micro cumulative final review Flashcards


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chapters 1, 2, 3,4-6 , 7, 10-11, 13 including homework and quizzes
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1

All cellular organisms are classified as

A. Bacteria

B. Archaea

C. Eukarya

All three are cellular organism classifications.

2

Protists contain all of the following forms of life except

A.protozoa

B.fungi

C.slime molds

D.algae

E. amoeba

fungi

3

True or False: Viruses are not generally studied by microbiologists because they are not classified as living organisms

False

4

True or False: Prokaryotes have a relatively complex morphology and a true,membrane-delimited nucleus.

False

5

Which of the following distinguish the field of microbiology from other fields of biology?

A.The size of the organism studied.

B.The techniques used to study organisms regardless of their size.

C.Both the size of the organism studied and the techniques employed in the study of organisms.

D.Neither the size of the organism studied nor the techniques employed in the study of organisms regardless of their size.

Both the size of the organism studied and the techniques employed in the study of organisms.

6

The concept that living organisms arise from nonliving material is called

Spontaneous generation

7

__was the first to observe and accurately describe microorganisms.

van Leeuwenhoek

8

Redi’s experiment included both a dish of meat covered with cheesecloth and an uncovered dish of meat to show

A. maggots did not appear under any circumstances

B. spontaneous generation would occur if the air could get to the meat

C. that maggots would only appear if flies had access to the meat

D. that bacteria would not grow on the meat

E. air was necessary to produce maggots

that maggots would only appear if flies had access to the meat

9

The first step in using Koch’s method for determining the organism causing disease is to:

A. Observe the organism in sick animals, but not healthy ones

B. Isolate the different organisms in sick animals, and inject them into healthy subjects

C. Identify the species of the organisms infecting sick animals

D. Grow each organism in pure culture

E. Observe the same disease in animals injected with the purified organism

Observe the organism in sick animals, but not healthy ones

10

True or False: Although developed over 100 years ago, Koch's postulates continue to be used successfully in all known human infectious diseases.

False

11

True or False: All microorganisms can be grown on nutrient agar plates

False

12

If you are working in a laboratory and wish to create a pure culture of a virus, which of the following would best allow you to do this?

A. A nutrient agar plate with LB media.

B. A tube of nutrient media broth.

C. A flask of living cells and nutrient media.

D. All of the above would allow you to do this.

E. None of the above as viruses cannot be cultured in the lab.

A flask of living cells and nutrient media.

13

The branch of microbiology that deals with the mechanisms by which the human body protects itself from disease-causing organisms is called _____

Immunology

14

__ microbiology involves the use of microorganisms to make products such as antibiotics, vaccines, steroids, alcohols, vitamins, amino acids, and enzymes.

Industrial microbiology

15

True or False: . When looking through a compound microscope at an image, the visual image seen is actually upside down

True

16

18. What is the purpose of a lens in a microscope?

A. To focus light rays at a specific place called the focal point.

B. To bend and refract light waves away from a specimen on a slide.

C. To provide a light source under a specimen.

D. To improve resolution of the image through adjustments of the stage.

E. To measure the ability to gather light and resolve fine specimen detail at a fixed object distance

A. To focus light rays at a specific place called the focal point.

17

The _____________ is a measure of how greatly a substance slows the velocity of light.

A. reflective index

B. condensing power

C. refractive index

D. resolving powe

rE. condenser

refractive index

18

Which of the following would provide the greatest amount of resolution in a microscope?

A. A low power magnification

B. A larger numerical aperture

C. A shorter focal length

D. B and C together would give the best resolution

E. All of the abovetogetherwould give the best resolution possible

Both a larger numerical aperture and a shorter focal length

19

In______________ the visual image is formed by light reflected or refracted by the specimen and is used to view a bright image of the object against a dark background

dark-field microscopy

20

In ______________ the visual image is formed by converting differences in refractive index/cell density into detected variations in light intensity.

Phase-contrast microscopy

21

_____________ produces a magnification of 100 million times and can view atoms on a solid surface.

Scanning probe microscopy

22

True or False: An advantage of phase contrast microscopy is that living cells do not have to be killed with stains in order to be visualized.

True

23

Which of the following is NOT true about SEM (scanning electron microscopy)

A. Uses electrons excited from the surface of a specimen to create detailed image

B. Can create 3-D images

C. Creates images using the back scatter of electrons or by capturing secondary electrons from the surface of the object to be visualized.

D. Images produced by SEM gain colors based on the fluorescent indexes of electrons

E. All of the above are true about SEM.

Images produced by SEM gain colors based on the fluorescent indexes of electrons

24

True or False: "Microbiologists study a variety of organisms, but all are considered either Bacteria or Archaea"

False

25

A mis-folded protein

A prion

26

Cells with a relatively complex morphology that have a true membrane-delimited nucleus are called

eukaryotes

27

The concept that human and animal diseases are caused by microorganisms is called the

Germ Theory

28

Who of the following developed a set of criteria that could be used to establish a causative link between a particular microorganism and a particular disease?

