Summer Immuno Lecture 4 Flashcards


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1

APCs use two major “billboards” to display peptide fragments. Which are they?
A. IgM and IgG
B. C3b and C5b
C. Class I and II MHC
D. CD40 and CD40L

C. Class I and II MHC

2

Class I MHC has what type of peptide-binding groove?

______ at both ends

Closed at both ends

3

Class II MHC has what type of peptide-binding groove?

______ at both ends

open

4

Because class I MHC has a closed groove, what peptide length fits best?
A. 3–5 amino acids
B. 8–9 amino acids
C. 13–25 amino acids
D. 30–40 amino acids

B. 8–9 amino acids

5

Because class II MHC has an open groove, what peptide length can it fit?
A. 4–6 amino acids
B. 8–9 amino acids
C. 10–12 amino acids
D. 13–25 amino acids

D. 13–25 amino acids

6

Every human has three genes encoding class I HLA proteins. Which set is correct?

HLA-A, HLA-B, HLA-C

7

The class I HLA genes are located on which chromosome?

Chromosome 6

8

Each class I HLA protein pairs with which protein?
A. β2-microglobulin
B. TAP 1
C. TAP 2
D. Proteasome

A. β2-microglobulin

9

HLA protein plus β2-microglobulin forms a complete what?
A. Class II MHC
B. Complement receptor
C. Class I MHC
D. B-cell receptor

C. Class I MHC

10

Humans have the same gene for which class I partner protein?
A. HLA-A
B. HLA-B
C. HLA-C
D. β2-microglobulin

D. β2-microglobulin

11

Class I HLA genes are best described as what?

______ polymorphic

Highly polymorphic

12

Class I MHC is selective about amino acids located where?

Peptide ______

Peptide ends

13

Class I MHC is relatively “promiscuous” about amino acids located where?
Peptide ______

Peptide middle

14

Class II MHC molecules are encoded by which HLA region?
A. HLA-A region
B. HLA-B region
C. HLA-D region
D. HLA-C region

C. HLA-D region

15

The HLA-D region is located on which chromosome?

Chromosome 6

16

Compared with class I, class II MHC has selective binding points located where?
A. Only at ends
B. Along the groove
C. Only on β2-microglobulin
D. Outside the groove

B. Along the groove

17

MHC I molecules display what material?
A. Fragments of proteins
B. Whole antibodies
C. Intact bacteria
D. Free carbohydrates

A. Fragments of proteins

18

Almost every nucleated cell expresses which MHC class?

Class I MHC

19

Class I MHC molecules are inspected mainly by which cells?
A. Helper T cells
B. Plasma cells
C. B cells
D. Killer T cells

D. Killer T cells

20

Killer T cells are also called what?
A. Plasma lymphocytes
B. Cytotoxic lymphocytes
C. Regulatory lymphocytes
D. Follicular lymphocytes

B. Cytotoxic lymphocytes

21

Cytotoxic T lymphocytes inspect class I MHC mainly to determine whether a cell is what?
A. Infected
B. Opsonized
C. Allergic
D. Complement-coated

A. Infected

22

Approximately how many class I MHC molecules are on each cell?
A. 100,000
B. 1,000
C. 10 million
D. 60

A. 100,000

23

Class I MHC molecules on a cell are replaced how often?
A. Hourly
B. Weekly
C. Daily
D. Monthly

C. Daily

24

Old or defective intracellular proteins are broken down by what?
A. Lysosomes
B. Ribosomes
C. Golgi bodies
D. Proteasomes

D. Proteasomes

25

Protein fragments for class I loading are transported into which organelle?

_____ _____

Endoplasmic reticulum

26

Which transporters carry fragments into the ER?

_____ 1 and _____ 2

TAP 1 and TAP 2

27

Some macrophages cut proteins into segments specifically for which transporters?
A. HLA transporters
B. C1 transporters
C. CD40 transporters
D. TAP transporters

D. TAP transporters

28

Macrophages can process proteins specifically for TAP and which molecule?
A. Class II MHC
B. β2-microglobulin alone
C. Class I MHC
D. Complement receptors

C. Class I MHC

29

A viral protein is synthesized inside an epithelial cell. Which MHC class displays its fragments?

Class I MHC

30

A bacterial protein is engulfed by an APC from outside the cell. Which MHC class is generally suited for longer peptides?

Class II MHC

31

A class I peptide must fit tightly at the groove ends. What explains this?
A. Closed binding groove
B. Open binding groove
C. HLA-D encoding
D. C1 binding

A. Closed binding groove

32

A class II peptide can extend beyond the groove. What explains this?
A. β2-microglobulin pairing
B. TAP transport
C. HLA-C polymorphism
D. Open binding groove

D. Open binding groove

33

Which molecule is required to complete a class I MHC molecule?
A. C3b
B. CD40L
C. β2-microglobulin
D. Igβ

C. β2-microglobulin

34

Which molecule is not encoded by polymorphic class I HLA genes?
A. β2-microglobulin
B. HLA-A
C. HLA-B
D. HLA-C

A. β2-microglobulin

35

Which sequence best fits MHC I loading?
A. ER → proteasome → TAP
B. Proteasome → TAP → ER
C. TAP → lysosome → CD40
D. C1 → TAP → membrane

B. Proteasome → TAP → ER

36

A macrophage receives a cytokine signal that changes its proteasome composition for better MHC I presentation. Which cytokine caused this?

IFN-γ

37

IFN-γ upregulates which proteasome-associated components?
A. LMP2, LMP7, MECL1
B. TAP1, TAP2, CLIP
C. B7, CD28, CD40
D. HLA-A, HLA-B, C1

A. LMP2, LMP7, MECL1

38

LMP2, LMP7, and MECL1 fit into which structure?

