Pharm Comp Retention IPT Flashcards


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1

Brand Name: Claritin

Generic Name: loratadine

2

Brand Name: Benadryl

Generic Name: diphenhydramine

3

Brand Name: Zyrtec

Generic Name: cetirizine

4

Brand Name: Dramamine

Generic Name: dimenhydrinate

5

convulsion

refers to abnormal motor movements

6

stage IV anesthesia

medullary depression begins

7

stage I anesthesia

euphoria and amnesia

8

American College of Clinical Pharmacy (ACCP)

provides resources for clinical pharmacists

9

American Council on Pharmaceutical Education (ACPE)

national accrediting agency for pharmacy education programs

10

American Pharmacists Association (APhA)

the largest of all the pharmacy organizations

11

American Associations of College of Pharmacy (AACP)

represents all 87 pharmacy schools in the United States

12

Brand Name: Gastrisin

Generic Name: sulfisoxazole

13

Brand Name: Fuzeon

Generic Name: enfuvirtide

14

Brand Name: Omnipen

Generic Name: ampicillin

15

Brand Name: Trimox

Generic Name: amoxicillin

16

Brand Name: Adulfidine

Generic Name: sulfasalazine

17

Brand Name: Mycostatin

Generic Name: Nystatin

18

Enfuvirtide is classified as which of the following HIV anitviral agents?

fusion inhibitor (FI)

19

Which of the following drugs is NOT used for Parkinson's Disease?

fluoxetine (Prozac)

20

Specialties in the profession of pharmacy include

drug information

21

The amount of medical knowledge gained is said to double every

5 years

22

A certified pharmacy technician (CPhT) may

monitor inventory and repackage medication under pharmacist supervision

23

Which of the following classes of drugs cannot help in achieving the treatment goals for angina pectoris?

diuretics

24

Good sources for continuing education in the field of pharmacy include

workshops and seminars offered by pharmacy organizations

25

Chemical substances that have morphine-like action in the body are referred to as

opioids

26

The largest national pharmacy organization is the

American Pharmacists Association (APhA)

27

Which of the following classes of drugs is used to prevent formation of thrombi?

anticoagulants

28

An example of loop diuretics is

furosemide

29

Hypnotic drugs are used to treat

sleep disorders

30

Which of the following is NOT an antihistamine?

hydrocodone (Histussin)

31

Which of the following insulins can be administered intravenously?

regular

32

Which organization sets the standards for the identity, strength, quality, purity, packaging, and labeling of drug products?

United States Pharmacopeia (USP)

33

Glucophage is the trade name for

metformin

34

Which of the following statements about insulin is true?

Insulin is a hormone

35

Many clerical tasks in pharmacies are now performed by

pharmacy technicians

36

Which of the following is an example of an "amide" local anesthetic?

lidocaine

37

An agent used to treat fungal diseases is

amphotericin B

38

Which of the following is an RNA virus?

retrovirus

39

Augmentin is the trade name of

amoxicillin/ clavulanate postassium

40

The percentage of women enrolled in pharmacy schools in the U.S. colleges of pharmacy in 1993 was

63 percent

41

The core requirements for a 2-year Associate degree for pharmacy technicians include

terminology

42

Captopril, an antihypertensive, is classified as which of the following?

angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors

43

Manipulating estrogen and progesterone levels can prevent

pregnancy

44

Histamine blockers that affect type 2 receptors are used for

peptic ulcers

45

An example of a class III antiarrhythmic drug that interferes with potassium outflow is

amiodarone

46

The initial stimulus for coughing probably arises in the

bronchial mucosa

47

The pharmacy technician certification must be renewed every

2 years

48

Which of the following drugs is classified as an antidepressant, and is also used for smoking cessation?

bupropion

49

The trade name of sertraline is

Zoloft

50

Which of the following is a disadvantage of most antihistamines?

sedation

51

The generic name of Prozac is

fluoxetine

52

Vancomycin is usually given

intravenously

53

Which of the following is the trade name of amlodipine?

Norvasc

54

The generic name of Tagamet is

cimetidine

55

Which of the following is capable of stopping the growth and reproduction of bacteria, but does not necessarily kill bacteria?

bacteriostat

56

The presence of raised or abnormal levels of lipoproteins and lipids in the blood is called

hyperlipidemia

57

Which of the following are the most potent and effective anti-inflammatory agents?

corticosteroids

58

Which of the following drugs is NOT a proton pump inhibitor?

sulfisoxazole

59

Diltiazem, an antianginal drug, is classified as which of the following?

calcium channel blocker

60

The quality and control unti responsible for auditing the control system and evaluating product quality is sometimes referred to as

Assay and Control

61

Of the number of required continuing education hours for the CPhT, how many hours must be related to pharmacy law?

1 hour

62

The generic name of Tofranil is

imipramine

63

Which of the following is an example of centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxants?

baclofen

64

Which of the following is NOT used to treat asthma?

lansoprazole (Prevacid)

65

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

federal agency that provides facilities and services for the investigation, identification, prevention, and control of disease

66

Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC)

creates standards for child-resistant packaging

67

Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906

prohibits the interstate distribution or sale of adulterated and misbranded food and drugs

68

Supplemental Health and Educational Act of 1994

placed the burden of proof squarely on FDA in regard to the safeness of dietary supplements

69

Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970

controls the manufacture, distribution, and dispensing of controlled substances

70

Orphan Drug Act of 1983

offers tax breaks for companies to undertake the development and manufacture of drugs for uncommon diseases.

