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Pharm Comp Retention IPT

front 1

Brand Name: Claritin

back 1

Generic Name: loratadine

front 2

Brand Name: Benadryl

back 2

Generic Name: diphenhydramine

front 3

Brand Name: Zyrtec

back 3

Generic Name: cetirizine

front 4

Brand Name: Dramamine

back 4

Generic Name: dimenhydrinate

front 5

convulsion

back 5

refers to abnormal motor movements

front 6

stage IV anesthesia

back 6

medullary depression begins

front 7

stage I anesthesia

back 7

euphoria and amnesia

front 8

American College of Clinical Pharmacy (ACCP)

back 8

provides resources for clinical pharmacists

front 9

American Council on Pharmaceutical Education (ACPE)

back 9

national accrediting agency for pharmacy education programs

front 10

American Pharmacists Association (APhA)

back 10

the largest of all the pharmacy organizations

front 11

American Associations of College of Pharmacy (AACP)

back 11

represents all 87 pharmacy schools in the United States

front 12

Brand Name: Gastrisin

back 12

Generic Name: sulfisoxazole

front 13

Brand Name: Fuzeon

back 13

Generic Name: enfuvirtide

front 14

Brand Name: Omnipen

back 14

Generic Name: ampicillin

front 15

Brand Name: Trimox

back 15

Generic Name: amoxicillin

front 16

Brand Name: Adulfidine

back 16

Generic Name: sulfasalazine

front 17

Brand Name: Mycostatin

back 17

Generic Name: Nystatin

front 18

Enfuvirtide is classified as which of the following HIV anitviral agents?

back 18

fusion inhibitor (FI)

front 19

Which of the following drugs is NOT used for Parkinson's Disease?

back 19

fluoxetine (Prozac)

front 20

Specialties in the profession of pharmacy include

back 20

drug information

front 21

The amount of medical knowledge gained is said to double every

back 21

5 years

front 22

A certified pharmacy technician (CPhT) may

back 22

monitor inventory and repackage medication under pharmacist supervision

front 23

Which of the following classes of drugs cannot help in achieving the treatment goals for angina pectoris?

back 23

diuretics

front 24

Good sources for continuing education in the field of pharmacy include

back 24

workshops and seminars offered by pharmacy organizations

front 25

Chemical substances that have morphine-like action in the body are referred to as

back 25

opioids

front 26

The largest national pharmacy organization is the

back 26

American Pharmacists Association (APhA)

front 27

Which of the following classes of drugs is used to prevent formation of thrombi?

back 27

anticoagulants

front 28

An example of loop diuretics is

back 28

furosemide

front 29

Hypnotic drugs are used to treat

back 29

sleep disorders

front 30

Which of the following is NOT an antihistamine?

back 30

hydrocodone (Histussin)

front 31

Which of the following insulins can be administered intravenously?

back 31

regular

front 32

Which organization sets the standards for the identity, strength, quality, purity, packaging, and labeling of drug products?

back 32

United States Pharmacopeia (USP)

front 33

Glucophage is the trade name for

back 33

metformin

front 34

Which of the following statements about insulin is true?

back 34

Insulin is a hormone

front 35

Many clerical tasks in pharmacies are now performed by

back 35

pharmacy technicians

front 36

Which of the following is an example of an "amide" local anesthetic?

back 36

lidocaine

front 37

An agent used to treat fungal diseases is

back 37

amphotericin B

front 38

Which of the following is an RNA virus?

back 38

retrovirus

front 39

Augmentin is the trade name of

back 39

amoxicillin/ clavulanate postassium

front 40

The percentage of women enrolled in pharmacy schools in the U.S. colleges of pharmacy in 1993 was

back 40

63 percent

front 41

The core requirements for a 2-year Associate degree for pharmacy technicians include

back 41

terminology

front 42

Captopril, an antihypertensive, is classified as which of the following?

back 42

angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors

front 43

Manipulating estrogen and progesterone levels can prevent

back 43

pregnancy

front 44

Histamine blockers that affect type 2 receptors are used for

back 44

peptic ulcers

front 45

An example of a class III antiarrhythmic drug that interferes with potassium outflow is

back 45

amiodarone

front 46

The initial stimulus for coughing probably arises in the

back 46

bronchial mucosa

front 47

The pharmacy technician certification must be renewed every

back 47

2 years

front 48

Which of the following drugs is classified as an antidepressant, and is also used for smoking cessation?

back 48

bupropion

front 49

The trade name of sertraline is

back 49

Zoloft

front 50

Which of the following is a disadvantage of most antihistamines?

back 50

sedation

front 51

The generic name of Prozac is

back 51

fluoxetine

front 52

Vancomycin is usually given

back 52

intravenously

front 53

Which of the following is the trade name of amlodipine?

back 53

Norvasc

front 54

The generic name of Tagamet is

back 54

cimetidine

front 55

Which of the following is capable of stopping the growth and reproduction of bacteria, but does not necessarily kill bacteria?

back 55

bacteriostat

front 56

The presence of raised or abnormal levels of lipoproteins and lipids in the blood is called

back 56

hyperlipidemia

front 57

Which of the following are the most potent and effective anti-inflammatory agents?

back 57

corticosteroids

front 58

Which of the following drugs is NOT a proton pump inhibitor?

back 58

sulfisoxazole

front 59

Diltiazem, an antianginal drug, is classified as which of the following?

back 59

calcium channel blocker

front 60

The quality and control unti responsible for auditing the control system and evaluating product quality is sometimes referred to as

back 60

Assay and Control

front 61

Of the number of required continuing education hours for the CPhT, how many hours must be related to pharmacy law?

back 61

1 hour

front 62

The generic name of Tofranil is

back 62

imipramine

front 63

Which of the following is an example of centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxants?

back 63

baclofen

front 64

Which of the following is NOT used to treat asthma?

back 64

lansoprazole (Prevacid)

front 65

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

back 65

federal agency that provides facilities and services for the investigation, identification, prevention, and control of disease

front 66

Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC)

back 66

creates standards for child-resistant packaging

front 67

Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906

back 67

prohibits the interstate distribution or sale of adulterated and misbranded food and drugs

front 68

Supplemental Health and Educational Act of 1994

back 68

placed the burden of proof squarely on FDA in regard to the safeness of dietary supplements

front 69

Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970

back 69

controls the manufacture, distribution, and dispensing of controlled substances

front 70

Orphan Drug Act of 1983

back 70

offers tax breaks for companies to undertake the development and manufacture of drugs for uncommon diseases.

