front 1 Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. In adaptive immunity, there is self/non-self discrimination. B. The specificity of the innate response is very high and the diversity is extensive C. There is no memory component of the innate immune response D. A hallmark of the adaptive immune response is the ability to create memories of antigens. E. All of the above statements are correct. | back 1 B. The specificity of the innate response is very high and the diversity is extensive |
front 2 Which of the following is NOT one of the primary tasks of the immune system? A. Immunological memory B. Immune regulation C. Immunological recognition D. Immune dynamic consistency E. Immune effector function | back 2 D. Immune dynamic consistency |
front 3 Which of the following is an example of naturally acquired active immunity? A. Getting a cold. B. Getting a flu shot. C. A mother breast-feeding a baby. D. Transfer of antibodies after being bitten by an animal with rabies. E. None of the above. | back 3 A. Getting a cold. |
front 4 . Which of the following cells are considered polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMN’s)? A. Neutrophils B. Basophils C. Lymphocytes D. A and B only E. A and C only | back 4 D. A and B only |
front 5 What type of effector cell produces antibodies? A. eosinophils B. NK cells C. T-cells D. B-cells E. cytotoxic cells | back 5 D. B-cells |
front 6 Which of the following effector cells is a phagocyte? A. T-cell B. plasma cell C. macrophage D. basophil E. platelet | back 6 C. macrophage |
front 7 Which of the following cells would be most useful for helping the body to fight an intracellular viral pathogen? A. neutrophil B. erythrocyte C. cytotoxic T-cell D. mast cell E. suppressor T-cell | back 7 C. cytotoxic T-cell |
front 8 All immune cells are originally derived from the A. bone marrow B. thymus C. lymph nodes D. thyroid E. umbilical cord | back 8 A. bone marrow |
front 9 All Gram positive cells are susceptible to lysosome. A. True B. False | back 9 False |
front 10 Which of the following is NOT a class of T-cell? A. CD8+ B. Plasma cell C. CD4+ D. T-Memory E. Suppressor T-cell | back 10 Plasma cell |
front 11 What is the purpose of antigen presenting cells? A. To produce antibodies B. To induce neutrophil release of histamine C. To tellmacrophages torelease massive amounts of cytokines D. To activate helper T cells E. All of the above | back 11 D. To activate helper T cells |
front 12 T-cells recognize antigen presented by antigen presenting cells in MHC molecules. A. True B. False | back 12 A. True |
front 13 Which ofthe following statements is FALSE? A. Antibodies are secreted proteins that have the same antigen specificity as B-cell receptors. B. CD4+ T-cells are activated by antigen presenting cells and,in turn,activate B-cells. C. B-cells begin producing antibodies once CD8+ T-cells tell them to. D. Both T-cells and B-cells can undergo clonal expansion. E. CD4 and CD8 represent co-receptors on the surface of T-cells. | back 13 C. B-cells begin producing antibodies once CD8+ T-cells tell them to. |
front 14 Which of the following is NOT considered part of the innate defense system? A. Immunological surveillance by NK cells B. Skin and mucous C. Release of histamine from mast cells to promote inflammation D. Complement deposition E. Production of specific antibodies | back 14 E. Production of specific antibodies |
front 15 Which of the following is NOT an outcome of complement activation? A. Phagocytosis of opsonized pathogen. B. Formation of MAC complex by subunits C5aC6-9. C. Production of antibodies. D. Recruitment of phagocytic cells. E. All of the above are outcomes | back 15 C. Production of antibodies. |
front 16 Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. Innate responses are activated within hours of encountering an infectious agent B. Adaptive defenses are induced within minutes or a couple hours of the innate response C. Innate and adaptive responses are co-induced, but adaptive responses have a lag time D. Adaptive responses are not induced unless innate responses are overwhelmed, bypassed, or evaded E. None of the above statements are true. | back 16 D. Adaptive responses are not induced unless innate responses are overwhelmed, bypassed, or evaded |
