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Chapter 18, 20

front 1

Which of the following best describes vaccination?

back 1

An individual is exposed to a killed pathogen, an inactivated pathogen, or a component of a pathogen. The individual is protected from subsequent exposures to the pathogen because the adaptive immune system is stimulated to produce memory B cells and memory T cells, which protect from subsequent exposures

front 2

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using live attenuated vaccines?

back 2

They are usually safer than other types of vaccines.

front 3

What is an adjuvant?

back 3

a chemical additive that increases the effectiveness of vaccines

front 4

What is the purpose of conjugated vaccines?

back 4

to enhance the immune response of children to polysaccharide antigens

front 5

All of the following are generally used in vaccines EXCEPT

back 5

antibodies.

front 6

A patient shows the presence of antibodies against diphtheria toxin. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

back 6

The patient was near someone who had the disease.

front 7

A DNA plasmid encoding a protein antigen from West Nile virus is injected into muscle cells of a horse. This is an example of a(n)

back 7

nucleic acid vaccine.

front 8

Toxoid vaccines, such as the vaccines against diphtheria and tetanus, elicit a(n)

back 8

antibody response against these bacterial toxins.

front 9

What type of vaccine involves host synthesis of viral antigens?

back 9

nucleic acid vaccine

front 10

An injection of naked DNA into muscle cells to induce an immune response against the proteins encoded by the DNA is an example of a subunit vaccine.

back 10

False

front 11

In a vaccine preparation, the term attenuated means that the agent does NOT replicate

back 11

False

front 12

Vaccines are preparations of organisms or fractions of organisms that are used to induce protective immune responses.

back 12

True

front 13

Which of the following statements about measles is FALSE?

back 13

The disease has been eradicated in the United States.

front 14

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of live attenuated vaccine agents?

back 14

They occasionally revert to virulent forms.

front 15

Dead Bordetella pertussis can be used in a(n)

back 15

inactivated whole-agent vaccine.

front 16

Live polio virus can be used in a(n)

back 16

attenuated whole-agent vaccine.

front 17

Haemophilus capsule polysaccharide plus diphtheria toxoid is a(n)

back 17

conjugated vaccine.

front 18

Inactivated tetanus toxin is a(n)

back 18

toxoid vaccine.

front 19

A vaccine against HIV proteins made by vaccinia virus is a(n)

back 19

subunit vaccine.

front 20

What type of vaccine is the live measles virus?

back 20

attenuated whole-agent vaccine

front 21

Purified protein from Bordetella pertussis is used in a(n)

back 21

subunit vaccine.

front 22

a reaction between an antibody and soluble antigen-forming lattices is called a

back 22

precipation

front 23

a substances added to a vaccine to increase its effectiveness

back 23

adjuvant

front 24

a reaction between antibody and particulate antigen is called a

back 24

agglutination reaction

front 25

hepatitis B virus surface antigen can be used in a

back 25

subunit vaccine

front 26

adjuvants such as aluminum salts are used as additives in vaccines to enhance immune responses

back 26

true

front 27

a vaccine containing a live weakened microorganism

back 27

attenuated vaccine

front 28

a vaccine containing microbes that have been killed

back 28

inactivated

front 29

a vaccine that uses only those antigenic fragments of a microorganism that best stimulate an immune response

back 29

subunit

front 30

a vaccine consisting of the desired antigen and other proteins

back 30

conjugated

front 31

a vaccine made up of DNA, usually in the form of a plasmid

back 31

nucleic acid

front 32

If penicillin G is chosen as the best treatment for a given infection, what microorganisms are most likely the cause?

back 32

gram-positive bacteria

front 33

Why is it more difficult to treat viral infections than it is to treat bacterial infections?

back 33

Viruses use the host cell's processes to carry out their own reproduction.

front 34

Sulfanilamides interfere with __________.