Fracastoro

Koch

Pasteur

Lister

Koch

29

Who of the following was the first to observe and accurately describe microorganisms?

van Leeuwenhoek

Koch

Semmelweiss

Lister

van Leeuwenhoek

30

Who of the following provided the evidence needed to discredit the concept of spontaneous generation?

Pasteur Koch Semmelweiss Lister

Pasteur

31

True or False: The relationship between specific bacteria and specific diseases was first demonstrated by Koch.

True

32

Whose work on spontaneous generation first demonstrated the existence of a very heat-resistant form of bacteria that are called endospores?

Schwann Redi Tyndall Pasteur

Tyndall

33

Antiseptic surgery was pioneered by

Pasteur Jenner Lister Kitasato

Lister

34

True or False: "Although developed over 100 years ago, Koch's postulates continue to be used successfully in all known human infectious diseases. "

False

35

True or False: Agar is used as a solidifying agent for microbiological media because it is not readily digested by most microorganisms.

True

36

True or False: All microorganisms can be grown on nutrient agar plates.

False

37

"If you are working in a laboratory and wish to create a pure culture of a virus, which of the following would best allow you to do this?"

A nutrient agar plate with LB media.

A tube of nutrient media broth.

A flask of living cells and nutrient media.

All of the above would allow you to do this.

A flask of living cells and nutrient media.

38

The branch of microbiology that deals with diseases of humans and animals is called __________ microbiology.

Medical microbiology

39

The branch of microbiology that deals with the mechanisms by which the human body protects itself from disease-causing organisms is called __________.

Immunology

40

__________ microbiologists monitor community food establishments and water supplies in order to control the spread of communicable diseases.

Public Health

41

The branch of microbiology that studies the relationship between microorganisms and their habitats is called __________.

Microbial ecology

42

"__________ microbiology involves the use of microorganisms to make products such as antibiotics, vaccines, steroids, alcohols, vitamins, amino acids, and enzymes. "

Industrial

43

"In an outbreak of the bacteria E. coli, who would be the most likely type of microbiologist to respond to the outbreak?"

An immunologist

An industrial microbiologist

A public health microbiologist

A molecular geneticis

A public health microbiologist

44

. Which of the following external structures are found in archaea but not bacteria?

A. pili

B. flagella

C. hami

D. peptidoglycan

E. All of the above are found in both bacteria and archaea

hami

45

Which of the following statements about archaeal plasma membranes is TRUE?

A. The plasma membrane is always a lipid bilayer that lacks integral membrane proteins.

B. The plasma membrane must be a lipid bilayer with embedded proteins.

C. The plasma membrane contains peptidoglycan.

D. The plasma membrane can be a lipid monolayer.

E. None of the above statements are true.

The plasma membrane can be a lipid monolayer.

46

Diglycerol tetraether lipids __________.

A. are a characteristic feature of thermophilicbacteria

B. tend to make the membrane less rigid

C. are found in bothbacteria and archaeaD. form typical bilayer membranes in thermophilic eukaryotes

E. are found in thermophilicarchaea

are found in thermophilicarchaea

47

The plasma membrane of eukaryotes contains all of the following except

A. sterols

B. phosphoglycerides

C. sphingolipids

D. peptidoglycan

E. cholesterol

peptidoglycan

48

How do eukaryotic cells move large particles out of a cell?

A. endocytosis

B. exocytosis

C. phagocytosis

D. pinocytosis

E. group translocation

exocytosis

49

__________ is used for the breakdown and recycling of cytoplasmic componentsin eukaryotic cells.

A. Receptor mediated endocytosis

B. Formation of clathrin coated pits

C. Macroautophagy

D. Caveolin-dependent endocytosis

E. Macropinocytosis

Macroautophagy

50

Which of the following is FALSE?

A. Histones are found in chromatin.

B. Histones are used to help coil DNA.

C. Histones are proteins.

D. Groups of histones and chromatin form nucleosomes.

E. Histones are found in prokaryotic and eukaryotic microorganisms.

E. Histones are found in prokaryotic and eukaryotic microorganisms.

51

Bacteria have a nucleolus.

A. True

B. False

False

52

Which of the following provides evidence in support of the endosymbiotic hypothesis?

A. Double membrane surrounding mitochondria.

B.Double membrane surrounding chloroplasts.

C. Observation of division by binary fission in mitochondria.

D. A and B only

E. A, B, and C

Double membrane surrounding mitochondria, Double membrane surrounding chloroplasts, Observation of division by binary fission in mitochondria.

53

Mitochondria have their own extra nuclear DNA.

A. True

B. False

True

54

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A. A virion is complete virus particle.

B. All virions have an envelope.

C. All virions have a nucleocapsid.

D. All virions have a nucleocapsid, but not all have an envelope.

E. Virion capsids are comprised of protomers.

All virions have an envelope.

55

Which of the following is NOT a form of viral genetic material?

A. ds DNA

B. ss DNA

C. ds RNA

D. ss RNA

E. All of the above are forms of viral genetic material.

All of the above are forms of viral genetic material.

56

what capsid shape is represented in the Ebola virus?