71

administrative law

the rules and regulations established by agencies of the federal government.

72

criminal law

governs the relationship of the individual to society as a whole.

73

statutes

results from action by the legislature

74

slander

defamatory spoken words

75

negligence

failure to use a reasonable amount of care to prevent injury or damage to another.

76

What control drug schedule is morphine?

Schedule II controlled substance

77

Which schedule is the opiate morphine, which may result in severe psychological and physical dependence when abused?

Schedule II

78

Who creates the standards for child-resistant packaging, as required by the Poison Prevention Packaging Act (PPPA)?

Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC)

79

The maximum amount of items that may be ordered on DEA Form 222 is

10

80

Orphan drugs are used for all of the following disorders or conditions, EXCEPT

peptic ulcer

81

The "Administrative Simplification" provision of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) consists of

Electronic Health Transaction Standards and Privacy and Confidentiality Standards

82

An example of an intentional tort is

battery

83

The study of values or principles governing personal relationships is called

ethics

84

What regulatory agency is responsible for the approval of drugs, over-the-counter (OTC) and prescription labeling, and standards for drug manufacturing?

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

85

Which of the following amendments or acts required manufacturers to register and list their products?

Medical Device Amendment

86

The branch of the government that is responsible for creating laws is the

legislative branch

87

Which act prohibits the reimportation of a drug into the United States by anyone but the manufacturer?

Prescription Drug Marketing Act

88

The Model State Pharmacy Practice Act (MSPPA), which can provide a greater degree of uniformity between states in regards to the practice of pharmacy, was developed by the

National Associations of Boards of Pharmacy (NABP)

89

A pharmacist must be registered with the DEA if he

owns a pharmacy as a sole proprietor

90

Pharmacies should make a complete and accurate record of all stocks of controlled substances on hand every

2 years

91

When a controlled substance is stolen or lost from a pharmacy, the nearest DEA office must be notified using which of the following DEA forms?

106

92

inventory turnover rate

mathematical calculation of the number of times the average inventory is replaced over a period of time (usually annually)

93

inventory control

controlling the amount of product on hand to maximize the return of investment

94

point-of-sale (POS) master

inventory control system that allows inventory to be tracked as it is used

95

perpetual inventory system

inventory control system that allows for monthly review of drug use

96

want book

list of drugs and devices that routinely need to be ordered

97

Repackaged pharmaceuticals that are expired should be

placed in a separate area until they can be properly disposed of

98

When specific stock reorder points are reached, they trigger the

computer to automatically reorder

99

The formula of adding the beginning inventory for a period to the ending inventory for a period and dividing by two is for calculating

average inventory

100

It is important to stock items according to their

specific storage requirements

101

Inventory of controlled substances must be taken every

two years

102

What is NOT true concerning the use of a point-of-sale (POS) master?

It can be used to check for therapeutic duplications in a drug regimen.

103

Which of the following is NOT one of the three types of formulary systems?

pediatric formulary

104

If controlled substances have been ordered, they should be received into the pharmacy by a

pharmacist

105

The stock of medications a pharmacy keeps immediately on hand is called a(n)

inventory

106

Most drug products are received in the pharmacy in

bulk "stock" bottles

107

A Class III recall is for products that may

violate FDA labeling or manufacturing

108

Which of the following are used to most easily determine each received item and its associated information?

bar codes

109

What is true concerning unit-of-use packaging?

It will allow pharmacists to prepare medications before they are needed

110

An example of a want book would be a

spiral-bound notebook in which order stickers may be placed

111

The purpose of drug formularies is to

increase selection of items that may be prescribed

112

A list of articles in stock, with the description and quantity of each, is referred to as a(n)

inventory

113

Which of the following is the most suitable, flexible, and open-ended system on the market that can be installed in all of the computers in the main pharmacy?

point-of-sale master

114

Most automated dispensing systems comply with both the

HIPAA and Joint Commission

115

Bar coding saves

lives, time and dollars

116

Inventory control is closely associated with the function of

purchasing

117

The perpetual inventory is a written record of the amount of controlled substances for which of the following drug schedules?

II

118

A list of drugs and devices that routinely need to be reordered is called a

want book

119

Which drug recall level may cause serious harm or death?

Class I

120

What is false about inventory and control systems in pharmacy today?

Manual systems usually keep a perpetual inventory

121

The real advantage of computerized inventory control systems is

time saving

122

Which of the following is the simplest and most widely used method of inventory control?

want book system

123

Which of the following is not a type of inventory management system?

automated dispensing system

124

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of automated dispensing systems?

cheaper

125

Expired compounded pharmaceuticals must be

disposed of

126

What is the purpose of formularies?

to eliminate duplication

127

The medication master file contains all of the information needed for

inventory, pricing, and ordering

128

A pharmacy has purchased 550 products over a period of 3 months. If their average inventory was 235 products in a 3-month period, their inventory turnover rate for this period is

2.34

129

Which class of drug recalls is considered most dangerous, and may cause serious health problems or death?

Class I

130

Regarding inventory, an estimated count must be done for which drug schedules?