front 17 After the body has been exposed to a pathogen, how long does it take the adaptive immune system to respond to the pathogen the next time it enters the body? A. Response is almost immediate after the adaptive system is activated. B. Response is within days of signaling the problem. C. Response can take up to 1 week. D. Response is within days; however it can take up to 2-3 weeks for a full and complete response. E. The adaptive immune system will not need to respond again after a memory has been made. | back 17 A. Response is almost immediate after the adaptive system is activated. |
front 18 Defensins interfere with pathogen cell membranes. A. True B. False | back 18 A. True |
front 19 Why is the complement system highly effective against many bacterial pathogens? A. It produces MAC complexes that “punch” holes in cell membranes B. It is made up of pre-made proteins already in circulation in the bloodstream C. It can help promote inflammation and bring other leukocytes to sites of infection D. It can complement the effects of antibodies to enhance clearance of pathogens E. All of the above | back 19 E. All of the above |
front 20 After a B-cell is activated by an antigen, what else must happen before it can begin producing antibodies? A. Nothing, it can produce antibodies immediately B. It must also be activated by a helper T-cell C. It must be activated by a NK cell D. It first must travel to the thymus where it produces antibodies with the help of monocytes E. I’m out of answer choices. Pick something else. | back 20 B. It must also be activated by a helper T-cell |
front 21 How old is the field of immunology? | back 21 Relatively new field; In 1796 did the earliest vaccination experiments |
front 22 Who made observations about conferred protection from small pox from infection with milder cow pox? | back 22 Edward Jenner |
front 23 What are the four main tasks of the immune system? | back 23 1. Immunological recognition –identification of a problem 2. Immune effector function –containment of the problem 3. Immune regulation –stopping excessive responses to a “problem” 4. Immunological memory –remembering a problem for the future |
front 24 Peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMCs) are | back 24 Lymphocytes and monocytes |
front 25 Polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs) are | back 25 Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils; nuclei shape varies |
front 26 Lymphocytes make up 20–30% of circulating leukocytes and are | back 26 T cells, B cells, and NK cells |
front 27 Approximately 80% of circulating lymphocytes are classified as | back 27 T cells |
front 28 The type of T cell attacks foreign cells or body cells infected by viruses | back 28 CytotoxicT Cells |
front 29 This type of T cell stimulate the activation and function of both T cells and B cells | back 29 Helper T cell |
front 30 This type of T cell inhibit the activation and function of both T cells and B cells | back 30 Suppressor T cells |
front 31 These cells are a subset of T cells that respond to a previously encountered antigen | back 31 Memory T cells |
front 32 These cells make up10-15% of circulating lymphocytes | back 32 B cells |
front 33 When stimulated, B cells can differentiate into _______, which produce and secrete antibodies | back 33 Plasma Cells |
front 34 These cells release lytic granules that kill some virus-infected cells | back 34 NK cell |
front 35 A vaccination is a good example of naturally acquired passive immunity. naturally acquired active immunity. artificially acquired active immunity. artificially acquired passive immunity. | back 35 artificially acquired active immunity |
front 36 The immune system normally discriminates between __________ antigens. self and nonself B and T cells humoral and cell-mediated primary and secondary response | back 36 self and nonself |
front 37 Adaptive immunity refers to the type of specific immunity that all of the choices develops after exposure to antigen. can result from transfer of antibodies from one individual to another. can be induced by natural or artificial means. | back 37 all of the choices |
front 38 Which of the following is NOT considered part of the innate defense system? Immunological surveillance by NK cells Antibody production by B-cells Release of histamine from mast cells to promote inflammation Skin and mucous | back 38 Antibody production by B-cells |
front 39 The humoral immune response differs from the cell-mediated immune response in that only in the humoral immune response is there secretion of antibody. a precommitted lymphocyte a clonal selection mechanism. the development of memory cells. | back 39 secretion of antibody. |