front 71

administrative law

back 71

the rules and regulations established by agencies of the federal government.

front 72

criminal law

back 72

governs the relationship of the individual to society as a whole.

front 73

statutes

back 73

results from action by the legislature

front 74

slander

back 74

defamatory spoken words

front 75

negligence

back 75

failure to use a reasonable amount of care to prevent injury or damage to another.

front 76

What control drug schedule is morphine?

back 76

Schedule II controlled substance

front 77

Which schedule is the opiate morphine, which may result in severe psychological and physical dependence when abused?

back 77

Schedule II

front 78

Who creates the standards for child-resistant packaging, as required by the Poison Prevention Packaging Act (PPPA)?

back 78

Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC)

front 79

The maximum amount of items that may be ordered on DEA Form 222 is

back 79

10

front 80

Orphan drugs are used for all of the following disorders or conditions, EXCEPT

back 80

peptic ulcer

front 81

The "Administrative Simplification" provision of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) consists of

back 81

Electronic Health Transaction Standards and Privacy and Confidentiality Standards

front 82

An example of an intentional tort is

back 82

battery

front 83

The study of values or principles governing personal relationships is called

back 83

ethics

front 84

What regulatory agency is responsible for the approval of drugs, over-the-counter (OTC) and prescription labeling, and standards for drug manufacturing?

back 84

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

front 85

Which of the following amendments or acts required manufacturers to register and list their products?

back 85

Medical Device Amendment

front 86

The branch of the government that is responsible for creating laws is the

back 86

legislative branch

front 87

Which act prohibits the reimportation of a drug into the United States by anyone but the manufacturer?

back 87

Prescription Drug Marketing Act

front 88

The Model State Pharmacy Practice Act (MSPPA), which can provide a greater degree of uniformity between states in regards to the practice of pharmacy, was developed by the

back 88

National Associations of Boards of Pharmacy (NABP)

front 89

A pharmacist must be registered with the DEA if he

back 89

owns a pharmacy as a sole proprietor

front 90

Pharmacies should make a complete and accurate record of all stocks of controlled substances on hand every

back 90

2 years

front 91

When a controlled substance is stolen or lost from a pharmacy, the nearest DEA office must be notified using which of the following DEA forms?

back 91

106

front 92

inventory turnover rate

back 92

mathematical calculation of the number of times the average inventory is replaced over a period of time (usually annually)

front 93

inventory control

back 93

controlling the amount of product on hand to maximize the return of investment

front 94

point-of-sale (POS) master

back 94

inventory control system that allows inventory to be tracked as it is used

front 95

perpetual inventory system

back 95

inventory control system that allows for monthly review of drug use

front 96

want book

back 96

list of drugs and devices that routinely need to be ordered

front 97

Repackaged pharmaceuticals that are expired should be

back 97

placed in a separate area until they can be properly disposed of

front 98

When specific stock reorder points are reached, they trigger the

back 98

computer to automatically reorder

front 99

The formula of adding the beginning inventory for a period to the ending inventory for a period and dividing by two is for calculating

back 99

average inventory

front 100

It is important to stock items according to their

back 100

specific storage requirements

front 101

Inventory of controlled substances must be taken every

back 101

two years

front 102

What is NOT true concerning the use of a point-of-sale (POS) master?

back 102

It can be used to check for therapeutic duplications in a drug regimen.

front 103

Which of the following is NOT one of the three types of formulary systems?

back 103

pediatric formulary

front 104

If controlled substances have been ordered, they should be received into the pharmacy by a

back 104

pharmacist

front 105

The stock of medications a pharmacy keeps immediately on hand is called a(n)

back 105

inventory

front 106

Most drug products are received in the pharmacy in

back 106

bulk "stock" bottles

front 107

A Class III recall is for products that may

back 107

violate FDA labeling or manufacturing

front 108

Which of the following are used to most easily determine each received item and its associated information?

back 108

bar codes

front 109

What is true concerning unit-of-use packaging?

back 109

It will allow pharmacists to prepare medications before they are needed

front 110

An example of a want book would be a

back 110

spiral-bound notebook in which order stickers may be placed

front 111

The purpose of drug formularies is to

back 111

increase selection of items that may be prescribed

front 112

A list of articles in stock, with the description and quantity of each, is referred to as a(n)

back 112

inventory

front 113

Which of the following is the most suitable, flexible, and open-ended system on the market that can be installed in all of the computers in the main pharmacy?

back 113

point-of-sale master

front 114

Most automated dispensing systems comply with both the

back 114

HIPAA and Joint Commission

front 115

Bar coding saves

back 115

lives, time and dollars

front 116

Inventory control is closely associated with the function of

back 116

purchasing

front 117

The perpetual inventory is a written record of the amount of controlled substances for which of the following drug schedules?

back 117

II

front 118

A list of drugs and devices that routinely need to be reordered is called a

back 118

want book

front 119

Which drug recall level may cause serious harm or death?

back 119

Class I

front 120

What is false about inventory and control systems in pharmacy today?

back 120

Manual systems usually keep a perpetual inventory

front 121

The real advantage of computerized inventory control systems is

back 121

time saving

front 122

Which of the following is the simplest and most widely used method of inventory control?

back 122

want book system

front 123

Which of the following is not a type of inventory management system?

back 123

automated dispensing system

front 124

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of automated dispensing systems?

back 124

cheaper

front 125

Expired compounded pharmaceuticals must be

back 125

disposed of

front 126

What is the purpose of formularies?

back 126

to eliminate duplication

front 127

The medication master file contains all of the information needed for

back 127

inventory, pricing, and ordering

front 128

A pharmacy has purchased 550 products over a period of 3 months. If their average inventory was 235 products in a 3-month period, their inventory turnover rate for this period is

back 128

2.34

front 129

Which class of drug recalls is considered most dangerous, and may cause serious health problems or death?