Helical

57

A virus that infects bacteria specifically is referred to as a

A. bacteriophage

B. bacterial virion

C. virube

D. V4

E. protease

bacteriophage

58

Unlike bacteria, viruses do not have enzymes.

A. True

B. False

False

59

Why does influenza typically infect lung cells but not brain cells?

A. Due to the preference for macrophages over neuronal cells.

B. Due to host specificity.

C. Due to tissue tropism.

D. Due to host tropism.

E. Due to tissue deselectivity.

Due to tissue tropism.

60

___ viruses typically lyse host cells upon release.

A. Enveloped

B. Non-enveloped

Non-enveloped

61

In the __________, phage DNA inserts into bacterial host genome where it is copied as a cell divides.

A. lytic cycle

B. acute cycle

C. virulent cycle

D. lysogenic cycle

E. archaeal cycle

lysogenic cycle

62

Genes whose expression (or abnormal expression) causes cancer are called ___________.

A. carcinogens

B. progenies

C. cancerous genes

D. prototype genes

E. oncogenes

oncogenes

63

A plaque in virology refers to

A. a complete virus particle

B. anincomplete virus particle

C. a complete and infectious virus particle

D. an incomplete and infectious particle

E. a complete but non-infectious particle

a complete and infectious virus particle

64

The smallest amount of virus needed to cause infection in 50% of exposed host cells or organisms is called the__________.

A. lethal dose

B. infectious dose

C. innocuousdose

D. preferred dose

E. virulence dose

infectious dose

65

____are infectious nucleic acids that encode their own capsid proteins when helped by a helper virus.

A. Satellites

B. Prions

C. Viroids

D. Virions

E. Caspases

Satellites

66

You diagnose a patient with Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease. Will prescribing antibiotics help this patient with their condition?

A. Yes because it is a bacterialdisease.

B. No because it is a satellite disease.

C. No because it is a viral disease.

D. Yes because it is a viroid disease.

E. No because it is a prion disease

No because it is a prion disease

67

A circular shape in a microorganism is called

coccus

68

Diplo

Pair

69

Strepto

chain

70

Staphylo

cluster

71

A rod-shaped microorganism

Bacillus

72

A curved rod

Vibrio

73

A coil-shaped microogranism

Spirilla

74

Spiral-shaped Microorganism

Spirochete

75

Helical shaped microorganism

Helicobacter

76

These cells lack a true membrane-delimited nucleus

Prokaryotic cells

77

These cells have a membrane-enclosed nucleus, are more complex morphologically, and are usually larger than prokaryotic cells

Eukaryotic cells

78

Usually single-celled, Majority have cell wall with peptidoglycan

Most lack a membrane-bound nucleus

Ubiquitous and some live in extreme environments

Bacteria

79

Distinguished from Bacteria by unique rRNA gene sequences

No peptidoglycan in cell walls

Have unique membrane lipids

Some have unusual metabolic characteristics

Many live in extreme environments

Archaea

80

algae, protozoa, slime molds, and water molds are examples of

Protists

81

Yeast and mold are examples of

Fungi

82

smallest of all microbes

requires host cell to replicate

cause range of diseases, some cancers

Viruses

83

infectious agents composed of RNA

Viroids

84

Infectious proteins

Prions

85

first person to observe and describe microorganisms accurately

Antony van Leeuwenhoek (1632-1723)

86

Belief that life comes from nonliving matter

Spontaneous Generation

87

The idea that living things only come from living things

Biogenesis

88

discredited spontaneous generation when he showed that maggots on decaying meat came from fly eggs and did not arise from the meat its self

Francesco Redi(1626-1697)

89

his experiment: First boiling, then sealing mutton broth in flasks, which resulted in a cloudy broth with microogranisms

John Needham (1713-1781)

90

This scientist first sealed, then boiled mutton broth in flasks, which resulted in no growth of microorganisms

Lazzaro Spallanzani(1729-1799)

91

These two set out to show there were living things in the air

Franz Shultzeand Theodor Schwann (1836)

92

Swan-neck flask’ experiments answered issues of critics about air and heat

Louis Pasteur (1822-1895)

93

The earliest established connection between microorganisms and disease were found in human diseases such as cholera and tuberculosis.

T/F?

False

94

demonstrated microorganisms carried out fermentations and developed the method of pastuerization, helping French wine industry

Louis Pasteur (1822-1895)

95

developed a system of surgery designed to prevent microorganisms from entering wounds as well as methods for treating instruments and surgical dressings

Joseph Lister

96

Established the relationship between Bacillus anthracis and anthrax

Robert Koch (1843-1910)

97

1.The suspected disease agent must be observed in every animal that has the disease, but not in healthy animals

2. The suspected disease agent must be extracted from a diseased animal and grown in a "pure" culture away from other types of cells, i.e., isolated from other possible disease agents

3. The suspected disease agent, which has been grown in the pure culture, must now be injected into healthy animals

4. The healthy animals must become diseased and the suspected disease agent must be observed in their bodies.

Koch's Postulates

98

Are there any limitations to Koch’s postulates?