III to V

131

For the period of January through June, a pharmacy had a beginning inventory of 312 products and an ending inventory of 336 products. Which of the following is the average inventory for this 6-month period?

324

132

pipette

long, thin, calibrated hollow tube that is made of glass and is used for measuring liquids

133

conical graduate

device used for measuring liquids that has a wide top and tapers from top to bottom

134

compounding slab

plate made of ground glass with a hard, flat, and nonabsorbent surface for mixing compounds

135

cylindrical graduate

device used for measuring liquids that has a narrow diameter

136

pestle

solid device that is used to crush or grind material in a mortar

137

gel

suspensions made of either small inorganic particles or large organic molecules interpenetrated by a liquid

138

pastes

oil-in-water or water-in-oil emulsion characterized by a high content of solids

139

cream

water-based emulsion in which drugs in powder or crystal form are usually mixed in for topical use

140

suspension

liquid dosage form that contains solid drug particles floating in a liquid medium

141

solvent

liquid substance in which another substance is being dissolved

142

The type of mortar and pestle that has the advantage of being nonporous and nonstaining is

glass

143

When mixing two or more powders, you should

pulverize them separately to the same particle size

144

Which device is used to shrink bands onto vials?

heat gun

145

When compounding solutions, the drug should be dissolved in the

solvent in which it is more soluble

146

When measuring out a liquid, it is good practice to

select a container that will be half full when measuring, measure a volume that is at least 20% of the capacity of the graduate, and view the measurement by looking at eye level to the surface

147

Class A balances have a sensitivity requirement of

6 mg

148

Which piece of equipment is designed for mixing and melting substances?

beaker

149

Which balance is NOT appropriate for prescription compounding?

counterbalance

150

When compounding a solution, which form of the drug should be used?

salt form

151

Unlike compounded solutions, suspensions

have problematic physical stability once compounded

152

The smallest size graduate available is

5 mL

153

The minimum amount you should measure with a 100 mL graduated cylinder is

5 mL

154

When measuring out a liquid in a graduate, the upper surface of the liquid is called

quarter-moon-shaped body and meniscus

155

Which type of base is a water-miscible base often used in vaginal and rectal suppositories?

glycerinated gelatin

156

An example of a drug that is applied topically but is intended for systemic absorption into the body is

nitroglycerin

157

Mortars and pestles are usually made of all the following, EXCEPT

ceramic

158

Which piece of equipment is used to remove seals placed onto vials?

crimper

159

The maximum amount that can be weighed out with a Class A balance is

120 g

160

The largest capsule size that should be given orally to patients is

number 000

161

A two-pan device that may be used for weighing small amounts of drugs (not more than 120 grams) is called a(n)

class A prescription balance

162

Balance weights should only be handled with

forceps

163

Sterility of compounded products can be achieved through the following methods, EXCEPT

freezing

164

The first step in adding a salt to a syrup is to add

salt to a few milliliters of water

165

When reconstituting dry powders of parenteral drugs, it is important to know the

correct diluent

166

Tablet molds are commonly made of

metal

167

Manufacturing of prescription products for resale to pharmacies is regulated by the

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

168

Why are balance weights usually made of a metal such as brass?

Metal is corrosion resistant.

169

Spatulas are usually made of

plastic, stainless steel, and hard rubber

170

Which type of base is used most commonly for rectal suppositories?

cocoa butter

171

Ointments are considered

oil based in nature and semisolid dosage form

172

Ceclor is what generation of Cephalosporins?

Second generation

173

The Trade name for Ceftriaxone Sodium is what?

Rocephin

174

Cefdinir is what generation of Cephalosporins?

Third Generation

175

Name a first generation Cephalosporin?

cefadroxil, cefazolin sodium, cephalexin (Generic) Duricel, Ultracef, Ancef, Kefzol, Cefanex, Keflex (Trade)

176

True or False: Maxipime can be given PO

False: Only IM, IV

177

What are the three types of Tetracyclines?

Short-acting, intermediate-acting, and long acting

178

What is the generic name for Sumycin?

tetracycline hydrochoride

179

What is the maximum dose of Declomycin that a patient may have (in milligrams) and which type does it belong to?

2400 mg, intermediate-acting

180

triglycerides

a simple fat compound consisting of three molecules of fatty acid and glycerol

181

nutrition

The sum of the processes involved in the taking in of nutrients and their assimilation and use for proper body functioning and maintenance of health

182

cholesterol

A waxy lipid found only in animal tissues; a member of a group of lipids called "sterols."

183

protein

the only one of six essential nutrients containing nitrogen

184

cyanocobalamin

A water-soluble vitamin that is the common pharmaceutical form of vitamin B12

185

vitamin

an organic substance necessary for life although it does not independently provide energy

186

phospholipid

a phosphorous-containing liquid

187

mineral

an inorganic substance occurring naturally in the earth's crust

188

iron

a common metallic element essential for the synthesis of hemoglobin

189

carbohydrate

the nutrient providing the main source of energy in the average diet

190

electrolyte

compound that dissociates into ions when dissolved in water

191

vitamin B3

also called niacin

192

vitamin B6

also called pyridoxine

193

vitamin D

also called calciferol

194

vitamin B1

also called thiamin

195

Vitamin B12

also called cyanocobalamin

196

vitamin A

also called retinol

197

vitamin B9

also called folacin

198

vitamin E

also called tocopherol

199

vitamin K1

also called phylloquionone

200

Amino acids that must be derived from dietary sources and cannot be synthesized by the body are called

essential amino acids

201

Copper accumulation in the liver may cause

Wilson's disease

202

Which vitamin is important for the absorption of calcium and phosphorus?