back 129

Class I

front 130

Regarding inventory, an estimated count must be done for which drug schedules?

back 130

III to V

front 131

For the period of January through June, a pharmacy had a beginning inventory of 312 products and an ending inventory of 336 products. Which of the following is the average inventory for this 6-month period?

back 131

324

front 132

pipette

back 132

long, thin, calibrated hollow tube that is made of glass and is used for measuring liquids

front 133

conical graduate

back 133

device used for measuring liquids that has a wide top and tapers from top to bottom

front 134

compounding slab

back 134

plate made of ground glass with a hard, flat, and nonabsorbent surface for mixing compounds

front 135

cylindrical graduate

back 135

device used for measuring liquids that has a narrow diameter

front 136

pestle

back 136

solid device that is used to crush or grind material in a mortar

front 137

gel

back 137

suspensions made of either small inorganic particles or large organic molecules interpenetrated by a liquid

front 138

pastes

back 138

oil-in-water or water-in-oil emulsion characterized by a high content of solids

front 139

cream

back 139

water-based emulsion in which drugs in powder or crystal form are usually mixed in for topical use

front 140

suspension

back 140

liquid dosage form that contains solid drug particles floating in a liquid medium

front 141

solvent

back 141

liquid substance in which another substance is being dissolved

front 142

The type of mortar and pestle that has the advantage of being nonporous and nonstaining is

back 142

glass

front 143

When mixing two or more powders, you should

back 143

pulverize them separately to the same particle size

front 144

Which device is used to shrink bands onto vials?

back 144

heat gun

front 145

When compounding solutions, the drug should be dissolved in the

back 145

solvent in which it is more soluble

front 146

When measuring out a liquid, it is good practice to

back 146

select a container that will be half full when measuring, measure a volume that is at least 20% of the capacity of the graduate, and view the measurement by looking at eye level to the surface

front 147

Class A balances have a sensitivity requirement of

back 147

6 mg

front 148

Which piece of equipment is designed for mixing and melting substances?

back 148

beaker

front 149

Which balance is NOT appropriate for prescription compounding?

back 149

counterbalance

front 150

When compounding a solution, which form of the drug should be used?

back 150

salt form

front 151

Unlike compounded solutions, suspensions

back 151

have problematic physical stability once compounded

front 152

The smallest size graduate available is

back 152

5 mL

front 153

The minimum amount you should measure with a 100 mL graduated cylinder is

back 153

5 mL

front 154

When measuring out a liquid in a graduate, the upper surface of the liquid is called

back 154

quarter-moon-shaped body and meniscus

front 155

Which type of base is a water-miscible base often used in vaginal and rectal suppositories?

back 155

glycerinated gelatin

front 156

An example of a drug that is applied topically but is intended for systemic absorption into the body is

back 156

nitroglycerin

front 157

Mortars and pestles are usually made of all the following, EXCEPT

back 157

ceramic

front 158

Which piece of equipment is used to remove seals placed onto vials?

back 158

crimper

front 159

The maximum amount that can be weighed out with a Class A balance is

back 159

120 g

front 160

The largest capsule size that should be given orally to patients is

back 160

number 000

front 161

A two-pan device that may be used for weighing small amounts of drugs (not more than 120 grams) is called a(n)

back 161

class A prescription balance

front 162

Balance weights should only be handled with

back 162

forceps

front 163

Sterility of compounded products can be achieved through the following methods, EXCEPT

back 163

freezing

front 164

The first step in adding a salt to a syrup is to add

back 164

salt to a few milliliters of water

front 165

When reconstituting dry powders of parenteral drugs, it is important to know the

back 165

correct diluent

front 166

Tablet molds are commonly made of

back 166

metal

front 167

Manufacturing of prescription products for resale to pharmacies is regulated by the

back 167

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

front 168

Why are balance weights usually made of a metal such as brass?

back 168

Metal is corrosion resistant.

front 169

Spatulas are usually made of

back 169

plastic, stainless steel, and hard rubber

front 170

Which type of base is used most commonly for rectal suppositories?

back 170

cocoa butter

front 171

Ointments are considered

back 171

oil based in nature and semisolid dosage form

front 172

Ceclor is what generation of Cephalosporins?

back 172

Second generation

front 173

The Trade name for Ceftriaxone Sodium is what?

back 173

Rocephin

front 174

Cefdinir is what generation of Cephalosporins?

back 174

Third Generation

front 175

Name a first generation Cephalosporin?

back 175

cefadroxil, cefazolin sodium, cephalexin (Generic) Duricel, Ultracef, Ancef, Kefzol, Cefanex, Keflex (Trade)

front 176

True or False: Maxipime can be given PO

back 176

False: Only IM, IV

front 177

What are the three types of Tetracyclines?

back 177

Short-acting, intermediate-acting, and long acting

front 178

What is the generic name for Sumycin?

back 178

tetracycline hydrochoride

front 179

What is the maximum dose of Declomycin that a patient may have (in milligrams) and which type does it belong to?

back 179

2400 mg, intermediate-acting

front 180

triglycerides

back 180

a simple fat compound consisting of three molecules of fatty acid and glycerol

front 181

nutrition

back 181

The sum of the processes involved in the taking in of nutrients and their assimilation and use for proper body functioning and maintenance of health

front 182

cholesterol

back 182

A waxy lipid found only in animal tissues; a member of a group of lipids called "sterols."

front 183

protein

back 183

the only one of six essential nutrients containing nitrogen

front 184

cyanocobalamin

back 184

A water-soluble vitamin that is the common pharmaceutical form of vitamin B12

front 185

vitamin

back 185

an organic substance necessary for life although it does not independently provide energy

front 186

phospholipid

back 186

a phosphorous-containing liquid

front 187

mineral

back 187

an inorganic substance occurring naturally in the earth's crust

front 188

iron

back 188

a common metallic element essential for the synthesis of hemoglobin

front 189

carbohydrate

back 189

the nutrient providing the main source of energy in the average diet

front 190

electrolyte

back 190

compound that dissociates into ions when dissolved in water

front 191

vitamin B3

back 191

also called niacin

front 192

vitamin B6

back 192

also called pyridoxine

front 193

vitamin D

back 193

also called calciferol

front 194

vitamin B1

back 194

also called thiamin

front 195

Vitamin B12

back 195

also called cyanocobalamin

front 196

vitamin A

back 196

also called retinol

front 197

vitamin B9

back 197

also called folacin

front 198

vitamin E

back 198

also called tocopherol

front 199

vitamin K1

back 199

also called phylloquionone

front 200

Amino acids that must be derived from dietary sources and cannot be synthesized by the body are called

back 200

essential amino acids

front 201

Copper accumulation in the liver may cause

back 201

Wilson's disease

front 202

Which vitamin is important for the absorption of calcium and phosphorus?