Some organisms cannot be grown in pure culture

Using humans in completing the postulates is unethical

99

Q. How can limitations to Koch's postulates be overcome?

Molecular and genetic evidence may replace and overcome these limits

100

revolutionized all medicine by discovering the world's first antibiotic, or bacteria killer

Alexander Fleming (1881 -1955)

101

___ is concerned with the impact of microorganisms on agriculture

Agricultural microbiology

102

____ studies metabolic pathways of microorganisms

Microbial physiology

103

____ study the nature of genetic information and how it regulates the development and function of cells and organisms

Molecular biology

104

a measure of how greatly a substance slows the velocity of light

Refractive index

105

Distance between center of lens and focal point

Focal Length

106

Light rays are focused at a specific place called

focal point

107

the ability to distinguish closely spaced points as separate

Resolution

108

Distance between the front surface of lens and surface of cover glass or specimen when it is in sharp focus

Working distance

109

As you increase in magnification power, what happens to the working distance?

Working distance decreases as you increase in magnification power

110

Shorter wavelength = ?

greater resolution

111

a measure of its ability to gather light and resolve fine specimen detail at a fixed object distance

Numeric aperture

112

Why is the highest power objective lens referred to as the “oil immersion” lens?

Oil must be used to improve the refractive index of light to allow for appropriate resolution of images under the microscope.

113

4 cocci in a square

tetrads

114

sarcinae

cubic configuration of 8 cocci

115

network of long, multinucleate filaments

Mycelium

116

Which of the following is not a macromolecule?

1. Carbohydrates

2. Proteins

3. Lipids

4. Nucleic acids

5. Carbon Dioxide

Carbon Dioxide

117

These macromolecules are comprised of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in the ratio CH2O

Carbohydrates

118

These are complex macromolecules made from linking together amino acids by peptide bonds

Proteins

119

hydrophobic molecules that include fats, steroids, and phospholipids, and play a critical role in cell membranes

Lipids

120

the storage facilities for all the genetic material in life

Nucleic Acids

121

a sugar + a phosphate + a nitrogenous base = ?

A nucelotide

122

required in trace amounts

Micronutrients

123

Mn, Zn, Co, Mo, Ni, and Cu are examples of

Micronutrients

124

required in relatively large amounts

Macroelements

125

C, H, N, O, P, S, K, Ca, Mg, and Fe are examples of

Macroelements

126

transport mechanism used by Bacteria and Archaea

Group Translocation

127

the movement of molecules from area of high concentration to low concentration

Diffusion

128

diffusion of small, hydrophobic molecules across the membrane

Passive transport

129

the transport of hydrophilic and charged molecules across the membrane

Facilitated diffusion

130

the movement of water across a membrane

Osmosis

131

When a solution is ______ the concentration of a solute is equal on both sides of the cell membrane

isotonic

132

When a solution is _____ the concentration of a solute is greater on the inside of the cell membrane

hypotonic

133

When a solution is ___________ the concentration of a solute is greater outside of the cell membrane

hypertonic

134

_____ requires that a cell expend energy to move molecules across a membrane.

Active Transport

135

a membrane-bound vesicle fuses with the membrane and expels the large molecule

Exocytosis

136

a vesicle forms around a large molecule and brings it into the cell

Endocytosis

137

Rigid structure that lies just outside the cell plasma membrane

Two types based on standard Gram staining

Peptidoglycan

138

stain purple; thick peptidoglycan

Gram-positive

139

stain pink or red; thin peptidoglycan and outer membrane

Gram-negative

140

Outermost layer in the cell envelope

Glycocalyx

141

short, thin, hairlike, proteinaceous appendages (up to 1,000/cell) that can mediate attachment to surfaces, motility, DNA uptake

Fimbriae

142

longer, thicker, and less numerous (1-10/cell)–and are required for conjugation

Sex pili

143

one flagellum

Monotrichous

144

flagella at each end of the cell

Polar flagellum

145

one flagellum at each end of cell

amphitrichous

146

cluster of flagella at one or both ends

Lophotrichous

147

flagella spread over entire surface of cell

Peritrichous

148

Movement toward chemical attractant or away from chemical repellent

Chemotaxis

149

In flagella, counterclockwise (CCW) rotation causes forward motion and is called

Run

150

In flagella, clockwise rotation (CW) disrupts run causing cell to stop is called

Tumble

151

Complex, dormant structure formed by some bacteria and is resistant to numerous environmental conditions

Endospore

152

Why are bacteria haploid?

They do not undergo sexual reproduction

153

Binary fission and budding are examples of what type of reproduction?

Asexual

154

True or False: There is no mitotic phase for bacteria.

True

155

True or False: All bacterial chromosomes are circular

False. Most bacterial chromosomes are circular

156

The site at which replication begins on a bacterial chromosome

origin of replication

157

The site at which replication is terminated, located opposite of the origin on a bacterial chromosome

Terminus

158

A group of proteins needed for DNA synthesis

Replisome

159

formation of cross walls between daughter cells

Septation

160

These microbes grow optimally in the presence of NaCl or other salts at a concentration above about 0.2M

Halophiles

161

These microbes require salt concentrations of 2M and 6.2M

Extreme Halophiles

162

What is the difference between a halotolerant microbe and a halophile?