Vitamin D

203

Factors that may result in a drug interaction include the following, EXCEPT

pharmacy intervention

204

Which vitamin is given to patients with hemorrhage disorders?

Vitamin K

205

Vitamin B1 is also called

thiamin

206

Which of the following drugs may cause peripheral neuritis in some patients?

isoniazid

207

Which of the following statements about calcium is false?

It is required for the elimination of urine

208

Protein is needed for the formation of

enzymes, antibodies and hormones

209

Which vitamins are least likely to cause adverse effects when taken in overdose?

Vitamin B complex

210

LDL (low-density lipoproteins) levels can be decreased by

exercise and decreased dietary intake of cholesterol

211

Which of the following nutrients provides the most energy for the body?

fats

212

Which nutrient provides the most concentrated source of calories (9 kcal per gram)?

lipids

213

Which of the following drugs may be given concurrently with grapefruit?

acetaminophen

214

Concurrent use of alcoholic beverages and sedatives may result in

excessive CNS depression

215

It is recommended to limit fat intake to what percentage of total calories consumed?

30 percent

216

Proteins are complex nitrogenous compounds that are composed of large combinations of

amino acids

217

Any patient taking a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor (an antidepressant) should avoid all of the following foods or beverages, EXCEPT

diet Coke

218

Current dietary goals in the United States recommend that carbohydrates constitute what percentage of total calories consumed?

55 to 60 percent

219

The lipoprotein that transports cholesterol from the body to the liver for metabolism, considered the 'good cholesterol," is

HDL (high-density lipoproteins

220

Excessive consumption of carbohydrates may lead to

obesity

221

Carbidopa is often prescribed in combination with levodopa in patients with Parkinson's Disease. The addition of carbidopa decreases the amount of levodopa needed to have an effect, but it does not have a beneficial effect in these patients if given alone. This is an example of

Potentiation

222

The Food Guide Pyramid is scheduled to undergo changes by the USDA due to

epidemic numbers of overweight people in the United States

223

Vegetables such as broccoli and cabbage may inactivate

warfarin

224

Synergism refers to the effect of two or more drugs causing

a stronger effect

225

A chronic disease that develops over years as a result of a deficiency in total caloric intake is called

marasmus

226

Chronic use of alcoholic beverages may interact with the drug phenytoin by

increasing liver enzyme activity

227

Which vitamin in certain green leafy vegetables interacts with warfarin?

Vitamin K

228

Garlic is an herb used for lowering cholesterol and modestly lowering blood pressure. Which types of drugs would you caution patients about taking concurrently with garlic?

antihypertensives

229

Iodine is an essential micronutrient for which of the following hormones?

thyroxine

230

Which of the following increases the drug metabolizing enzymes of the liver?

smoking

231

How many amino acids have been identified as vital for proper growth, development, and maintenance of health?

22

232

Which nonprescription drug interacts with warfarin?

aspirin (Bayer)

233

Carbohydrates that are not immediately used by the body are stored as

glycogen

234

The recommended daily requirement of protein is

0.8 grams per kilogram of body weight

235

Which vitamin is converted from cholesterol in the skin by ultraviolet light?

Vitamin D

236

Hypermagnesemia is usually caused by

renal insufficiency

237

What patient variables may predispose a patient to drug interactions?

age

238

Good cholesterol is known as

HDL

239

The antibiotic ciprofloxacin may have decreased absorption when taken with

magnesium- and aluminum-containing antacids

240

In the future, the number of acute beds relative to beds in long-term care will

decrease

241

Long-term care facilities require pharmacy services to be available

24 hours a day

242

What functions do pharmacists provide for long-term care?

distribution and consultation

243

The role of pharmacists in long-term care has been shown to

decrease overall medication costs

244

The growth of home health care depends on

physician acceptance, increase in the number of elderly patients, and improvement of technology

245

Several types of home health care services that are available include the following, EXCEPT

interventional radiology

246

The largest payer of home health care services is

Medicare

247

High-tech home health care requires close collaboration between the pharmacy and

physicians, registered nurses, and medical supply companies

248

Drugs added to IV solutions suffer degradation from the effects of

storage conditions

249

The equipment typically found in a home infusion pharmacy includes a(n)

laminar airflow hoods

250

Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) consists of

amino acids and dextrose

251

Which of the following is correct about total parenteral nutrition (TPN)?

A safe and effective mixing order is required

252

For short-term enteral nutrition therapy, which type of feeding tube is used?

nasogastric tube

253

Ambulatory care centers now provide

endoscopy

254

In ambulatory pharmacy services, clinical services should be available

80 to 90% of the time

255

One of the fastest growing areas of pharmacy is

mail-order pharmacies

256

The latest and most penetrating type of radiation is

gamma

257

Which compound is used in about 80% of radioactive drugs?

technetium-99m

258

Which is true about radiopharmaceuticals?