back 202

Vitamin D

front 203

Factors that may result in a drug interaction include the following, EXCEPT

back 203

pharmacy intervention

front 204

Which vitamin is given to patients with hemorrhage disorders?

back 204

Vitamin K

front 205

Vitamin B1 is also called

back 205

thiamin

front 206

Which of the following drugs may cause peripheral neuritis in some patients?

back 206

isoniazid

front 207

Which of the following statements about calcium is false?

back 207

It is required for the elimination of urine

front 208

Protein is needed for the formation of

back 208

enzymes, antibodies and hormones

front 209

Which vitamins are least likely to cause adverse effects when taken in overdose?

back 209

Vitamin B complex

front 210

LDL (low-density lipoproteins) levels can be decreased by

back 210

exercise and decreased dietary intake of cholesterol

front 211

Which of the following nutrients provides the most energy for the body?

back 211

fats

front 212

Which nutrient provides the most concentrated source of calories (9 kcal per gram)?

back 212

lipids

front 213

Which of the following drugs may be given concurrently with grapefruit?

back 213

acetaminophen

front 214

Concurrent use of alcoholic beverages and sedatives may result in

back 214

excessive CNS depression

front 215

It is recommended to limit fat intake to what percentage of total calories consumed?

back 215

30 percent

front 216

Proteins are complex nitrogenous compounds that are composed of large combinations of

back 216

amino acids

front 217

Any patient taking a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor (an antidepressant) should avoid all of the following foods or beverages, EXCEPT

back 217

diet Coke

front 218

Current dietary goals in the United States recommend that carbohydrates constitute what percentage of total calories consumed?

back 218

55 to 60 percent

front 219

The lipoprotein that transports cholesterol from the body to the liver for metabolism, considered the 'good cholesterol," is

back 219

HDL (high-density lipoproteins

front 220

Excessive consumption of carbohydrates may lead to

back 220

obesity

front 221

Carbidopa is often prescribed in combination with levodopa in patients with Parkinson's Disease. The addition of carbidopa decreases the amount of levodopa needed to have an effect, but it does not have a beneficial effect in these patients if given alone. This is an example of

back 221

Potentiation

front 222

The Food Guide Pyramid is scheduled to undergo changes by the USDA due to

back 222

epidemic numbers of overweight people in the United States

front 223

Vegetables such as broccoli and cabbage may inactivate

back 223

warfarin

front 224

Synergism refers to the effect of two or more drugs causing

back 224

a stronger effect

front 225

A chronic disease that develops over years as a result of a deficiency in total caloric intake is called

back 225

marasmus

front 226

Chronic use of alcoholic beverages may interact with the drug phenytoin by

back 226

increasing liver enzyme activity

front 227

Which vitamin in certain green leafy vegetables interacts with warfarin?

back 227

Vitamin K

front 228

Garlic is an herb used for lowering cholesterol and modestly lowering blood pressure. Which types of drugs would you caution patients about taking concurrently with garlic?

back 228

antihypertensives

front 229

Iodine is an essential micronutrient for which of the following hormones?

back 229

thyroxine

front 230

Which of the following increases the drug metabolizing enzymes of the liver?

back 230

smoking

front 231

How many amino acids have been identified as vital for proper growth, development, and maintenance of health?

back 231

22

front 232

Which nonprescription drug interacts with warfarin?

back 232

aspirin (Bayer)

front 233

Carbohydrates that are not immediately used by the body are stored as

back 233

glycogen

front 234

The recommended daily requirement of protein is

back 234

0.8 grams per kilogram of body weight

front 235

Which vitamin is converted from cholesterol in the skin by ultraviolet light?

back 235

Vitamin D

front 236

Hypermagnesemia is usually caused by

back 236

renal insufficiency

front 237

What patient variables may predispose a patient to drug interactions?

back 237

age

front 238

Good cholesterol is known as

back 238

HDL

front 239

The antibiotic ciprofloxacin may have decreased absorption when taken with

back 239

magnesium- and aluminum-containing antacids

front 240

In the future, the number of acute beds relative to beds in long-term care will

back 240

decrease

front 241

Long-term care facilities require pharmacy services to be available

back 241

24 hours a day

front 242

What functions do pharmacists provide for long-term care?

back 242

distribution and consultation

front 243

The role of pharmacists in long-term care has been shown to

back 243

decrease overall medication costs

front 244

The growth of home health care depends on

back 244

physician acceptance, increase in the number of elderly patients, and improvement of technology

front 245

Several types of home health care services that are available include the following, EXCEPT

back 245

interventional radiology

front 246

The largest payer of home health care services is

back 246

Medicare

front 247

High-tech home health care requires close collaboration between the pharmacy and

back 247

physicians, registered nurses, and medical supply companies

front 248

Drugs added to IV solutions suffer degradation from the effects of

back 248

storage conditions

front 249

The equipment typically found in a home infusion pharmacy includes a(n)

back 249

laminar airflow hoods

front 250

Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) consists of

back 250

amino acids and dextrose

front 251

Which of the following is correct about total parenteral nutrition (TPN)?

back 251

A safe and effective mixing order is required

front 252

For short-term enteral nutrition therapy, which type of feeding tube is used?

back 252

nasogastric tube

front 253

Ambulatory care centers now provide

back 253

endoscopy

front 254

In ambulatory pharmacy services, clinical services should be available

back 254

80 to 90% of the time

front 255

One of the fastest growing areas of pharmacy is

back 255

mail-order pharmacies

front 256

The latest and most penetrating type of radiation is

back 256

gamma

front 257

Which compound is used in about 80% of radioactive drugs?

back 257

technetium-99m

front 258

Which is true about radiopharmaceuticals?