“–phile” implies “a love of”. Halotolerant microbes will tolerateNaCl, but not like it

163

A chemical compound that releases H+to a solution is a(n)___

Acid

164

A compound that accepts H+and removes them from solution is a(n)__

Base

165

These microbes grow optimally between pH 0 and pH 5.5

Acidophiles

166

These microbes grow optimally between pH 5.5 and pH 7

Neutrophiles

167

These microbes grow optimally between pH 8.5 and pH 11.5

Alkalophiles

168

These microbes grow between 0 degrees C to 20 degrees C

Psychrophiles

169

These microbes grow between 0 degrees C to 35 degrees C

psychrotrophs

170

These microbes grow between 20degrees C to 45 degrees C

Mesophiles

171

These microbes grow between 55 degrees C to 85 degrees C

Thermophiles

172

These microbes grow between 85 degrees C to 113 degrees C

Hyoperthermophiles

173

These microbes grow in presence of atmospheric oxygen (O2) which is 20% O2

Aerobes

174

These microbes require O2

Obligate aerobe

175

These microbes grow in the absence of O2

Anaerobe

176

These microbes usually killed in presence of O2

Obligate anaerobe

177

These microbes do not require O2 but grow better in its presence

Facultative anaerobes

178

These microbes require 2–10% O2

Microaerophiles

179

____ grow with or without O2

Aerotolerant anaerobes

180

important antioxidant defense in nearly all living cells exposed to oxygen; out-competes damaging reactions of superoxide

Superoxide Dismutase (SOD)

181

Ubiquitous in nature in water, these are complex, slime enclosed communities of microbes

Biofilm

182

This media favors the growth of some microorganisms and inhibit growth of others

Selective media

183

This type of media can distinguish between different groups of microorganisms based on their biological characteristics

Differential media

184

True or False: Media can be selective or differential, but not both.

False. Media can be both selective and differential.

185

Which is not a phase in the growth curve?

Lag phase

Communal phase

Exponential(log) phase

Stationary phase

Death phase

Communal phase

186

At 8:00 a.m., a closed flask of sterile broth is inoculated with 1,000 cells. The lag phase lasts 2.5 hours. At 2:00 p.m. the log phase culture has a population of 6 million cells. The mean generation time is approximately_______?

3.5 hours/12.56 generations = 0.29 hours = ~20 minutes

187

What is used to accomplish microbial metabolism?

ATP

188

Chemical work, Transport work, and Mechanical work all make up

Microbial metabolism

189

In metabolism, the synthesis of complex molecules is __

Chemical work

190

In metabolism, take up of nutrients, elimination of wastes, and maintenance of ion balances is ___

Transport work

191

In metabolism, cell motility and movement of structures within cells is ____

Mechanical work

192

the breakdown of organic molecules

Catabolism

193

The synthesis of organic molecules

Anabolism

194

One is electron donating(oxidizing reaction)

One is electron accepting reaction (reducing reaction)

Oxidation-Reduction (redox) reaction

195

NAD, NADP, FAD, FMN, and CoQ are

electron carriers

196

____ speed up the rate at which a reaction proceeds toward its final equilibrium

Enzymes

197

protein component of an enzyme

Apoenzyme

198

non-protein component of an enzyme

Cofactor

199

firmly attached non-protein component of an enzyme

prosthetic group

200

loosely attached non-protein component of an enzyme

coenzyme

201

apoenzyme+ cofactor =

holoenzyme

202

Why would an enzyme denature at high temperatures?

It is a protein. Proteins denature at adversely high temperatures.

203

directly competes with binding of substrate to active site

competitive inhibitor

204

binds enzyme at site other than active site and changes enzyme’s shape so that it becomes less active

Noncompetitive inhibitor

205

_____ pathways are enzyme catalyzed reactions whereby the product of one reaction serves as the substrate for the next

catabolic

206

____ pathways function both as catabolic and anabolic pathways

amphibolic

207

What are these three pathways used for?

Embden-Meyerhof pathway

pentose phosphate pathway

Entner-Duodoroffpathway

Breakdown of glucose to pyruvate

208

Also known as glycolysis, this is the most common pathway for glucose degradation to pyruvate in stage two of aerobic respiration and can function with or without O2

The Embden-Meyerhof Pathway

209

True or False: The Embden-Meyerhof Pathway has three phases.

False; it has only two phases- six-carbon and three-carbon phases

210

Used by soil bacteria and a few gram-negative bacteria, this pathway replaces the first phase of the Embden-Meyerhof pathway and yields 1 ATP, 1 NADPH, and 1 NADH per glucose molecule

Entner-Duodoroff pathway

211

Also called the hexose monophosphate pathway, this pathway can operate at same time as glycolytic pathway or Entner-Duodoroff pathway

The Pentose Phosphate Pathway

212

Also called citric acid cycle and Kreb’scycle

•Common in aerobic bacteria, free-living protozoa, most algae, and fungi

•Major role is as a source of carbon skeletons for use in biosynthesis

•Summary: for each acetyl-CoA molecule oxidized, generate 2 molecules of CO2, 3 molecules of NADH, one FADH2, and one GTP

Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle

213

True or False: All electron transport chains are found in the mitochondrial inner membrane.