They require a receipt of a valid prescription or drug order

259

In hospice care, physicians must certify that the life expectancy of the patient is within

6 months

260

How are radiopharmaceuticals usually transported throughout an institution?

lead-lined containers

261

Special badges that monitor radiation level exposure (worn by workers in nuclear pharmacies) are required to be monitored

monthly

262

A modified unit-dose system features a single medication in each blister on cards that can hold between

30 and 90 blisters

263

Which of the following is not a type of home health care service?

radiopharmaceutical compounding

264

Which of the following statements about radioactive components is true?

They have short half lives.

265

Which of the following is NOT considered a type of radiation?

delta

266

An Internet pharmacy charges a patient a co-pay amount via the patient's

credit card

267

Which of the following is a disadvantage of mail-order pharmacy?

accessibility in emergencies

268

Nasogastric feeding tubes carry nutrients into the

stomach

269

The major source of payment for home care is

Medicare

270

A group of medications that is provided to a hospice patient by the hospice pharmacy to provide a "start" in treatment for the majority of urgent problems is a(n)

starter kit or comfort pack

271

Medications that are required on a continous basis for the treatment of chronic conditions are called

maintenance drugs

272

Vials containing the particular radiopharmaceutical compounds, usually in freeze-dried form are

reagent kits

273

An intravenous feeding that supplies all the nutrients necessary for life is

Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN)

274

What part of the radiopharmaceutical process involves performing the appropriate chemical, physical, and biological tests to ensure the suitability of the products to be used in humans?

Quality assurance

275

Pharmacists perform two types of functions for long-term care. What are they?

Distribution and consultant

276

What are the four types of Lipid Lowering Drugs?

Bile Acid Sequestrants, Fibric Acid Sequestrants, Niacin, and Statins

277

What is one Trade Name for Lovastatin?

Mevacor

278

Furosemide is what kind of diuretic?

Loop diuretic

279

Should a patient be taking a Potassium Supplement if they are on Edecrin?

Yes

280

Name a Potassium Sparing Diuretic?

Aldactone

281

Hygroton is what type of diuretic?

Thiazide Diuretic

282

The patient is hyperkalemic. What is the name of one diuretic that the physician could consider?

spironolactone

283

Hospital pharmacies leadership position is usually titled

Pharmacy Director

284

The medication order in a hospital must contain

patient's known drug allergies

285

The medication dispensing system that is considered the safest and most effective is the

unit-dose drug distribution system

286

In the hospital setting, all medications are ordered by the physician through

medication orders

287

The disadvantages of the floor stock system include

potential for medication errors

288

Common features of the unit dose system of drug distribution include the following, EXCEPT

bulk bottles can be used for more than one patient

289

Which type of drug product is not required to be sterile prior to administration?

sublingual tablets

290

A system of purchasing in which the hospital establishes a relationship with a single wholesaler in order to obtain more competitive pricing is

prime vendor purchasing

291

The target for inventory turnover rate is

10 to 12 times per year

292

The automated processing of medication orders also results in

generation of patient profiles, medication labels being produced, and medication administration records being produced

293

With a 24-hour medication cart exchange system, the final check is usually done by a

pharmacist

294

Roles for pharmacy technicians in the hospital include

setting up unit doses

295

Policies and Procedure Manuals should be revised at least

yearly

296

The organization that requires policies and procedures to guide the pharmacy department in providing safe, effective, and cost-effective drug therapy is the

Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO)

297

The agency that inspects and approves hospitals to provide care for Medicaid patients is

Centers for Medicare and Medicaid (CMS)

298

The practice of hospital pharmacy begins with the

medication order

299

The sterile product is usually associated with drugs that are administered by

injection or via the ophthalmic route

300

The primary disadvantage of wholesaler purchasing is

higher costs of pharmaceuticals

301

Which of the following statements is false about automation?

It issues recertification

302

Which of the following devices is able to fill each patient medication tray in the cart?

robotics

303

Failure to understand how the billing process works will cause errors in all of the following, EXCEPT

inventory

304

Which of the following is a quasi-legal organization that has defined a standard of practice for pharmacy departments with certain policies and procedures having a defined content?

American Society of Health-System Pharmacists

305

Which of the following groups of health care professionals are not employees of a hospital?

physicians

306

When multiple hospitals negotiate volume purchases together, this is called

group purchasing

307

In the hospital pharmacy who determines which medications will be purchased and maintained in stock?

Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee

308

What eliminates the "middle man" and handling fees but requires a significant commitment of time, larger inventories, and more storage space?

Direct purchasing

309

Which organization inspects and approves institutions to provide Medicaid and Medicare services?

CMS

310

The leadership position in hospital pharmacies is usually titled

Director of pharmacy

311

oral PRN medication order

Tylenol 650 mg PO Q8H as needed

312

scheduled oral medication order

Levaquin 500 mg PO Q24H

313

scheduled IV medication order

Enalapril 5 mg IV Q6H

314

Medications given under the direction of a research protocol are called

investigational medication order

315

person who dispenses and counsels patients

pharmacist

316

Person who assists the pharmacist by filling prescriptions and performing other nonjudgmental tasks

pharmacy technician

317

A group that requires specialized education and intellectual knowledge

profession

318

The art and science of dispensing and preparing medications and providing drug-related information to the public

pharmacy

319

A group with the responsibility for auditing the control system and evaluating product quality

assay and control

320

United States Pharmacopeia

USP

321

National Pharmacy Technician Association

NPTA

322

Pharmacy Technician Certification Board

PTCB

323

Pharmacy Technician Certification Exam

PTCE

324

American Society of Health-System Pharmacists

ASHP

325

American Association of Pharmacy Technicians

AAPT

326

American Pharmacists Association

APhA

327

The PTCB exam is a standardized national exam for certification to become a

pharmacy technician

328

What is a nonprofit organization that sets standards for the identity, strength, quality, purity, packaging, and labeling of drug products?