back 258

They require a receipt of a valid prescription or drug order

front 259

In hospice care, physicians must certify that the life expectancy of the patient is within

back 259

6 months

front 260

How are radiopharmaceuticals usually transported throughout an institution?

back 260

lead-lined containers

front 261

Special badges that monitor radiation level exposure (worn by workers in nuclear pharmacies) are required to be monitored

back 261

monthly

front 262

A modified unit-dose system features a single medication in each blister on cards that can hold between

back 262

30 and 90 blisters

front 263

Which of the following is not a type of home health care service?

back 263

radiopharmaceutical compounding

front 264

Which of the following statements about radioactive components is true?

back 264

They have short half lives.

front 265

Which of the following is NOT considered a type of radiation?

back 265

delta

front 266

An Internet pharmacy charges a patient a co-pay amount via the patient's

back 266

credit card

front 267

Which of the following is a disadvantage of mail-order pharmacy?

back 267

accessibility in emergencies

front 268

Nasogastric feeding tubes carry nutrients into the

back 268

stomach

front 269

The major source of payment for home care is

back 269

Medicare

front 270

A group of medications that is provided to a hospice patient by the hospice pharmacy to provide a "start" in treatment for the majority of urgent problems is a(n)

back 270

starter kit or comfort pack

front 271

Medications that are required on a continous basis for the treatment of chronic conditions are called

back 271

maintenance drugs

front 272

Vials containing the particular radiopharmaceutical compounds, usually in freeze-dried form are

back 272

reagent kits

front 273

An intravenous feeding that supplies all the nutrients necessary for life is

back 273

Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN)

front 274

What part of the radiopharmaceutical process involves performing the appropriate chemical, physical, and biological tests to ensure the suitability of the products to be used in humans?

back 274

Quality assurance

front 275

Pharmacists perform two types of functions for long-term care. What are they?

back 275

Distribution and consultant

front 276

What are the four types of Lipid Lowering Drugs?

back 276

Bile Acid Sequestrants, Fibric Acid Sequestrants, Niacin, and Statins

front 277

What is one Trade Name for Lovastatin?

back 277

Mevacor

front 278

Furosemide is what kind of diuretic?

back 278

Loop diuretic

front 279

Should a patient be taking a Potassium Supplement if they are on Edecrin?

back 279

Yes

front 280

Name a Potassium Sparing Diuretic?

back 280

Aldactone

front 281

Hygroton is what type of diuretic?

back 281

Thiazide Diuretic

front 282

The patient is hyperkalemic. What is the name of one diuretic that the physician could consider?

back 282

spironolactone

front 283

Hospital pharmacies leadership position is usually titled

back 283

Pharmacy Director

front 284

The medication order in a hospital must contain

back 284

patient's known drug allergies

front 285

The medication dispensing system that is considered the safest and most effective is the

back 285

unit-dose drug distribution system

front 286

In the hospital setting, all medications are ordered by the physician through

back 286

medication orders

front 287

The disadvantages of the floor stock system include

back 287

potential for medication errors

front 288

Common features of the unit dose system of drug distribution include the following, EXCEPT

back 288

bulk bottles can be used for more than one patient

front 289

Which type of drug product is not required to be sterile prior to administration?

back 289

sublingual tablets

front 290

A system of purchasing in which the hospital establishes a relationship with a single wholesaler in order to obtain more competitive pricing is

back 290

prime vendor purchasing

front 291

The target for inventory turnover rate is

back 291

10 to 12 times per year

front 292

The automated processing of medication orders also results in

back 292

generation of patient profiles, medication labels being produced, and medication administration records being produced

front 293

With a 24-hour medication cart exchange system, the final check is usually done by a

back 293

pharmacist

front 294

Roles for pharmacy technicians in the hospital include

back 294

setting up unit doses

front 295

Policies and Procedure Manuals should be revised at least

back 295

yearly

front 296

The organization that requires policies and procedures to guide the pharmacy department in providing safe, effective, and cost-effective drug therapy is the

back 296

Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO)

front 297

The agency that inspects and approves hospitals to provide care for Medicaid patients is

back 297

Centers for Medicare and Medicaid (CMS)

front 298

The practice of hospital pharmacy begins with the

back 298

medication order

front 299

The sterile product is usually associated with drugs that are administered by

back 299

injection or via the ophthalmic route

front 300

The primary disadvantage of wholesaler purchasing is

back 300

higher costs of pharmaceuticals

front 301

Which of the following statements is false about automation?

back 301

It issues recertification

front 302

Which of the following devices is able to fill each patient medication tray in the cart?

back 302

robotics

front 303

Failure to understand how the billing process works will cause errors in all of the following, EXCEPT

back 303

inventory

front 304

Which of the following is a quasi-legal organization that has defined a standard of practice for pharmacy departments with certain policies and procedures having a defined content?

back 304

American Society of Health-System Pharmacists

front 305

Which of the following groups of health care professionals are not employees of a hospital?

back 305

physicians

front 306

When multiple hospitals negotiate volume purchases together, this is called

back 306

group purchasing

front 307

In the hospital pharmacy who determines which medications will be purchased and maintained in stock?

back 307

Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee

front 308

What eliminates the "middle man" and handling fees but requires a significant commitment of time, larger inventories, and more storage space?

back 308

Direct purchasing

front 309

Which organization inspects and approves institutions to provide Medicaid and Medicare services?

back 309

CMS

front 310

The leadership position in hospital pharmacies is usually titled

back 310

Director of pharmacy

front 311

oral PRN medication order

back 311

Tylenol 650 mg PO Q8H as needed

front 312

scheduled oral medication order

back 312

Levaquin 500 mg PO Q24H

front 313

scheduled IV medication order

back 313

Enalapril 5 mg IV Q6H

front 314

Medications given under the direction of a research protocol are called

back 314

investigational medication order

front 315

person who dispenses and counsels patients

back 315

pharmacist

front 316

Person who assists the pharmacist by filling prescriptions and performing other nonjudgmental tasks

back 316

pharmacy technician

front 317

A group that requires specialized education and intellectual knowledge

back 317

profession

front 318

The art and science of dispensing and preparing medications and providing drug-related information to the public

back 318

pharmacy

front 319

A group with the responsibility for auditing the control system and evaluating product quality

back 319

assay and control

front 320

United States Pharmacopeia

back 320

USP

front 321

National Pharmacy Technician Association

back 321

NPTA

front 322

Pharmacy Technician Certification Board

back 322

PTCB

front 323

Pharmacy Technician Certification Exam

back 323

PTCE

front 324

American Society of Health-System Pharmacists

back 324

ASHP

front 325

American Association of Pharmacy Technicians

back 325

AAPT

front 326

American Pharmacists Association

back 326

APhA

front 327

The PTCB exam is a standardized national exam for certification to become a

back 327

pharmacy technician

front 328

What is a nonprofit organization that sets standards for the identity, strength, quality, purity, packaging, and labeling of drug products?