front 40 T cells attack host cells that have been parasitized by microorganisms. transplanted tissue cells from one host to another. cancer cells. | back 40 all of the choices |
front 41 Immune cells produce and secrete factors which do not directly interact with invading microorganisms but which augment the body's defense mechanisms. These molecules are called antibodies. cytokines. immunogens. augmetins. | back 41 cytokines |
front 42 The transfer of antibodies in breast milk is a good example of naturally acquired passive immunity. naturally acquired active immunity. artificially acquired active immunity. artificially acquired passive immunity. | back 42 naturally acquired passive immunity. |
front 43 Class I and II MHC molecules consists of a complex of two protein chains. contains alpha-1 and alpha-2 domains that forms an antibody-binding pocket. consists of a complex of two protein chains and contains alpha-1 and alpha-2 domains that forms an antibody-binding pocket. neither consists of a complex of two protein chains nor contains alpha-1 and alpha-2 domains that forms an antibody-binding pocket. | back 43 consists of a complex of two protein chains. |
front 44 Class I major histocompatibility complex molecules are found on ____________ cells. all nucleated antigen-presenting all enucleated none of the choices | back 44 all nucleated |
front 45 Cytotoxic T lymphocytes are distinguished from other lymphocytes by the presence of CD8. MHC I. CD4. all of the choices | back 45 CD4. |
front 46 Which type(s) of antigen-presenting cell can activate T cells? macrophages B cells dendritic cells | back 46 all three types of antigen-presenting cells can activate T cells |
front 47 The class of immunoglobulin transferred from mother to infant during breast-feeding is IgA. IgE. IgG. IgM. | back 47 IgA. |
front 48 The only immunoglobulin class with members able to cross the placental barrier is IgA. IgM. IgG. IgD. | back 48 IgG. |
front 49 Which of the following types of immunoglobulins is most abundant in serum? | back 49 IgG |
front 50 The secondary immune response is typically stronger than the primary response because __________ during the secondary response all classes of immunoglobulins are active both B and T cells are activated the antigen is weakened by the primary response a larger population of lymphocytes reactive to antigen has developed | back 50 a larger population of lymphocytes reactive to antigen has developed |
front 51 Which of the following is a characteristic associated with secondary antibody responses? Shorter lag phase. Higher antibody titer. Higher antibody affinity. | back 51 All choices are associated with secondary antibody responses. |
front 52 Antibodies can bind to an immunogen. can target the immunogen for destruction. both can bind to an immunogen and can target the immunogen for destruction. both can bind to an immunogen and are part of the nonspecific immune response. | back 52 both can bind to an immunogen and can target the immunogen for destruction. |
front 53 Which of the following is NOT one of the postulates of the clonal expansion hypothesis of lymphocytes? Defensins are fast acting antimicrobial peptides that disrupt the cell membrane. Defensins interact with cell membranes because of their amphipathic structure. Defensins interact strongly with human cell membranes because of the extensive acidic phospholipids found on the external cell membrane. Defensins can target bacterial cell membranes because of the presence of charged acidic phospholipids. | back 53 Defensins interact strongly with human cell membranes because of the extensive acidic phospholipids found on the external cell membrane. |
front 54 Which of the following is NOT an outcome of complement activation? Phagocytosis of opsonized pathogen Formation of MAC complex by subunits C5aC6-9 Recruitment of phagocytic cells | back 54 All three choices are outcomes of complement activation |
front 55 Airborne Diseases | back 55 Diphtheria, Legionnaires Disease, Meningitis, Tuberculosis, Pertussis, Streptococcal diseases(Streptococcal Pharyngitis;strep throat) |
front 56 Arthropod-Borne Diseases | back 56 Lyme Disease, Plague, Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever |
front 57 Direct Contact Diseases | back 57 Gangrene, Group B Streptococcal Disease, Leprosy, Staphylococcal Diseases, Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSS), Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus aureus, Cutaneous Streptococcal Diseases, Invasive Streptococcal Infections, Tetanus, |