United States Pharmacopeia

329

A profession is characterized by

provision of a unique service to society, a code of ethics, and a specialized body of knowledge based on advanced education, which continues to expand throughout a person's career

330

According to the AACP, a Pharm D degree requires how many years of undergraduate study followed by 4 years of graduate study?

2 years

331

The role of the pharmacy technician has been expanding in recent years, and the number of pharmacy technicians has

increased

332

The skills of the pharmacy technician measured by the PTCB exam are

assisting the pharmacist in serving patients, maintaining medication and inventory control systemss, and participating in the administration and management of the pharmacy

333

What is the continuing education requirements?

20 hours of pharmacy-related continuing education and one hour must be in pharmacy law

334

The association that established a Code of Ethics for Pharmacy Technicians was

AAPT

335

the branch of philosophy that deals with the distinction between right and wrong and with the moral consequences of human actions

ethics

336

a principle or rule that is advisable or obligatory to observe

law

337

fraudulent labeling or marking

misbranding

338

a drug that is developed for small populations of people in need of the drug

orphan drug

339

rules and regulations resulting from court decisions

judicial law

340

a violation of the law

crime

341

a serious crime, such as murder, kidnapping, assault, or rape, that is punishable by imprisonment for more than one year

felony

342

a less serious crime, punishable by a fine or imprisonment for less than 1 year

misdemeanor

343

a discipline dealing with the ethical and moral implications of formulary biological research and applications

bioethics

344

a database of officially recognized drug names

national formulary

345

a uniquie and permanent product code assigned to each new drug as it becomes available in the marketplace; it identifies the manufacturer or distributor, the drug formulation, and the size and type of its packaging

NDC

346

Created the National Drug Code

Drug Listing Act of 1972

347

Established five classes of narcotics

Controlled Substance Act of 1970

348

This act created FDA

Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938

349

Created prescription requirements

Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951

350

Reflects an essential change of direction for drug abuse control

Anabolic Steroids Control Act of 1990

351

Requires that legend drugs must be in child-resistant containers

Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970

352

Requires pharmacists to offer to counsel patients

Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990

353

Requires that drug products, both prescription and nonprescription, must be effective and safe

Kefauver-Harris Amendment of 1962

354

Pertains to a patient's right to privacy

HIPAA-Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

355

Pertains to safety in the workplace

OSHA-Occupational Safety and Health Administration

356

The laws relevant to the practice of pharmacy may come from different sources. An example is

FDA

357

Civil law governs pharmacists who do not act in a professional manner with their customers, including areas such as

libel, slander, violation of privacy, and unintentional bodily injury

358

Ethics are based on

morals

359

The FDA regulates all drugs with the exception of

illegal drugs

360

Regulatory agencies are government-based departments that create specific rules about what is and is not ______ within a specific field or area of expertise?

legal

361

Violations against the government or the state are governed by

criminal law

362

What is considered the most serious type of crime against the government?

Treason

363

The failure to use a reasonable amount of care to prevent injury or damage to another is

negligence

364

Pharmacy laws of different states are different, but they are based on the same

principles, objectives, and goals of pharmaceutical practice

365

What agents have a high potential for abuse, but they are currently accepted for medical use in the United States?

Schedule II

366

What agents have the lowest abuse potential of the controlled substances and consist of preparations containing limited quantities of certain narcotic drugs?

Schedule V

367

narcotic alkaloids found in opium

opiates

368

drugs that block neuromuscular transmission at the neuromuscular junction; they cause paralysis of specific skeletal muscles

neuromuscular blocking agents

369

a temporary, abnormal electrical brain condition that results in abnorma neuronal activity; it can affect mental ability and cause convulsions

seizure

370

a handheld pressurized device used to deliver medications for inhalation

metered-dosee inhaler

371

a drug that induces sleep; often used to treat insomnia and in surgical anesthesia

hypnotic

372

a trance-like state that resembles sleep that is induced by the suggestions of one person upon another who accepts them as effective

hypnosis

373

a positively charged atom

cation

374

also known as "spasmolytics," these agents alleviate musculoskeletal pain and spasms to reduce spasticity

centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxants

375

an intense, involuntary muscle contraction or spasm, as is commonly seen during a seizure condition

convulsion

376

the most potent and consistently effective anti-inflammatory agents that are currently available for relief of respiratory conditions

corticosteroids

377

chemical substances that have morphine-like action in the body; commonly used for pain relief

opioids

378

a degenerative disorder of the central nervous system that usually impairs motor skills, speech, and other functions