False. Bacteria and Archaea do not have mitochondria

214

The most widely accepted hypothesis to explain oxidative phosphorylation

Chemiosmotic Hypothesis of Oxidative Phosphorylation

215

The theoretical maximum total yield of ATP during aerobic respiration is

38

216

Net gain of 146 ATP under aerobic conditions

Fat catabolism

217

____ hydrolyzes protein to amino acids

Protease

218

___ is the removal of amino group from amino acid

Deamination

219

_____ bacteria oxidize ammonia to nitrate

Nitrifying

220

A process of photosynthesis where light energy is trapped and converted to chemical energy

Light reaction

221

A process of photosynthesis where energy produced in the light reactions is used to reduce CO2 and synthesize cell constituents

Dark reaction

222

_________ is the total of all chemical reactions occurring in the cell.

Metabolism

223

Cells carry out three major types of work; which of the following involves nutrient uptake and waste elimination?

Chemical work. Transport work. Mechanical work. None of these.

Transport work

224

Cells carry out three major types of work; which of the following involves energy for cell motility and the movement of structures within cells?

Chemical work. Transport work. Mechanical work. None of these.

Mechanical work

225

The change in __________ is the amount of energy in a system that is available to do work.

free energy

226

The __________ is the electron acceptor in a redox reaction.

oxidant

227

The standard reduction potential of a redox reaction is a measure of the tendency of the __________ to __________ electrons.Ê

reductant; lose

228

True or False: The equilibrium constant for a redox reaction is called the standard reduction potential.

True

229

Which of the following is used as an electron carrier by living organisms?

NAD+

NADP+

ubiquinone

all of the choices

NAD+, NADP+, and ubiquinnone

230

True or False: The electron transport chain is based on the principle that redox couples with more positive reduction potentials will donate electrons to couples with more negative potentials.Ê

False

231

Which of the following is not true about enzymes?

Enzymes are catalysts that speed up reactions.

Enzymes are proteins that can be denatured by changes in pH or temperature.

Enzymes are highly specific for the substrates they react with and catalyze only one or a limited set of possible reactions with those substrates.

All of the choices are true about enzymes

All of the choices are true about enzymes

232

The most specific term usually used to describe a substance in a biological system that increases the rate of a reaction without being permanently changed by the reaction is a(n)

enzyme

233

Enzymes catalyze a reaction byÊ

decreasing the activation energy of the reaction.

234

"The synthesis of ATP from ADP and Pi, when coupled with an exergonic chemical reaction is called __________ phosphorylation. Ê"

substrate-level

235

The net gain of ATP per molecule of glucose metabolized anaerobically via the Embden-Meyerhoff pathway in prokaryotes is Ê

2

236

The net gain of ATP per molecule of glucose metabolized to pyruvate using Entner-Doudoroff pathway is Ê

1

237

The pentose phosphate pathway produces Ê

CO2.

NADPH.

glyceraldehyde

3-phosphate.

all of the choices.

The pentose phosphate produces all three

238

The most common pathway for conversion of glucose to pyruvate is Ê

Embden-Meyerhoff.

239

The pyruvate dehydrogenase complex oxidizes and cleaves pyruvate to form one CO2 and Ê

acetyl-CoA

240

The TCA cycle generates all of the following from each acetyl-CoA molecule oxidized except Ê

three NADH molecules.

two CO2 molecules.

one FADH2 molecule.

two ATP or GTPÊmolecules.

two ATP or GTPÊmolecules.

241

The major function(s) of the TCA cycle is(are) Ê

energy production and provision of carbon skeletons for biosynthesis of cell components.

242

The most commonly accepted hypothesis for the production of ATP that results from electron transport system is called the __________ hypothesis. Ê

chemiosmotic

243

The electron transport systems in eukaryotes and prokaryotes use the same electron carriers. Ê

false; they use different electron carriers`]

244

"In higher eukaryotes, most aerobically generated ATP is produced by Ê"

a membrane bound proton translocating ATP synthase during oxidative phosphorylation.

245

"In aerobic conditions, it takes __________ sugar to produce the same amount of ATP when compared to anaerobic conditions.Ê"

less

246

The number of ATP molecules generated per atom of oxygen that is reduced when electrons are passed from NADH or reduced FAD (FADH) to O2 is called the Ê

P/O ratio.