back 34

folic acid synthesis in bacteria

front 35

consider a Kirby-Bauer disk-diffusion assay. If you put penicillin and streptomycin disks adjacent to one another, the zone of inhibition is greater than that obtained by either disk alone. This is an example of __________.

back 35

synergism

front 36

Which statement regarding tests for microbial susceptibility to chemotherapeutic agents is FALSE?

back 36

The Kirby-Bauer test is useful because it can differentiate bacteriostatic effects from bactericidal effects.

front 37

More than half of the antibiotics used today are produced by

back 37

Streptomyces species

front 38

A drug that inhibits mitosis, such as griseofulvin, would be more effective against

back 38

fungi.

front 39

Antimicrobial peptides work by

back 39

disrupting the plasma membrane.

front 40

In what way are semisynthetic penicillins and natural penicillins alike?

back 40

Both are based on β-lactam.

front 41

Which of the following antibiotics is NOT bactericidal?

back 41

polyenes

front 42

The antibiotic tetracycline binds to the 30S subunit of the ribosome, as shown in the figure. The effect is to

back 42

interfere with the attachment of the tRNA to mRNA-ribosome complex.

front 43

A drug binds to the ribosome as shown in the figure. The effect is to

back 43

prevent peptide bond formation

front 44

Which of the following methods of action would be bacteriostatic?

back 44

inhibition of protein synthesis

front 45

Which of the following antibiotics is recommended for use against gram-negative bacteria?

back 45

polymyxin

front 46

More than half of our antibiotics are

back 46

produced by bacteria.

front 47

Which of the following is mismatched?

back 47

Florey and Chain - identification of Penicillium as the producer of penicillin

front 48

Which compound would be the most useful to treat candidiasis?

back 48

flucytosine

front 49

Which of the following antibiotics are used to treat fungal infections?
1. aminoglycosides
2. cephalosporins
3. griseofulvin
4. polyenes
5. bacitracin

back 49

3 and 4

front 50

Which of the following antibiotics does NOT interfere with cell wall synthesis?

back 50

macrolides

front 51

The antimicrobial drugs with the broadest spectrum of activity are

back 51

tetracyclines.

front 52

Protozoan and helminthic diseases are difficult to treat because

back 52

their cells are structurally and functionally similar to human cells.

front 53

Which of the following statements about drug resistance is FALSE?

back 53

It is found only in gram-negative bacteria.

front 54

Antiviral drugs target viral processes that occur during viral infection.

back 54

True

front 55

Only microbes produce antimicrobial peptides.

back 55

False

front 56

Penicillin and streptomycin are commonly used in syngerism because they display the same mode of action.

back 56

False

front 57

Undergrowth of fungi after antibiotic use is commonly referred to as a superinfection.

back 57

False

front 58

PABA serves as the competitive inhibitor in the action of sulfanilamides.

back 58

False

front 59

Use of antibiotics in animal feed leads to antibiotic-resistant bacteria because

back 59

the antibiotics kill susceptible bacteria, but the few that are naturally resistant live and reproduce, and their progeny repopulate the host animal.

front 60

Drug resistance occurs

back 60

when antibiotics are used indiscriminately.

front 61

Which of the following would be selective against the tubercle bacillus?

back 61

ethambutol – inhibits mycolic acid synthesis

front 62

In the presence of penicillin, a cell dies because

back 62

it undergoes lysis.

front 63

Which of the following statements about drugs that competitively inhibit DNA polymerase or RNA polymerase is FALSE?

back 63

They cause cellular plasmolysis.

front 64

Which of the following does NOT affect eukaryotic cells?

back 64

semisynthetic penicillins

front 65

Community-acquired MRSA is typically more virulent than health care-associated MRSA.

back 65

True

front 66

due to its target, rifamycins can be effective over a broad spectrum

back 66

true

front 67

Which one of the following does NOT belong with the others?
A. Bacitracin
B. Cephalosporin
C. Monobactam
D. Penicillin
E. Streptomycin

back 67

Streptomycin