back 328

United States Pharmacopeia

front 329

A profession is characterized by

back 329

provision of a unique service to society, a code of ethics, and a specialized body of knowledge based on advanced education, which continues to expand throughout a person's career

front 330

According to the AACP, a Pharm D degree requires how many years of undergraduate study followed by 4 years of graduate study?

back 330

2 years

front 331

The role of the pharmacy technician has been expanding in recent years, and the number of pharmacy technicians has

back 331

increased

front 332

The skills of the pharmacy technician measured by the PTCB exam are

back 332

assisting the pharmacist in serving patients, maintaining medication and inventory control systemss, and participating in the administration and management of the pharmacy

front 333

What is the continuing education requirements?

back 333

20 hours of pharmacy-related continuing education and one hour must be in pharmacy law

front 334

The association that established a Code of Ethics for Pharmacy Technicians was

back 334

AAPT

front 335

the branch of philosophy that deals with the distinction between right and wrong and with the moral consequences of human actions

back 335

ethics

front 336

a principle or rule that is advisable or obligatory to observe

back 336

law

front 337

fraudulent labeling or marking

back 337

misbranding

front 338

a drug that is developed for small populations of people in need of the drug

back 338

orphan drug

front 339

rules and regulations resulting from court decisions

back 339

judicial law

front 340

a violation of the law

back 340

crime

front 341

a serious crime, such as murder, kidnapping, assault, or rape, that is punishable by imprisonment for more than one year

back 341

felony

front 342

a less serious crime, punishable by a fine or imprisonment for less than 1 year

back 342

misdemeanor

front 343

a discipline dealing with the ethical and moral implications of formulary biological research and applications

back 343

bioethics

front 344

a database of officially recognized drug names

back 344

national formulary

front 345

a uniquie and permanent product code assigned to each new drug as it becomes available in the marketplace; it identifies the manufacturer or distributor, the drug formulation, and the size and type of its packaging

back 345

NDC

front 346

Created the National Drug Code

back 346

Drug Listing Act of 1972

front 347

Established five classes of narcotics

back 347

Controlled Substance Act of 1970

front 348

This act created FDA

back 348

Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938

front 349

Created prescription requirements

back 349

Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951

front 350

Reflects an essential change of direction for drug abuse control

back 350

Anabolic Steroids Control Act of 1990

front 351

Requires that legend drugs must be in child-resistant containers

back 351

Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970

front 352

Requires pharmacists to offer to counsel patients

back 352

Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990

front 353

Requires that drug products, both prescription and nonprescription, must be effective and safe

back 353

Kefauver-Harris Amendment of 1962

front 354

Pertains to a patient's right to privacy

back 354

HIPAA-Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

front 355

Pertains to safety in the workplace

back 355

OSHA-Occupational Safety and Health Administration

front 356

The laws relevant to the practice of pharmacy may come from different sources. An example is

back 356

FDA

front 357

Civil law governs pharmacists who do not act in a professional manner with their customers, including areas such as

back 357

libel, slander, violation of privacy, and unintentional bodily injury

front 358

Ethics are based on

back 358

morals

front 359

The FDA regulates all drugs with the exception of

back 359

illegal drugs

front 360

Regulatory agencies are government-based departments that create specific rules about what is and is not ______ within a specific field or area of expertise?

back 360

legal

front 361

Violations against the government or the state are governed by

back 361

criminal law

front 362

What is considered the most serious type of crime against the government?

back 362

Treason

front 363

The failure to use a reasonable amount of care to prevent injury or damage to another is

back 363

negligence

front 364

Pharmacy laws of different states are different, but they are based on the same

back 364

principles, objectives, and goals of pharmaceutical practice

front 365

What agents have a high potential for abuse, but they are currently accepted for medical use in the United States?

back 365

Schedule II

front 366

What agents have the lowest abuse potential of the controlled substances and consist of preparations containing limited quantities of certain narcotic drugs?

back 366

Schedule V

front 367

narcotic alkaloids found in opium

back 367

opiates

front 368

drugs that block neuromuscular transmission at the neuromuscular junction; they cause paralysis of specific skeletal muscles

back 368

neuromuscular blocking agents

front 369

a temporary, abnormal electrical brain condition that results in abnorma neuronal activity; it can affect mental ability and cause convulsions

back 369

seizure

front 370

a handheld pressurized device used to deliver medications for inhalation

back 370

metered-dosee inhaler

front 371

a drug that induces sleep; often used to treat insomnia and in surgical anesthesia

back 371

hypnotic

front 372

a trance-like state that resembles sleep that is induced by the suggestions of one person upon another who accepts them as effective

back 372

hypnosis

front 373

a positively charged atom

back 373

cation

front 374

also known as "spasmolytics," these agents alleviate musculoskeletal pain and spasms to reduce spasticity

back 374

centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxants

front 375

an intense, involuntary muscle contraction or spasm, as is commonly seen during a seizure condition

back 375

convulsion

front 376

the most potent and consistently effective anti-inflammatory agents that are currently available for relief of respiratory conditions

back 376

corticosteroids

front 377

chemical substances that have morphine-like action in the body; commonly used for pain relief

back 377

opioids

front 378

a degenerative disorder of the central nervous system that usually impairs motor skills, speech, and other functions

back 378

Parkinson's Disease

front 379

the use of a sedative agent to reduce excitement, nervousness, or irritation; commonly prior to a medical procedure

