Which of the following best describes vaccination?
An individual is exposed to a killed pathogen, an inactivated pathogen, or a component of a pathogen. The individual is protected from subsequent exposures to the pathogen because the adaptive immune system is stimulated to produce memory B cells and memory T cells, which protect from subsequent exposures
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using live attenuated vaccines?
They are usually safer than other types of vaccines.
What is an adjuvant?
a chemical additive that increases the effectiveness of vaccines
What is the purpose of conjugated vaccines?
to enhance the immune response of children to polysaccharide antigens
All of the following are generally used in vaccines EXCEPT
A patient shows the presence of antibodies against diphtheria toxin. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
The patient was near someone who had the disease.
A DNA plasmid encoding a protein antigen from West Nile virus is injected into muscle cells of a horse. This is an example of a(n)
nucleic acid vaccine.
Toxoid vaccines, such as the vaccines against diphtheria and tetanus, elicit a(n)
antibody response against these bacterial toxins.
What type of vaccine involves host synthesis of viral antigens?
nucleic acid vaccine
An injection of naked DNA into muscle cells to induce an immune response against the proteins encoded by the DNA is an example of a subunit vaccine.
In a vaccine preparation, the term attenuated means that the agent does NOT replicate
Vaccines are preparations of organisms or fractions of organisms that are used to induce protective immune responses.
Which of the following statements about measles is FALSE?
The disease has been eradicated in the United States.
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of live attenuated vaccine agents?
They occasionally revert to virulent forms.
Dead Bordetella pertussis can be used in a(n)
inactivated whole-agent vaccine.
Live polio virus can be used in a(n)
attenuated whole-agent vaccine.
Haemophilus capsule polysaccharide plus diphtheria toxoid is a(n)
Inactivated tetanus toxin is a(n)
A vaccine against HIV proteins made by vaccinia virus is a(n)
What type of vaccine is the live measles virus?
attenuated whole-agent vaccine
Purified protein from Bordetella pertussis is used in a(n)
a reaction between an antibody and soluble antigen-forming lattices is called a
a substances added to a vaccine to increase its effectiveness
a reaction between antibody and particulate antigen is called a
hepatitis B virus surface antigen can be used in a
adjuvants such as aluminum salts are used as additives in vaccines to enhance immune responses
a vaccine containing a live weakened microorganism
a vaccine containing microbes that have been killed
a vaccine that uses only those antigenic fragments of a microorganism that best stimulate an immune response
a vaccine consisting of the desired antigen and other proteins
a vaccine made up of DNA, usually in the form of a plasmid
If penicillin G is chosen as the best treatment for a given infection, what microorganisms are most likely the cause?
Why is it more difficult to treat viral infections than it is to treat bacterial infections?
Viruses use the host cell's processes to carry out their own reproduction.
Sulfanilamides interfere with __________.
folic acid synthesis in bacteria
consider a Kirby-Bauer disk-diffusion assay. If you put penicillin and streptomycin disks adjacent to one another, the zone of inhibition is greater than that obtained by either disk alone. This is an example of __________.
Which statement regarding tests for microbial susceptibility to chemotherapeutic agents is FALSE?
The Kirby-Bauer test is useful because it can differentiate bacteriostatic effects from bactericidal effects.
More than half of the antibiotics used today are produced by
A drug that inhibits mitosis, such as griseofulvin, would be more effective against
Antimicrobial peptides work by
disrupting the plasma membrane.
In what way are semisynthetic penicillins and natural penicillins alike?
Both are based on β-lactam.
Which of the following antibiotics is NOT bactericidal?
The antibiotic tetracycline binds to the 30S subunit of the ribosome, as shown in the figure. The effect is to
interfere with the attachment of the tRNA to mRNA-ribosome complex.
A drug binds to the ribosome as shown in the figure. The effect is to
prevent peptide bond formation
Which of the following methods of action would be bacteriostatic?
inhibition of protein synthesis
Which of the following antibiotics is recommended for use against gram-negative bacteria?
More than half of our antibiotics are
produced by bacteria.
Which of the following is mismatched?
Florey and Chain - identification of Penicillium as the producer of penicillin
Which compound would be the most useful to treat candidiasis?
Which of the following antibiotics are used to treat fungal infections?
3 and 4
Which of the following antibiotics does NOT interfere with cell wall synthesis?
The antimicrobial drugs with the broadest spectrum of activity are
Protozoan and helminthic diseases are difficult to treat because
their cells are structurally and functionally similar to human cells.
Which of the following statements about drug resistance is FALSE?
It is found only in gram-negative bacteria.
Antiviral drugs target viral processes that occur during viral infection.
Only microbes produce antimicrobial peptides.
Penicillin and streptomycin are commonly used in syngerism because they display the same mode of action.
Undergrowth of fungi after antibiotic use is commonly referred to as a superinfection.
PABA serves as the competitive inhibitor in the action of sulfanilamides.
Use of antibiotics in animal feed leads to antibiotic-resistant bacteria because
the antibiotics kill susceptible bacteria, but the few that are naturally resistant live and reproduce, and their progeny repopulate the host animal.
Drug resistance occurs
when antibiotics are used indiscriminately.
Which of the following would be selective against the tubercle bacillus?
ethambutol – inhibits mycolic acid synthesis
In the presence of penicillin, a cell dies because
it undergoes lysis.
Which of the following statements about drugs that competitively inhibit DNA polymerase or RNA polymerase is FALSE?
They cause cellular plasmolysis.
Which of the following does NOT affect eukaryotic cells?
Community-acquired MRSA is typically more virulent than health care-associated MRSA.
due to its target, rifamycins can be effective over a broad spectrum
Which one of the following does NOT belong with the others?