Parkinson's Disease

379

the use of a sedative agent to reduce excitement, nervousness, or irritation; commonly prior to a medical procedure

sedation

380

substances that suppress the central nervous system, and induce calmness, relaxation, drowsiness, or sleep

sedatives

381

Condition that describes chest pain, lack of blood and oxygen supply to the heart muscle, usually because of vessel obstruction or spasm

angina pectoris

382

Therapeutic agents that slow or stop the growth of microorganisms

antibiotics

383

Drugs that counteract the action of histamine

antihistamines

384

A physiological state consisting of fear, apprehension, or worry

anxiety

385

Agents that relax the smooth muscle of the bronchial tubes

bronchodilators

386

Capable of killing bacteria. This term is typically used in reference to antiseptics, disinfections, or antibiotics

bactericidal

387

Various conditions of abnormal electrical heart activity; the heart may beat too fast, too slow, or irregularly

arrhythmias

388

A drug that reduces coughing, also called a "cough suppressant"

antitussive

389

Capable of stopping the growth and reproduction of bacteria

bacteriostatic

390

A device used to deliver medication in the form of micronized powder into the lungs

dry powder inhaler

391

chemical messengers that move through the blood or through cells that carry signals

hormones

392

The presence of raised or abnormal levels of lipids or lipoproteins in the blood

hyperlipidemia

393

High blood pressure

hypertension

394

Narcotic analgesics are

referred to as opioids

395

Hypertension

is treated by using diuretics, beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, as well as other drugs.

396

Heart arrhythmias occur because of

improper impulse generation and improper conduction

397

Invading microorganisms include

viruses, bacteria and fungi

398

Manipulating estrogen and progesterone levels can prevent

pregnancy

399

Semisynthetic antibiotics structurally and pharmacologically related to penicillins are

cephalosporins

400

Fluoroquinolones are related to

nalidixic acid

401

DNA viruses include

herpes simplex 1 and 2, varicella-zoster, and influenza A

402

commonly used devices for inhalation include

metered-dose inhaler, dry powder, and nebulizers

403

Carbamazepine is the generic name for

Tegretol

404

An alkali metal element that helps regulate neuromuscular excitability and muscle contraction

potassium

405

The only one of six essential nutrients containing nitrogen

protein

406

A fat-soluble vitamin essential for skeletal growth, maintenance of normal mucosal epithelium, reproduction, and visual acuity

retinol

407

Any of several organic acids produced by the hydrolysis of neutral fats

fatty acids

408

Fats

lipids

409

A disease caused by extreme lack of protein

kwashiorkor

410

A common metallic element essential for the synthesis of hemoglobin

iron

411

An essential micronutrient of the thyroid hormone

iodine

412

A water-soluble vitamin essential for cell growth and the reproduction of red blood cells

folic acid

413

Any substance that becomes part of a food product

food additive

414

A substance that prevents tooth decay and protects against osteoporosis and gum disease

fluoride

415

A nonmetallic chemical element occurring extensively in nature as a component of phosphate rock

phosphorus

416

A phosporus-containing lipid

phospholipid

417

The sum of the processes involved in the taking in of nutrients and their assimilation and used for proper body functioning and maintenance of health

nutrition

418

A chemical substance found in food that is necessary for good health

nutrient

419

A part of two enzymes that regulate energy metabolism

niacin

420

Inorganic substances occurring naturally in the earth's crust, having a characteristic chemical composition

minerals

421

A water-soluble, injectable form of the product of vitamin K3

menadione

422

Severe wasting caused by lack of protein and all nutrients or faulty absorption

marasmus

423

A silver-white mineral element; the second most abundant cation of the intracellular fluids in the body and is essential for many enzyme activities

magnesium

424

A system of nourishing through breathing

pharma food

425

Substances composed of lipids or fatty acids and occurring in various forms

fats

426

Compounds that dissociate into ions when dissolved in water

electrolytes

427

A water-soluble vitamin that is essential for the formation of collagen and fibroid tissue for teeth, bones, cartilage, connective tissue, and skin

ascorbic acid

428

A water-soluble B complex vitamin that acts as a coenzyme in fatty acid production and in the oxidation of fatty acids and carbohydrates

biotin

429

A metallic element that is a component of several important enzymes in the body and is essential to good health

copper

430

A waxy lipid found only in animal tissues

cholesterol

431

An anion of chlorine

chloride

432

An alkaline earth metal element

calcium

433

A fat-soluble vitamin chemically related to the steroids and essential for the normal formation of bones and teeth

calciferol

434

Natural fats consist of what percentage of triglycerides or triacylglycerols?

95%

435

A fat-soluble vitamin essential for normal reproduction, muscle development, resistance of erythrocytes to hemolysis, and various other biochemical functions.

Tocopherol

436

A water-soluble, crystalline compound of the B complex, essential for normal metabolism and health of the cardiovascular and nervous systems is

vitamin B1 or thiamin

437

Simple fat compounds consisting of three molecules of fatty acid and glycerol is

triglycerides

438

A water-soluble vitamin that is essential for the formation of collagen and fibroid tissue for teeth, bones, cartilage, connective tissue, and skin is

vitamin C

439

Vitamin K is also called

quinones

440

Life expectancy in the United States is

increasing

441

Good fats are known as

HDL

442

Zinc deficiency is characterized by

abnormal fatigue, decreased alertness, and a decrease in taste and odor sensitivity

443

Enteral tube feedings are containdicated in patients with the following:

diffused peritonits, severe diarrhea, and intractable vomiting

444

A system of enzymes that contributes to drug interactions

cytochrome P-450

445

The cooperative effect of two or more drugs given together to produce a stronger effect than that of either drug given alone

synergism

446

When two drugs act to decrease the effects of each other

antagonism

447

An interference of a drug with the effect of another drug, nutrient, or laboratory test

drug interaction

448

One drug prolongs the effects of another drug

potentiation

449

Surgical patients commonly receive more than

10 drugs

450

When two drugs with similar actions are taken, the effect of the drugs will

double

451

What agents are most often abused?