front 58 Gas Gangrene is most commonly caused by | back 58 Most commonly caused by Clostridium perfringens(Gram-positive, spore-forming rod) |
front 59 Food/Water Borne Diseases | back 59 Botulism, Cholera, Salmonellosis, Typhoid Fever, Shigellosis, Staphylococcal Food Poisoning |
front 60 Opportunistic Diseases | back 60 Clostridium difficile, Streptococcal Pneumonia |
front 61 Innate Defenses | back 61 skin, mucous membranes, Phagocytes, fever, NK cells, antimicrobial proteins, inflammation |
front 62 Humoral immunity | back 62 B cells |
front 63 Cellular immunity | back 63 T cells |
front 64 What are the two types of marrow? | back 64 Red and Yellow |
front 65 In which type of marrow does hematopoiesis primarily take place? | back 65 Red |
front 66 Most red marrow is found in long bones, such as in the femur | back 66 Red marrow is found in flat bones such as ribs, pelvis, sternum, scapulae, skull, and in the spongy part of long bones. |
front 67 This type of cell is responsible for Phagocytosis and activation of bactericidal mechanisms and antigen presentaion | back 67 Macrophage |
front 68 This type of cell is responsible for antigen uptake in the peripheral site | back 68 Dendritic cells |
front 69 This type of cell is responsible for Phagocytosis and activation of bactericidal mechanisms only | back 69 Neutrophil |
front 70 This cell is responsible for killing antibody-coated parasites | back 70 Eosinophil |
front 71 This cell is responsible for the promotion of allergic responses and augmentation of anti-parasitic immunity | back 71 Basophil |
front 72 The cell releases granules containing histamine and active agents | back 72 Mast cell |
front 73 This cell forms the bridge between innate and adaptive immune responses | back 73 Dendritic cells |
front 74 Part of the innate defense system, these are chemical messengers that coordinate the defenses against viral infection | back 74 Interferons |
front 75 Immunological Surveillance is | back 75 The destruction of abnormal cells by NK cells in peripheral tissues |
front 76 The complement system consists of | back 76 circulating proteins that assist antibodies in the destruction of pathogens |
front 77 Mucous membranes are often bathed in which antimicrobial secretions which contain a variety of antimicrobial substances | back 77 lysozyme, lactoferrin, pactoperoxidase |
front 78 This antimicrobial substance hydrolyzes bond connecting sugars in peptidoglycan | back 78 Lysozyme |
front 79 This antimicrobial substance is secreted by macrophages and sequesters iron from plasma | back 79 Lactoferrin |
front 80 This antimicrobial substance produces superoxide radicals | back 80 lactoperoxidase |
front 81 Would lysozyme be more effective against Gram-positive or Gram-negative bacteria? | back 81 Gram positive because of its exposed peptidoglycan layer |
front 82 Are all Gram-positive bacteria susceptible to lysozyme? | back 82 No |
front 83 The complement system has how many pathways? | back 83 Three |
front 84 The three pathways in the complement system are | back 84 Lectin(or Mannose-binding Lectin), Classical, and Alternative |
front 85 The three outcomes of the Complement system are | back 85 1. Recruitment of phagocytic cells and promotion of inflammation by C3aand C5a 2. Phagocytes with C3breceptors bind, engulf, and destroy pathogens 3. Formation of membrane attack complex (MAC) that disrupts cell membrane and promotes lysis |
front 86 True or False: All pathways generate a C3 convertase (enzyme) that cleaves C3into C3a and C3b | back 86 True |
front 87 this is a critical step in the complement system | back 87 C3 convertase cleaves C3into C3a and C3b |
front 88 any protein secreted by cells that affects behavior of nearby cells with appropriate receptors is __ | back 88 Cytokine |
front 89 Any secreted proteins that act as chemoattractants and attract cells bearing chemokine receptors | back 89 Chemokines |
front 90 An interferon is a type of cytokine. True or False? | back 90 True |
front 91 What is the difference between an interferon (INF) and an interleukin (IL) | back 91 Interferons get their name from their job, which is to “interfere” with viral replication |
front 92 True or False: Interleukins are cytokines that are released from lymphocytes | back 92 False; Interleukins are cytokines that are released from leukocytes |
front 93 True or False: The thymus reaches its largest relative size in mature adults. | back 93 False. It is largest during childhood. |
front 94 How can a cell be recognized by an antigen? | back 94 An antigen must bind to a receptor |
