Micro immunology and diseases Flashcards


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1

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A. In adaptive immunity, there is self/non-self discrimination.

B. The specificity of the innate response is very high and the diversity is extensive

C. There is no memory component of the innate immune response

D. A hallmark of the adaptive immune response is the ability to create memories of antigens.

E. All of the above statements are correct.

B. The specificity of the innate response is very high and the diversity is extensive

2

Which of the following is NOT one of the primary tasks of the immune system?

A. Immunological memory

B. Immune regulation

C. Immunological recognition

D. Immune dynamic consistency

E. Immune effector function

D. Immune dynamic consistency

3

Which of the following is an example of naturally acquired active immunity?

A. Getting a cold.

B. Getting a flu shot.

C. A mother breast-feeding a baby.

D. Transfer of antibodies after being bitten by an animal with rabies.

E. None of the above.

A. Getting a cold.

4

. Which of the following cells are considered polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMN’s)?

A. Neutrophils

B. Basophils

C. Lymphocytes

D. A and B only

E. A and C only

D. A and B only

5

What type of effector cell produces antibodies?

A. eosinophils

B. NK cells

C. T-cells

D. B-cells

E. cytotoxic cells

D. B-cells

6

Which of the following effector cells is a phagocyte?

A. T-cell

B. plasma cell

C. macrophage

D. basophil

E. platelet

C. macrophage

7

Which of the following cells would be most useful for helping the body to fight an intracellular viral pathogen?

A. neutrophil

B. erythrocyte

C. cytotoxic T-cell

D. mast cell

E. suppressor T-cell

C. cytotoxic T-cell

8

All immune cells are originally derived from the

A. bone marrow

B. thymus

C. lymph nodes

D. thyroid

E. umbilical cord

A. bone marrow

9

All Gram positive cells are susceptible to lysosome.

A. True

B. False

False

10

Which of the following is NOT a class of T-cell?

A. CD8+

B. Plasma cell

C. CD4+

D. T-Memory

E. Suppressor T-cell

Plasma cell

11

What is the purpose of antigen presenting cells?

A. To produce antibodies

B. To induce neutrophil release of histamine

C. To tellmacrophages torelease massive amounts of cytokines

D. To activate helper T cells

E. All of the above

D. To activate helper T cells

12

T-cells recognize antigen presented by antigen presenting cells in MHC molecules.

A. True

B. False

A. True

13

Which ofthe following statements is FALSE?

A. Antibodies are secreted proteins that have the same antigen specificity as B-cell receptors.

B. CD4+ T-cells are activated by antigen presenting cells and,in turn,activate B-cells.

C. B-cells begin producing antibodies once CD8+ T-cells tell them to.

D. Both T-cells and B-cells can undergo clonal expansion.

E. CD4 and CD8 represent co-receptors on the surface of T-cells.

C. B-cells begin producing antibodies once CD8+ T-cells tell them to.

14

Which of the following is NOT considered part of the innate defense system?

A. Immunological surveillance by NK cells

B. Skin and mucous

C. Release of histamine from mast cells to promote inflammation

D. Complement deposition

E. Production of specific antibodies

E. Production of specific antibodies

15

Which of the following is NOT an outcome of complement activation?

A. Phagocytosis of opsonized pathogen.

B. Formation of MAC complex by subunits C5aC6-9.

C. Production of antibodies.

D. Recruitment of phagocytic cells.

E. All of the above are outcomes

C. Production of antibodies.

16

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. Innate responses are activated within hours of encountering an infectious agent

B. Adaptive defenses are induced within minutes or a couple hours of the innate response

C. Innate and adaptive responses are co-induced, but adaptive responses have a lag time

D. Adaptive responses are not induced unless innate responses are overwhelmed, bypassed, or evaded

E. None of the above statements are true.

D. Adaptive responses are not induced unless innate responses are overwhelmed, bypassed, or evaded

17

After the body has been exposed to a pathogen, how long does it take the adaptive immune system to respond to the pathogen the next time it enters the body?

A. Response is almost immediate after the adaptive system is activated.

B. Response is within days of signaling the problem.

C. Response can take up to 1 week.

D. Response is within days; however it can take up to 2-3 weeks for a full and complete response.

E. The adaptive immune system will not need to respond again after a memory has been made.

A. Response is almost immediate after the adaptive system is activated.

18

Defensins interfere with pathogen cell membranes.

A. True

B. False

A. True

19

Why is the complement system highly effective against many bacterial pathogens?

