306

25) The normal pH of blood is 7.35 7.45.

TRUE

307

26) Most acidic substances (hydrogen ions) originate as byproducts
of cellular metabolism.

TRUE

308

27) Weak acids are able to act as chemical buffering systems for the body because they
partially dissociate.

TRUE

309

28) The phosphate buffer system is relatively unimportant for buffering blood plasma.

TRUE

310

29) The single most important blood buffer system is the bicarbonate buffer system.

TRUE

311

30) One of the most powerful and plentiful sources of buffers is the protein buffer system.

TRUE

312

31) As ventilation increases and more carbon dioxide is removed from the blood, the
hydrogen
ion concentration of the blood decreases.

TRUE

313

32) Regulation of the acidbase
system is accomplished mainly through respiratory control,
and the kidneys also play a small role.

FALSE

314

Severe damage to the respiratory system rarely will result in acidbase
imbalances.

FALSE

315

34) Respiratory acidosis results when lungs are obstructed and gas exchange is inefficient.

TRUE

316

35) Prolonged hyperventilation can cause alkalosis.

TRUE