front 95 What classes of macromolecules are typical antigens that bind to receptors? | back 95 Proteins, glycoproteins, and polysaccharides |
front 96 Found in membranes of antigen-presenting cells (APCs) | back 96 Class II MHC |
front 97 These APC’s do not always express MHC II receptors, but only when induced by other immune signals | back 97 Non-professional APCs |
front 98 These APCs internalize antigen, either by phagocytosis or by receptor-mediated endocytosis, and then display a fragment of the antigen bound to a MHC class II protein | back 98 Professional APCs |
front 99 Diagnosis of this disease involves observation of pseudomembrane in throat | back 99 Diphtheria |
front 100 Spread by airborne transmission from environmental reservoir to human host, like an air conditioning system | back 100 Legionnaire's disease |
front 101 Clinical manifestation includes stiffness in neck and back | back 101 Meningitis |
front 102 Major bacterial causes include Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, and Haemophilus influenza(serotype b) | back 102 Meningitis |
front 103 Mycolic acid is one of the main virulence factors of this | back 103 Mycobacterium tuberculosis |
front 104 Whooping cough | back 104 pertussis |
front 105 also known as group A strep | back 105 Streptococcus pyogenes |
front 106 The most common tick-borne disease in the USA | back 106 Lyme disease |
front 107 Borrelia burgdorferi | back 107 Lyme disease |
front 108 This stage of lyme disease lasts between one week and ten days after infection and is characterized by a ring-shaped skin lesion | back 108 Localized stage |
front 109 This stage occurs weeks or months after infection and leads to neurological abnormalities, heart inflammation, and arthritis | back 109 Disseminated stage |
front 110 This stage occurs years later and has symptoms similar to Alzheimer's | back 110 Late stage |
front 111 Yersinia pestis | back 111 Plague |
front 112 Rickettsia rickettsii | back 112 Rocky Mountain spotted fever |
front 113 transovarian passage | back 113 transmission of bacteria through the eggs of ticks |
front 114 Clostridium perfringens | back 114 Gas Gangrene |
front 115 Streptococcus agalactiae or Group B streptococcus | back 115 Group B Streptococcal Disease |
front 116 Mycobacterium leprae | back 116 Leprosy or hansen's disease |
front 117 This form of leprosy damages nerves and regions of skin surrounded by a border of nodules | back 117 Tuberculoid(neural) leprosy |
front 118 This form of leprosy leads to skin tissue killed, leading to progressive loss of facial features, fingers, toes | back 118 Lepromatous(progressive) leprosy |
front 119 coagulase positive, pathogenic staphylococcal disease | back 119 S. aureus |
front 120 This staphylococcal disease is coagulase negative, less pathogenic but nosocomial opportunists | back 120 S. epidermidis |
front 121 Caused by strains of S. aureus that carry a plasmid-borne gene for exfoliative toxin (exfoliatin) | back 121 Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome (SSSS) |
front 122 Disease results from body’s response to staphylococcal
superantigens and caused by S. aureus strains that
release toxic shock syndrome toxin and other toxins
| back 122 Toxic Shock Syndrome |
front 123 S. aureus isolates that are resistant to β-lactam antibiotics | back 123 Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus aureus(MRSA) |
front 124 diffuse, spreading infection of subcutaneous tissue, redness and swelling | back 124 Cellulitis |
front 125 superficial cutaneous infection commonly seen in children with crusty lesions and vesicles surrounded by red border | back 125 Impetigo |
front 126 Clostridium tetani | back 126 Tetanus |
front 127 Clostridium botulinum | back 127 Botulism |
front 128 Most common source of infection is insufficiently heated home-canned food | back 128 Botulism |
front 129 Most common form of botulism | back 129 Infant botulism |
front 130 No honey for babies under 1! | back 130 or else infant botulism |
front 131 Vibrio cholerae | back 131 Cholera |
front 132 Salmonella enterica subspecies enterica serovar Typhi | back 132 Typhoid |
front 133 Typhoid Mary | back 133 In carriers bacteria grow in gallbladder and reach intestine through bile duct |
front 134 caused by four species of genus Shigella | back 134 Shigellosis |
front 135 excessive antibiotic use eliminates normal microbiota and allows this microorganism to overgrow | back 135 C. difficile |
front 136 Streptococcus pneumoniae | back 136 Streptococcal Pneumonia |