A. It produces MAC complexes that “punch” holes in cell membranes

B. It is made up of pre-made proteins already in circulation in the bloodstream

C. It can help promote inflammation and bring other leukocytes to sites of infection

D. It can complement the effects of antibodies to enhance clearance of pathogens

E. All of the above

E. All of the above

20

After a B-cell is activated by an antigen, what else must happen before it can begin producing antibodies?

A. Nothing, it can produce antibodies immediately

B. It must also be activated by a helper T-cell

C. It must be activated by a NK cell

D. It first must travel to the thymus where it produces antibodies with the help of monocytes

E. I’m out of answer choices. Pick something else.

B. It must also be activated by a helper T-cell

21

How old is the field of immunology?

Relatively new field; In 1796 did the earliest vaccination experiments

22

Who made observations about conferred protection from small pox from infection with milder cow pox?

Edward Jenner

23

What are the four main tasks of the immune system?

1. Immunological recognition –identification of a problem

2. Immune effector function –containment of the problem

3. Immune regulation –stopping excessive responses to a “problem”

4. Immunological memory –remembering a problem for the future

24

Peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMCs) are

Lymphocytes and monocytes

25

Polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs) are

Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils; nuclei shape varies

26

Lymphocytes make up 20–30% of circulating leukocytes and are

T cells, B cells, and NK cells

27

Approximately 80% of circulating lymphocytes are classified as

T cells

28

The type of T cell attacks foreign cells or body cells infected by viruses

CytotoxicT Cells

29

This type of T cell stimulate the activation and function of both T cells and B cells

Helper T cell

30

This type of T cell inhibit the activation and function of both T cells and B cells

Suppressor T cells

31

These cells are a subset of T cells that respond to a previously encountered antigen

Memory T cells

32

These cells make up10-15% of circulating lymphocytes

B cells

33

When stimulated, B cells can differentiate into _______, which produce and secrete antibodies

Plasma Cells

34

These cells release lytic granules that kill some virus-infected cells

NK cell

35

A vaccination is a good example of

naturally acquired passive immunity.

naturally acquired active immunity.

artificially acquired active immunity.

artificially acquired passive immunity.

artificially acquired active immunity

36

The immune system normally discriminates between __________ antigens.

self and nonself

B and T cells

humoral and cell-mediated

primary and secondary response

self and nonself

37

Adaptive immunity refers to the type of specific immunity that

all of the choices

develops after exposure to antigen.

can result from transfer of antibodies from one individual to another.

can be induced by natural or artificial means.

all of the choices

38

Which of the following is NOT considered part of the innate defense system?

Immunological surveillance by NK cells

Antibody production by B-cells

Release of histamine from mast cells to promote inflammation

Skin and mucous

Antibody production by B-cells

39

The humoral immune response differs from the cell-mediated immune response in that only in the humoral immune response is there

secretion of antibody.

a precommitted lymphocyte

a clonal selection mechanism.

the development of memory cells.

secretion of antibody.

40

T cells attack

host cells that have been parasitized by microorganisms.

transplanted tissue cells from one host to another.

cancer cells.

all of the choices

41

Immune cells produce and secrete factors which do not directly interact with invading microorganisms but which augment the body's defense mechanisms. These molecules are called

antibodies.

cytokines.

immunogens.

augmetins.

cytokines

42

The transfer of antibodies in breast milk is a good example of

naturally acquired passive immunity.

naturally acquired active immunity.

artificially acquired active immunity.

artificially acquired passive immunity.

naturally acquired passive immunity.

43

Class I and II MHC molecules

consists of a complex of two protein chains.

contains alpha-1 and alpha-2 domains that forms an antibody-binding pocket.

consists of a complex of two protein chains and contains alpha-1 and alpha-2 domains that forms an antibody-binding pocket.

neither consists of a complex of two protein chains nor contains alpha-1 and alpha-2 domains that forms an antibody-binding pocket.

consists of a complex of two protein chains.

44

Class I major histocompatibility complex molecules are found on ____________ cells.

all nucleated

antigen-presenting

all enucleated

none of the choices

all nucleated

45

Cytotoxic T lymphocytes are distinguished from other lymphocytes by the presence of

CD8.

MHC I.

CD4.

all of the choices

CD4.

46

Which type(s) of antigen-presenting cell can activate T cells?

macrophages

B cells

dendritic cells

all three types of antigen-presenting cells can activate T cells

47

The class of immunoglobulin transferred from mother to infant during breast-feeding is

IgA.

IgE.

IgG.

IgM.

IgA.

48

The only immunoglobulin class with members able to cross the placental barrier is

IgA.

IgM.

IgG.

IgD.

IgG.

49

Which of the following types of immunoglobulins is most abundant in serum?