247

Fermentation does not involve the use of pyruvate and/or other organic molecules as electron acceptors.Ê

False: fermentation does involve the use of pyruvate and/or other organic molecules as electron acceptors

248

Which of the following can be used as electron acceptors during anaerobic respiration?Ê

nitrate sulfate carbon dioxide

nitrate, sulfate, and carbon dioxide can all be used as electron acceptors

249

Fatty acids are metabolized by the __________ pathway. Ê

beta-oxidation

250

"During breakdown of fatty acids, carbons are removed __________ at a time with each turn of the cycle, and two carbon units are released Êas __________. Ê"

two; acetyl-CoA

251

Amino acids are processed first by the removal of the amino group through Ê

deamination or transamination

252

Which of the following may be used as sources of energy by chemolithotrophs?Ê

Hydrogen gas. Reduced nitrogen compounds. Reduced sulfur compounds.

all three can be used as sources of energy by chemolithotrophs

253

Photosynthetic electron transport in cyanobacteria takes place Ê

on the thylakoid membranes.

254

Most bacterial and archaeal cells divide by

binary fission

255

"The cell elongates, replicates its chromosome, and separates the chromosome into the two parts of the cell, and a septum forms at midcell."

the correct order for binary fission

256

The actin-like protein that seems to be involved in determining cell shape is

MreB

257

"During cytokinesis, a critical step in septation is the assembly of the "

Z ring

258

Quorum sensing

is a phenomenon in which bacteria monitor their own population density.

depends on the sensing of signal protein molecules.

plays an important role in formation of biofilms by Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

All three describe quorum sensing

259

Which of the following can be used to isolate pure cultures of bacteria from mixtures?

spread plates streak plates pour plates

all three are methods to isolate pure cultures or bacteria

260

Media containing some ingredients of unknown chemical composition are called __________ media.

complex

261

"Mannitol salt agar (MSA) only allows the growth of halophiles (salt-loving microbes); nonhalophiles will not grow. Among the halophiles, mannitol fermenters will produce acid that turns the pH indicator yellow; mannitol nonfermenters leave the medium red. Onto MSA you inoculate a halophilic mannitol fermenter and a halophilic mannitol nonfermenter. In this case, the medium is acting as (a) __________ medium/"

differential

262

"Mannitol salt agar (MSA) only allows the growth of halophiles (salt-loving microbes). Among the halophiles, mannitol fermenters release acid that turns the pH indicator yellow; mannitol nonfermenters leave the medium red. Onto MSA you inoculate a halophilic mannitol nonfermenter and a nonhalophilic mannitol nonfermenter. Here the medium acts as a __________ medium. "

selective

263

Media in which all components and their concentration are known are called __________ media.

defined

264

The total number of viable microorganisms remains constant in stationary phase because

either there is a balance between cell division and cell death or there is a cessation of cell division even though the cells may remain metabolically active.

265

Cells may enter stationary phase because of

the depletion of an essential nutrient.

a lack of available oxygen.

the accumulation of toxic waste products.

all three may cause a cell to enter stationary phase

266

Which of these methods can be used to determine the number of viable microorganisms in a sample?

Light scattering in a spectrophotometer.

Measuring total cell mass.

Measuring colony forming units per ml.

Counting a known volume of cells in a hemocytometer.

Measuring colony forming units per ml.

267

Microorganisms are most nearly uniform in terms of chemical and physiological properties during __________ phase.

exponential

268

Which of the following is a reason for the occurrence of a lag phase in a bacterial growth curve?

"The cells may be old and depleted of ATP, essential cofactors, and ribosomes that must be synthesized before growth can begin."

The medium may be different from the previous growth medium so that the cells must synthesize new enzymes to use different nutrients.

The organisms may have been injured and require time to recover.

All of these are potential reasons.

All of these are potential reasons.

269

"If all cell components are synthesized at constant rates relative to one another, the culture is said to be in __________ growth; however, if the rates of synthesis of some components change relative to the rates of synthesis of other components, the culture is said to be in __________ growth. "

balanced; unbalanced

270

"Given a log phase bacterial culture with 1 x 10^6 cells per ml and a generation time of 30 minutes, how long does it take the culture to reach a density of 6.4x 10^7 cells per ml? "

3 hours

271

"At 4:00 p.m. a closed flask of sterile broth is inoculated with 10,000 cells. The lag phase lasts 1 hour. At 9:00 p.m. the log phase culture has population of 65 million cells. The approximate number of generations that has occurred is"

13

272

"At 4:00 p.m. a closed flask of sterile broth is inoculated with 10,000 cells. The lag phase lasts 1 hour. At 9:00 p.m. the log phase culture has a population of 65 million cells. The mean generation time is approximately"

20 minutes

273

The Archaea generally lack which of the following that are normally found in gram-negative bacteria?

Outer membrane.

A complex peptidoglycan network.

Lipopolysaccharide.

archaea lack all three features

274

A feature unique to some archaeal plasma membranes is that they may

consist of a lipid monolayer.

275

Because archaeons lack peptidoglycan in their cell walls

some have an outer layer of complex polysaccharide and some have an outer layer of protein

276

Archaeal membranes contain which of the following lipids?

phospholipids sulfolipids glycolipids

archaea contain all three lipids

277

Diglycerol tetraether lipids

are a characteristic feature of thermophilic Archaea.

278

"Which of the following organelles is involved in the modification, packaging, and secretion of materials? "

golgi apparatus

279

Receptor mediated endocytosis

"depends on formation of clathrin coated pits that pinch off and is used to internalize molecules such as hormones, growth factors, iron, and cholesterol."