back 379

sedation

front 380

substances that suppress the central nervous system, and induce calmness, relaxation, drowsiness, or sleep

back 380

sedatives

front 381

Condition that describes chest pain, lack of blood and oxygen supply to the heart muscle, usually because of vessel obstruction or spasm

back 381

angina pectoris

front 382

Therapeutic agents that slow or stop the growth of microorganisms

back 382

antibiotics

front 383

Drugs that counteract the action of histamine

back 383

antihistamines

front 384

A physiological state consisting of fear, apprehension, or worry

back 384

anxiety

front 385

Agents that relax the smooth muscle of the bronchial tubes

back 385

bronchodilators

front 386

Capable of killing bacteria. This term is typically used in reference to antiseptics, disinfections, or antibiotics

back 386

bactericidal

front 387

Various conditions of abnormal electrical heart activity; the heart may beat too fast, too slow, or irregularly

back 387

arrhythmias

front 388

A drug that reduces coughing, also called a "cough suppressant"

back 388

antitussive

front 389

Capable of stopping the growth and reproduction of bacteria

back 389

bacteriostatic

front 390

A device used to deliver medication in the form of micronized powder into the lungs

back 390

dry powder inhaler

front 391

chemical messengers that move through the blood or through cells that carry signals

back 391

hormones

front 392

The presence of raised or abnormal levels of lipids or lipoproteins in the blood

back 392

hyperlipidemia

front 393

High blood pressure

back 393

hypertension

front 394

Narcotic analgesics are

back 394

referred to as opioids

front 395

Hypertension

back 395

is treated by using diuretics, beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, as well as other drugs.

front 396

Heart arrhythmias occur because of

back 396

improper impulse generation and improper conduction

front 397

Invading microorganisms include

back 397

viruses, bacteria and fungi

front 398

Manipulating estrogen and progesterone levels can prevent

back 398

pregnancy

front 399

Semisynthetic antibiotics structurally and pharmacologically related to penicillins are

back 399

cephalosporins

front 400

Fluoroquinolones are related to

back 400

nalidixic acid

front 401

DNA viruses include

back 401

herpes simplex 1 and 2, varicella-zoster, and influenza A

front 402

commonly used devices for inhalation include

back 402

metered-dose inhaler, dry powder, and nebulizers

front 403

Carbamazepine is the generic name for

back 403

Tegretol

front 404

An alkali metal element that helps regulate neuromuscular excitability and muscle contraction

back 404

potassium

front 405

The only one of six essential nutrients containing nitrogen

back 405

protein

front 406

A fat-soluble vitamin essential for skeletal growth, maintenance of normal mucosal epithelium, reproduction, and visual acuity

back 406

retinol

front 407

Any of several organic acids produced by the hydrolysis of neutral fats

back 407

fatty acids

front 408

Fats

back 408

lipids

front 409

A disease caused by extreme lack of protein

back 409

kwashiorkor

front 410

A common metallic element essential for the synthesis of hemoglobin

back 410

iron

front 411

An essential micronutrient of the thyroid hormone

back 411

iodine

front 412

A water-soluble vitamin essential for cell growth and the reproduction of red blood cells

back 412

folic acid

front 413

Any substance that becomes part of a food product

back 413

food additive

front 414

A substance that prevents tooth decay and protects against osteoporosis and gum disease

back 414

fluoride

front 415

A nonmetallic chemical element occurring extensively in nature as a component of phosphate rock

back 415

phosphorus

front 416

A phosporus-containing lipid

back 416

phospholipid

front 417

The sum of the processes involved in the taking in of nutrients and their assimilation and used for proper body functioning and maintenance of health

back 417

nutrition

front 418

A chemical substance found in food that is necessary for good health

back 418

nutrient

front 419

A part of two enzymes that regulate energy metabolism

back 419

niacin

front 420

Inorganic substances occurring naturally in the earth's crust, having a characteristic chemical composition

back 420

minerals

front 421

A water-soluble, injectable form of the product of vitamin K3

back 421

menadione

front 422

Severe wasting caused by lack of protein and all nutrients or faulty absorption

back 422

marasmus

front 423

A silver-white mineral element; the second most abundant cation of the intracellular fluids in the body and is essential for many enzyme activities

back 423

magnesium

front 424

A system of nourishing through breathing

back 424

pharma food

front 425

Substances composed of lipids or fatty acids and occurring in various forms

back 425

fats

front 426

Compounds that dissociate into ions when dissolved in water

back 426

electrolytes

front 427

A water-soluble vitamin that is essential for the formation of collagen and fibroid tissue for teeth, bones, cartilage, connective tissue, and skin

back 427

ascorbic acid

front 428

A water-soluble B complex vitamin that acts as a coenzyme in fatty acid production and in the oxidation of fatty acids and carbohydrates

back 428

biotin

front 429

A metallic element that is a component of several important enzymes in the body and is essential to good health

back 429

copper

front 430

A waxy lipid found only in animal tissues

back 430

cholesterol

front 431

An anion of chlorine

back 431

chloride

front 432

An alkaline earth metal element

back 432

calcium

front 433

A fat-soluble vitamin chemically related to the steroids and essential for the normal formation of bones and teeth

back 433

calciferol

front 434

Natural fats consist of what percentage of triglycerides or triacylglycerols?

back 434

95%

front 435

A fat-soluble vitamin essential for normal reproduction, muscle development, resistance of erythrocytes to hemolysis, and various other biochemical functions.

back 435

Tocopherol

front 436

A water-soluble, crystalline compound of the B complex, essential for normal metabolism and health of the cardiovascular and nervous systems is

back 436

vitamin B1 or thiamin

front 437

Simple fat compounds consisting of three molecules of fatty acid and glycerol is

back 437

triglycerides

front 438

A water-soluble vitamin that is essential for the formation of collagen and fibroid tissue for teeth, bones, cartilage, connective tissue, and skin is

back 438

vitamin C

front 439

Vitamin K is also called

back 439

quinones

front 440

Life expectancy in the United States is

back 440

increasing

front 441

Good fats are known as

back 441

HDL

front 442

Zinc deficiency is characterized by

back 442

abnormal fatigue, decreased alertness, and a decrease in taste and odor sensitivity

front 443

Enteral tube feedings are containdicated in patients with the following:

back 443

diffused peritonits, severe diarrhea, and intractable vomiting

front 444

A system of enzymes that contributes to drug interactions

back 444

cytochrome P-450

front 445

The cooperative effect of two or more drugs given together to produce a stronger effect than that of either drug given alone

back 445

synergism

front 446

When two drugs act to decrease the effects of each other

back 446

antagonism

front 447

An interference of a drug with the effect of another drug, nutrient, or laboratory test

back 447

drug interaction

front 448

One drug prolongs the effects of another drug

back 448

potentiation

front 449

Surgical patients commonly receive more than

back 449

10 drugs

front 450

When two drugs with similar actions are taken, the effect of the drugs will

back 450

double

front 451

What agents are most often abused?