IgG

50

The secondary immune response is typically stronger than the primary response because __________ during the secondary response

all classes of immunoglobulins are active

both B and T cells are activated

the antigen is weakened by the primary response

a larger population of lymphocytes reactive to antigen has developed

a larger population of lymphocytes reactive to antigen has developed

51

Which of the following is a characteristic associated with secondary antibody responses?

Shorter lag phase.

Higher antibody titer.

Higher antibody affinity.

All choices are associated with secondary antibody responses.

52

Antibodies

can bind to an immunogen.

can target the immunogen for destruction.

both can bind to an immunogen and can target the immunogen for destruction.

both can bind to an immunogen and are part of the nonspecific immune response.

both can bind to an immunogen and can target the immunogen for destruction.

53

Which of the following is NOT one of the postulates of the clonal expansion hypothesis of lymphocytes?

Defensins are fast acting antimicrobial peptides that disrupt the cell membrane.

Defensins interact with cell membranes because of their amphipathic structure.

Defensins interact strongly with human cell membranes because of the extensive acidic phospholipids found on the external cell membrane.

Defensins can target bacterial cell membranes because of the presence of charged acidic phospholipids.

Defensins interact strongly with human cell membranes because of the extensive acidic phospholipids found on the external cell membrane.

54

Which of the following is NOT an outcome of complement activation?

Phagocytosis of opsonized pathogen

Formation of MAC complex by subunits C5aC6-9

Recruitment of phagocytic cells

All three choices are outcomes of complement activation

55

Airborne Diseases

Diphtheria, Legionnaires Disease, Meningitis, Tuberculosis, Pertussis,

Streptococcal diseases(Streptococcal Pharyngitis;strep throat)

56

Arthropod-Borne Diseases

Lyme Disease, Plague, Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

57

Direct Contact Diseases

Gangrene, Group B Streptococcal Disease, Leprosy, Staphylococcal Diseases, Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSS), Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus aureus, Cutaneous Streptococcal Diseases, Invasive Streptococcal Infections, Tetanus,

58

Gas Gangrene is most commonly caused by

Most commonly caused by Clostridium perfringens(Gram-positive, spore-forming rod)

59

Food/Water Borne Diseases

Botulism, Cholera, Salmonellosis, Typhoid Fever, Shigellosis, Staphylococcal Food Poisoning

60

Opportunistic Diseases

Clostridium difficile, Streptococcal Pneumonia

61

Innate Defenses

skin, mucous membranes, Phagocytes, fever, NK cells, antimicrobial proteins, inflammation

62

Humoral immunity

B cells

63

Cellular immunity

T cells

64

What are the two types of marrow?

Red and Yellow

65

In which type of marrow does hematopoiesis primarily take place?

Red

66

Most red marrow is found in long bones, such as in the femur

Red marrow is found in flat bones such as ribs, pelvis, sternum, scapulae, skull, and in the spongy part of long bones.

67

This type of cell is responsible for Phagocytosis and activation of bactericidal mechanisms and antigen presentaion

Macrophage

68

This type of cell is responsible for antigen uptake in the peripheral site

Dendritic cells

69

This type of cell is responsible for Phagocytosis and activation of bactericidal mechanisms only

Neutrophil

70

This cell is responsible for killing antibody-coated parasites

Eosinophil

71

This cell is responsible for the promotion of allergic responses and augmentation of anti-parasitic immunity

Basophil

72

The cell releases granules containing histamine and active agents

Mast cell

73

This cell forms the bridge between innate and adaptive immune responses

Dendritic cells

74

Part of the innate defense system, these are chemical messengers that coordinate the defenses against viral infection

Interferons

75

Immunological Surveillance is

The destruction of abnormal cells by NK cells in peripheral tissues

76

The complement system consists of

circulating proteins that assist antibodies in the destruction of pathogens

77

Mucous membranes are often bathed in which antimicrobial secretions which contain a variety of antimicrobial substances

lysozyme, lactoferrin, pactoperoxidase

78

This antimicrobial substance hydrolyzes bond connecting sugars in peptidoglycan

Lysozyme

79

This antimicrobial substance is secreted by macrophages and sequesters iron from plasma

Lactoferrin

80

This antimicrobial substance produces superoxide radicals

lactoperoxidase

81

Would lysozyme be more effective against Gram-positive or Gram-negative bacteria?

Gram positive because of its exposed peptidoglycan layer

82

Are all Gram-positive bacteria susceptible to lysozyme?

No

83

The complement system has how many pathways?