280

The nucleolus plays a major role in synthesis of

RNA

281

Which is not true of viruses?

They can exist in an intracellular or extracellular phase.

They infect animal and plant cells only.

They replicate only inside host cells. They are acellular.

They infect animal and plant cells only.

282

A complete virus particle is called a

virion

283

The nucleic acids carried by viruses usually consist of

either DNA or RNA.

284

Which of the following is not true of viruses?

Viruses are acellular.

Viruses consist of one or more molecules of DNA or RNA enclosed in a coat of protein and sometimes in other more complex layers.

Viruses can exist in two phases: intracellular and extracellular.

Viruses replicate by binary fission.

Viruses replicate by binary fission.

285

"In an enveloped virus, the part of the virus including the nucleic acid genome and the surrounding protein coat but not the envelope is called the "

nucleocapsid.

286

Viral capsid protein subunits are called

protomers

287

Glycoprotein spikes protruding from the outer surface of viral envelopes function as

factors that bind to host cells.

288

The function of the viral protein coat is to

protect the viral genetic material and aid in the transfer of the viral genetic material between host cells.

289

Most enveloped viruses use the host __________ membrane as their envelope source.

plasma

290

Nonenveloped viruses most often gain access to eukaryotic host cells by

endocytosis

291

Animal viruses have been cultivated in

suitable host animals.

embryonated eggs.

tissue cultures (monolayers of animal cells).

animal viruses have been cultivated in all three

292

A ________ assay is most useful for determining the viability of a viral preparation?

plaque

293

Viroids are of economic significance because they cause disease in

plants

294

Which of the following diseases is (are) caused by prions?

Scrapie. Mad cow disease. Kuru and Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease.

all three are prion caused diseases

295

Which of the following individuals or groups of individuals demonstrated that the transforming principle was DNA?

" Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty"

Griffith

Hershey and Chase

Watson and Crick

" Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty"

296

The principle of transformation was first demonstrated by which of the following individuals or groups of individuals?

" Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty"

Griffith

Hershey and Chase

Watson and Crick

Griffith

297

"Hershey and Chase demonstrated that when the bacteriophage T2 infected its host cell, the __________ is injected into the host but the __________ remained outside. "

DNA; protein

298

The genetic information in DNA is divided into units called

genes

299

Which of the following is true about the structure of DNA?

Purine and pyrimidine bases are attached to the 1'-carbon of the deoxyribose sugars.

Purine and pyrimidine bases are joined by phosphodiester bonds. "

Adjacent bases are stacked on top of each other, one base pair every 0.34 nm."

all of the above are true.

all of the above are true about DNA structure

300

Which of the following is not a pyrimidine?

adenine cytosine thymine uracil

adenine

301

"The two strands of a DNA molecule are __________; that is, they are oriented in opposite directions. "

antiparallel

302

"When a DNA molecule is replicated, the daughter molecules contain one strand of parental DNA and one strand of newly synthesized DNA; this is called __________ replication. "

semi-conservative

303

The chromosomes of most bacteria are comprised of

double-stranded circular molecules

304

During replication the 2 strands of the DNA molecule are unwound from one another by enzymes called

helicases

305

"The coding sequence in the DNA of __________ is normally continuous; that is, it is not interrupted by noncoding sequences. "

prokaryotes

306

The process by which the base sequence of all or a portion of a DNA molecule is used to direct the synthesis of an RNA molecule is called

transcription

307

The region at which the RNA polymerase binds is the __________ region.

promoter

308

"The transcribed, but not translated, sequence that is immediately upstream of the region that encodes the functional product is called the __________ region. "

leader

309

The unexpressed regions of split genes are called

introns

310

The strand of DNA for a particular gene that is copied by the RNA polymerase to form mRNA is called the __________ stran

template

311

Messenger RNA molecules that direct the synthesis of more than one polypeptide are said to be __________.

polycistronic

312

A consensus sequence in the untranslated leader sequence of a prokaryotic mRNA which serves as a ribosome binding site is called the __________ sequence.

Shine-Delgarno

313

The process by which the base sequence of an RNA molecule is used to direct the synthesis of a protein is called

translation.

314

________ molecules deliver amino acids to ribosomes during translation.

Transfer RNA (tRNA)

315

Which of the following is not a termination codon?

AUG UAA UAG UGA

316

The portion of the tRNA molecule that binds to the codon on the mRNA is called the

anticodon

317

What is the minimum number of aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase enzymes needed to attach amino acids to all the various tRNA molecules?

20

318

In __________ ribosomes can attach to the mRNA and begin translation even though transcription has not been complete

prokaryotes

319

The energy needed for protein synthesis is provided by the hydrolysis of

ATP and GTP

320

___________ in proteins includes alpha-helixes and beta-pleated sheets.

secondary structures

321

What are used to regulate protein folding to minimize the risk of protein mis-folding?

chaperones

322

A gram negative bacterium wishes to secrete a previously-folded virulence factor. Which of the following secretion systems would be used to accomplish this?

Type II SS