Opioids, barbiturates, and analgesics

452

Smoking increases the activity of drug-metabolizing enzymes in the

liver

453

The pharmacist has a valuable opportunity to make a significant contribution to further enhance the

efficacy of drug therapy and safety of drug therapy

454

The process of entering a physician's order into a computer

transcription

455

Zeros that follow decimal points

trailing zeros

456

Charts used to measure a patient's pain intensity level

pain scales

457

The failure to do something that a reasonable person might do, or doing something that a reasonable person might not do

negligence

458

Negligence performed by a professional, such as a pharmacist, or a pharmacist-supervised technician

malpractice

459

Zeros that precede decimal points

leading zeros

460

A localized mass of blood outside of the blood vessels that appears to be discolored

hematoma

461

Having to do with the examination and treatment of patients

clinical

462

Agents that give immunity to diseases or living organisms

biologics

463

According to the Institute for Safe Medication Practices, approximately how many Americans die each year as a result of medical errors?

98,000

464

Deaths in U.S. hospitals due to medical errors are more than deaths from motor vehicle accidents, breast cancer and AIDS? What does this number exceed?

44,000

465

According to the Institute for Safe Medication Practices, which medications have the "highest alert" concerning medication errors?

Insulin and heparin, narcotics and opiates, and potassium chloride injections

466

Fatigue has many effects that can allow medication errors to occur. They include:

slowed reaction times, reduced accuracy, and inability to recognize changes in the patient

467

The term "every other day" is abbreviated:

QOD

468

The term "right eye" is abbreviated:

OD

469

Penalties concerning negligence or malpractice may include:

restriction on practice and fines, suspension of ability to practice and jail sentences, and revocation of ability to practice

470

A pharmacist who fails to perform a prospective drug regimen review, gives incorrect advice, or doesn't warn a patient about potential adverse effects is guilty of

malpractice

471

The Joint Commission requires organizations to prove that their personnel are:

competent

472

An organization that surveys and accredits health care organizations

The Joint Commission

473

An order for a medication given under direction of research protocols that also require strict documentation of procurement, dispensing, and administration

investigational medication order

474

The director of the pharmacy or buyer directly contacts and negotiates pricing with pharmaceutical manufactures

independent purchasing

475

The provision of pharmaceutical services within an institutional or hospital setting

hospital pharmacy

476

Many hospitals working together to negotiate with pharmaceutical manufacturers to get better prices and benefits based upon the ability to promise high committed volumes

group purchasing

477

A system of drug distribution in which drugs are issue in bulk form and stored in medication rooms on patient care units

floor stock system

478

The automatic control or operation of equipment, processes, or systems, and often involves robotic machinery controlled by computers

automation

479

An organization that inspects and approves institutions to provide Medicaid and Medicare services

Centers for Medicare & Medicaid

480

An inventory control system in which stock arrives just before it is needed

just-in-time system

481

The written order for particular medications and services to be provided to a patient within an institutional setting

medication order

482

An order for a medication to be given in response to a medical emergency

emergency medication order

483

An organization that oversees hospitals, including the pharmacy department

department of health

484

An order for medication to be given in rapid response to a specified medical condition

demand/stat medication order

485

An order for medication that requires monitored documentation of procurement, dispensing, and administration

controlled substance medication order

486

A computerized system in which the physician inputs the dedication order directly for electronic receipt in the pharmacy

computerized physician order entry system

487

A system of drug distribution in which a nurse supplies the pharmacy with a transcribed medication order for a particular patient and the pharmacy prepares a 3-day supply of the medication

patient prescription system

488

A system for distributing medication in which the pharmacy prepares single doses of medications for a patient a 24-hour period

unit-dose drug distribution system

489

A substance that contains no living microorganisms

sterile product

490

An agency that registers pharmacists and pharmacy technicians

state board of pharmacy

491

An order for medication that is to be given on a continuous schedule

scheduled medication order

492

An order for medication given via an infection; these medications are to be prepared in a controlled environment

scheduled intravenous/ total parenteral nutrition solution order

493

Statement of a series of steps to implement the policies of the department or organization

procedure

494

An order for medication to be given in response to a specific defined parameter or condition

PRN medication order

495

A formal document specifying guidelines for operations of an institution

policies and procedures manual

496

Statement of the definite course or method of action selected to support goals of the overall organization

policy

497

Policies and procedures to show proper handling of controlled substances

Drug Enforcement Administration

498

Policies and procedures showing implementation of its guidelines and standards of practice

American Society of Health-System Pharmacists

499

Investigation of drug policies and procedures in hospital pharmacies and drug recall policies and procedures

Food and Drug Administration

500

Policies and procedures that ensure the health and safety of people in the workplace

Occupational Safety and Health Administration