Three

84

The three pathways in the complement system are

Lectin(or Mannose-binding Lectin), Classical, and Alternative

85

The three outcomes of the Complement system are

1. Recruitment of phagocytic cells and promotion of inflammation by C3aand C5a

2. Phagocytes with C3breceptors bind, engulf, and destroy pathogens

3. Formation of membrane attack complex (MAC) that disrupts cell membrane and promotes lysis

86

True or False: All pathways generate a C3 convertase (enzyme) that cleaves C3into C3a and C3b

True

87

this is a critical step in the complement system

C3 convertase cleaves C3into C3a and C3b

88

any protein secreted by cells that affects behavior of nearby cells with appropriate receptors is __

Cytokine

89

Any secreted proteins that act as chemoattractants and attract cells bearing chemokine receptors

Chemokines

90

An interferon is a type of cytokine. True or False?

True

91

What is the difference between an interferon (INF) and an interleukin (IL)

Interferons get their name from their job, which is to “interfere” with viral replication

92

True or False: Interleukins are cytokines that are released from lymphocytes

False; Interleukins are cytokines that are released from leukocytes

93

True or False: The thymus reaches its largest relative size in mature adults.

False. It is largest during childhood.

94

How can a cell be recognized by an antigen?

An antigen must bind to a receptor

95

What classes of macromolecules are typical antigens that bind to receptors?

Proteins, glycoproteins, and polysaccharides

96

Found in membranes of antigen-presenting cells (APCs)

Class II MHC

97

These APC’s do not always express MHC II receptors, but only when induced by other immune signals

Non-professional APCs

98

These APCs internalize antigen, either by phagocytosis or by receptor-mediated endocytosis, and then display a fragment of the antigen bound to a MHC class II protein

Professional APCs

99

Diagnosis of this disease involves observation of pseudomembrane in throat

Diphtheria

100

Spread by airborne transmission from environmental reservoir to human host, like an air conditioning system

Legionnaire's disease

101

Clinical manifestation includes stiffness in neck and back

Meningitis

102

Major bacterial causes include Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, and Haemophilus influenza(serotype b)

Meningitis

103

Mycolic acid is one of the main virulence factors of this

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

104

Whooping cough

pertussis

105

also known as group A strep

Streptococcus pyogenes

106

The most common tick-borne disease in the USA

Lyme disease

107

Borrelia burgdorferi

Lyme disease

108

This stage of lyme disease lasts between one week and ten days after infection and is characterized by a ring-shaped skin lesion

Localized stage

109

This stage occurs weeks or months after infection and leads to neurological abnormalities, heart inflammation, and arthritis

Disseminated stage

110

This stage occurs years later and has symptoms similar to Alzheimer's

Late stage

111

Yersinia pestis

Plague

112

Rickettsia rickettsii

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

113

transovarian passage

transmission of bacteria through the eggs of ticks

114

Clostridium perfringens

Gas Gangrene

115

Streptococcus agalactiae or Group B streptococcus

Group B Streptococcal Disease

116

Mycobacterium leprae

Leprosy or hansen's disease

117

This form of leprosy damages nerves and regions of skin surrounded by a border of nodules

Tuberculoid(neural) leprosy

118

This form of leprosy leads to skin tissue killed, leading to progressive loss of facial features, fingers, toes

Lepromatous(progressive) leprosy

119

coagulase positive, pathogenic staphylococcal disease

S. aureus

120

This staphylococcal disease is coagulase negative, less pathogenic but nosocomial opportunists

S. epidermidis

121

Caused by strains of S. aureus that carry a plasmid-borne gene for exfoliative toxin (exfoliatin)

Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome (SSSS)

122

Disease results from body’s response to staphylococcal superantigens and caused by S. aureus strains that release toxic shock syndrome toxin and other toxins

Toxic Shock Syndrome

123

S. aureus isolates that are resistant to β-lactam antibiotics

Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus aureus(MRSA)

124

diffuse, spreading infection of subcutaneous tissue, redness and swelling

Cellulitis

125

superficial cutaneous infection commonly seen in children with crusty lesions and vesicles surrounded by red border

Impetigo

126

Clostridium tetani

Tetanus

127

Clostridium botulinum

Botulism

128

Most common source of infection is insufficiently heated home-canned food

Botulism

129

Most common form of botulism

Infant botulism

130

No honey for babies under 1!

or else infant botulism

131

Vibrio cholerae

Cholera

132

Salmonella enterica subspecies enterica serovar Typhi

Typhoid

133

Typhoid Mary

In carriers bacteria grow in gallbladder and reach intestine through bile duct

134

caused by four species of genus Shigella

Shigellosis

135

excessive antibiotic use eliminates normal microbiota and allows this microorganism to overgrow

C. difficile

136

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Streptococcal Pneumonia