back 451

Opioids, barbiturates, and analgesics

front 452

Smoking increases the activity of drug-metabolizing enzymes in the

back 452

liver

front 453

The pharmacist has a valuable opportunity to make a significant contribution to further enhance the

back 453

efficacy of drug therapy and safety of drug therapy

front 454

The process of entering a physician's order into a computer

back 454

transcription

front 455

Zeros that follow decimal points

back 455

trailing zeros

front 456

Charts used to measure a patient's pain intensity level

back 456

pain scales

front 457

The failure to do something that a reasonable person might do, or doing something that a reasonable person might not do

back 457

negligence

front 458

Negligence performed by a professional, such as a pharmacist, or a pharmacist-supervised technician

back 458

malpractice

front 459

Zeros that precede decimal points

back 459

leading zeros

front 460

A localized mass of blood outside of the blood vessels that appears to be discolored

back 460

hematoma

front 461

Having to do with the examination and treatment of patients

back 461

clinical

front 462

Agents that give immunity to diseases or living organisms

back 462

biologics

front 463

According to the Institute for Safe Medication Practices, approximately how many Americans die each year as a result of medical errors?

back 463

98,000

front 464

Deaths in U.S. hospitals due to medical errors are more than deaths from motor vehicle accidents, breast cancer and AIDS? What does this number exceed?

back 464

44,000

front 465

According to the Institute for Safe Medication Practices, which medications have the "highest alert" concerning medication errors?

back 465

Insulin and heparin, narcotics and opiates, and potassium chloride injections

front 466

Fatigue has many effects that can allow medication errors to occur. They include:

back 466

slowed reaction times, reduced accuracy, and inability to recognize changes in the patient

front 467

The term "every other day" is abbreviated:

back 467

QOD

front 468

The term "right eye" is abbreviated:

back 468

OD

front 469

Penalties concerning negligence or malpractice may include:

back 469

restriction on practice and fines, suspension of ability to practice and jail sentences, and revocation of ability to practice

front 470

A pharmacist who fails to perform a prospective drug regimen review, gives incorrect advice, or doesn't warn a patient about potential adverse effects is guilty of

back 470

malpractice

front 471

The Joint Commission requires organizations to prove that their personnel are:

back 471

competent

front 472

An organization that surveys and accredits health care organizations

back 472

The Joint Commission

front 473

An order for a medication given under direction of research protocols that also require strict documentation of procurement, dispensing, and administration

back 473

investigational medication order

front 474

The director of the pharmacy or buyer directly contacts and negotiates pricing with pharmaceutical manufactures

back 474

independent purchasing

front 475

The provision of pharmaceutical services within an institutional or hospital setting

back 475

hospital pharmacy

front 476

Many hospitals working together to negotiate with pharmaceutical manufacturers to get better prices and benefits based upon the ability to promise high committed volumes

back 476

group purchasing

front 477

A system of drug distribution in which drugs are issue in bulk form and stored in medication rooms on patient care units

back 477

floor stock system

front 478

The automatic control or operation of equipment, processes, or systems, and often involves robotic machinery controlled by computers

back 478

automation

front 479

An organization that inspects and approves institutions to provide Medicaid and Medicare services

back 479

Centers for Medicare & Medicaid

front 480

An inventory control system in which stock arrives just before it is needed

back 480

just-in-time system

front 481

The written order for particular medications and services to be provided to a patient within an institutional setting

back 481

medication order

front 482

An order for a medication to be given in response to a medical emergency

back 482

emergency medication order

front 483

An organization that oversees hospitals, including the pharmacy department

back 483

department of health

front 484

An order for medication to be given in rapid response to a specified medical condition

back 484

demand/stat medication order

front 485

An order for medication that requires monitored documentation of procurement, dispensing, and administration

back 485

controlled substance medication order

front 486

A computerized system in which the physician inputs the dedication order directly for electronic receipt in the pharmacy

back 486

computerized physician order entry system

front 487

A system of drug distribution in which a nurse supplies the pharmacy with a transcribed medication order for a particular patient and the pharmacy prepares a 3-day supply of the medication

back 487

patient prescription system

front 488

A system for distributing medication in which the pharmacy prepares single doses of medications for a patient a 24-hour period

back 488

unit-dose drug distribution system

front 489

A substance that contains no living microorganisms

back 489

sterile product

front 490

An agency that registers pharmacists and pharmacy technicians

back 490

state board of pharmacy

front 491

An order for medication that is to be given on a continuous schedule

back 491

scheduled medication order

front 492

An order for medication given via an infection; these medications are to be prepared in a controlled environment

back 492

scheduled intravenous/ total parenteral nutrition solution order

front 493

Statement of a series of steps to implement the policies of the department or organization

back 493

procedure

front 494

An order for medication to be given in response to a specific defined parameter or condition

back 494

PRN medication order

front 495

A formal document specifying guidelines for operations of an institution

back 495

policies and procedures manual

front 496

Statement of the definite course or method of action selected to support goals of the overall organization

back 496

policy

front 497

Policies and procedures to show proper handling of controlled substances

back 497

Drug Enforcement Administration

front 498

Policies and procedures showing implementation of its guidelines and standards of practice

back 498

American Society of Health-System Pharmacists

front 499

Investigation of drug policies and procedures in hospital pharmacies and drug recall policies and procedures

back 499

Food and Drug Administration

front 500

Policies and procedures that ensure the health and safety of people in the workplace

back 500

Occupational Safety and Health Administration