micro 4 Flashcards


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1

the first and second line defense against microbial invasion are part of

innate- nonspecific immunity

2

adaptive immunity is sometimes called acquired immunity, which of the following statements provides a basis for the alternative name

to become activated lymphocytes require exposure to antigen in which they are specific

3

which of the following vaccines is an infection

attenuated

4

redness, swelling and itching of urticaria is due to _____ release

histamine

5

phagocytic cells in the epidermis known as ____ contribute to its ability to prevent microbial invasion

dendritic cells

6

which of the following is an exogenic antigen

bacteria outside the cell

7

discovery of antibodies and understanding of their action leads to ____ for disease

passive immunization

8

jess has A- blood type, has never received a blood transfusion, and has never been pregnant. Antibodies against what blood antigens will be present in Jess blood

B antigens

9

surface of the skin serves as a barrier to microbial invasion in part because

acidic, high salt environment

10

WBC are responsible for adaptive immunity are

B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes

11

passive immunization is used when

protection against a recent infection disease is needed immediately

12

how is hemolytic disease of a new birth prevented

administering RhoGam

13

mucous and sweat contains _____ which damage and kill bacteria

antimicrobial peptides

14

antibody response is attributed to the action of

B lymphocytes

15

serilogical test for diagnosis of disease may detect

either antigens or antibodies specific for certain antigens

16

constriction of the airways and mucous production of asthma is the result of _____ response

type 1 hypersensitivity

17

monocyte leaves capillary in the lugs and enters lung tissue. It then matures to become

alveolar macrophages

18

which of the following cytokines act as a signal between leukocytes

interleukins

19

exposure to HIV can be verified using a

Western Blot assay

20

if circulating immune complexes are deposited in the glomeruli, the ensuing type 3 hypersensitivity reaction can result in

kidney damage

21

healthy cells produce ____ in response to interferons

antiviral proteins

22

which of the following recognizes binds to MHC 2 antigens

CD4

23

individuals with egg allergies cannot receive flu vaccines because of the risk of which of the following

anaphylactic shock

24

small amounts of antigen is under the skin of patient. after 30 minutes there is no apparent change at the injection site, but 36 hours later the patient reports that the area is red and swollen. this type of response is due to

type IV hypersensitivity

25

which of the following substances stimulated phagocytic activity of phagocytes

gamma interferons

26

which type of the immunity produce by the body when a person contracts the disease

natural acquired active immunity

27

which of the following types of vaccine should not be given to pregnant women or immunocompromised person

attenuated vaccines

28

PPD and TB response mediated by

memory T-cells

29

the phenomenal of _____ facilitates the binding of phagocyte pseudopodia to pathogens

opsonization

30

what is the result when a dendritic cell phagocytes a microbe and processes it

display of microbial epitope MHC 2 complexes on the cell surface

31

why are subunit vaccines often preferred over whole agent vaccines

they tend to cause less of an inflammatory response

32

which of the following statements concerning allografts is true

they induce strong type IV hypersensitivity reactions and must be treated with immunosuppresive drugs

33

_______ cells play a role in preventing neoplastic cell from professing to cancer

natural killer

34

vaccination triggers immune response which produces

artifical active immunity

35

many adjuvants can cause inflammatory reactions that make vaccines containing them problematic. without an adjuvant, which of the following modifications would make an inactivated vaccine more effective

increase the dosage and number of doses of the vaccine

36

antigen-antibody complexes trapped in tissue and triggering complement activation or mast cell degranulation are characteristics of

type 3 hypersensitivity

37

tears contain which of the following antibacterial substances

lysozyme

38

which of the following best describes IgM antibodies

they are most common type of antibody in the blood during the initial phases of immune response

39

the scientist wishes to produce a recumbent DNA vaccine . which of the following would be most useful for this task

plasmas

40

person with type b blood who can he get blood from

type b or type o

41

which of the following leukocytes is responsible for immune response against helminths

eosinophils

42

physician wants to stimulate immunological memory in a patient. which of the following types of immunity would be most useful

artificially acquired active immunity

43

the DtaP vaccine is given 4 times in first 18 months of life because its combination of

toxid vaccine and subunit vaccine

44

PT's with which of the following types grafts would require the most extensive therapy with the immunosuppressive drugs

xenograft

45

why are smokers more likely to have infections with respiratory pathogens

poisons in tobacco smoke damage ciliated columnar cells

46

which of the following would be unlikely to cause cell-mediated immune response

staphylococcus aureus

47

attenuated virus vaccine are produced by which of the following processes

growth in tissue culture cells for many generations

48

which of the following groups of individuals is most susceptible in general to autoimmune disease

older women

49

phagocytic cells associated with epidermis are called

dendritic cells

50

which of these are not a function of an anitbody

activating T cytotoxic cells