Proteasomes

39

IFN-γ-modified proteasomes preferentially cut proteins after which amino acids?
A. Acidic or polar
B. Hydrophobic or basic
C. Aromatic or acidic
D. Neutral or sulfur-containing

B. Hydrophobic or basic

40

Proteasomes cut after hydrophobic/basic residues because TAP and MHC I favor these where?
A. Peptide C-termini
B. Peptide N-termini
C. MHC II grooves
D. Invariant chains

A. Peptide C-termini

41

TAP transporters preferentially bind peptides of what length?
A. 3–5 amino acids
B. 6–7 amino acids
C. 20–30 amino acids
D. 8–16 amino acids

D. 8–16 amino acids

42

Most proteins degraded by proteasomes are best described as what?
A. Extracellular proteins
B. Structurally flawed proteins
C. Complement-coated proteins
D. Antibody-bound proteins

B. Structurally flawed proteins

43

Proteasomal degradation usually targets flawed proteins more than simply what?
A. Viral
B. Exogenous
C. Old
D. Secreted

C. Old

44

Class II MHC molecules are expressed exclusively on which cells?
A. Red blood cells
B. Immune system cells
C. Skeletal muscle cells
D. Endothelial cells only

B. Immune system cells

45

Class II MHC molecules are designed to present antigen to which cells?

Helper T cells

46

Class II MHC molecules are made from which two protein chains?
A. Heavy and light
B. CD40 and CD40L
C. TAP1 and TAP2
D. α and β

D. α and β

47

In the ER, class II MHC α and β chains bind which third protein?

_____ chain

Invariant chain

48

Class II MHC binds the invariant chain in which organelle?

_____ _____

Endoplasmic reticulum

49

The invariant chain (Ii) serves as a chaperone for MHC Class II molecules. During biosynthesis in the _____ _____ , it occupies the _____ -binding groove of the MHC II molecule, acting as a placeholder to prevent _____ peptide loading

endoplasmic reticulum

peptide

premature

50

The invariant chain helps guide MHC II molecules through which structure?

____ ____

Golgi stack

51

After the Golgi, invariant-chain-bound MHC II is guided to which vesicles?

____

Endosomes

52

The goal of MHC II presentation is to display which proteins?
A. Endogenous proteins
B. Exogenous proteins
C. Structurally flawed proteins
D. Cytosolic proteins

B. Exogenous proteins

53

Once inside an endosome, MHC II merges with what structure?

_____

Phagosome

54

The phagosome carries what material into the MHC II-loading pathway?
A. TAP transporters
B. Outside protein debris
C. β2-microglobulin
D. CD28 molecules

B. Outside protein debris

55

Inside the endosome, exogenous proteins are what?
A. Secreted intact
B. Sent to TAP
C. Bound by C1
D. Broken down

D. Broken down

56

During endosomal processing, most invariant chain is destroyed except what piece?
A. CLIP
B. TAP1
C. B7
D. LMP7

A. CLIP

57

CLIP remains temporarily in the MHC II groove to do what?

____ the groove

Guard the groove

58

Which protein releases CLIP from MHC II?

HLA-DM

59

HLA-DM release of CLIP allows loading of what?
A. Endogenous protein fragment
B. Exogenous protein fragment
C. Whole bacterium
D. C1 complex

B. Exogenous protein fragment

60

HLA-DM also helps ensure MHC II presents peptides that fit how?

Tightly

61

HLA-DM competes with peptides trying to bind which molecule?
A. MHC II
B. MHC I
C. CD28
D. TAP1

A. MHC II

62

HLA-DM acts like a peptide editor by favoring what?
A. Fastest peptides
B. Largest proteins
C. Tightest binders
D. Complement fragments

C. Tightest binders

63

For T cells to function, they need cognate antigen plus what?
A. Complement fixation
B. Antibody secretion
C. TAP transport
D. Co-stimulation

D. Co-stimulation

64

Killer T cells and helper T cells both require antigen presented by what?
A. MHC molecules
B. Antibodies
C. Complement proteins
D. Fc receptors

A. MHC molecules

65

Which cells have both class I and class II MHC and provide co-stimulation?

APCs

66

Co-stimulation usually involves B7 on which cell?
A. T cell
B. NK cell
C. APC
D. Plasma cell

C. APC

67

Co-stimulation usually involves CD28 on which cell?
A. T cell
B. APC
C. Macrophage
D. Bacterium

A. T cell

68

A T cell recognizes antigen-MHC but receives no co-stimulation. What key signal is missing?
A. Antigen signal
B. TAP signal
C. CLIP signal
D. B7-CD28 signal

D. B7-CD28 signal

69

Which sequence best fits MHC II loading?
A. Proteasome → TAP → ER
B. C1 → C3 → C5
C. CD28 → B7 → CLIP
D. ER → Golgi → endosome

D. ER → Golgi → endosome

70

IFN-γ-induced LMP proteins help generate peptides suited for which transporters?
A. HLA-DM
B. B7
C. TAP
D. CD28

C. TAP

71

IFN-γ-induced proteasome changes help generate peptides suited for which MHC class?
A. MHC II
B. Secretory IgA
C. Complement C1
D. MHC I

D. MHC I

72

TAP favors peptides with hydrophobic/basic features at which end?
A. N-terminus
B. C-terminus
C. Middle only
D. Both ends equally

B. C-terminus

73

MHC I favors hydrophobic/basic features at which end?
A. C-terminus
B. N-terminus
C. CLIP region
D. Invariant chain

A. C-terminus

74

Which set correctly lists the three main APC types?
A. Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils
B. NK cells, mast cells, platelets
C. Dendritic cells, macrophages, B cells
D. Erythrocytes, monocytes, plasma cells

C. Dendritic cells, macrophages, B cells

75

For a macrophage to function well as an APC, it must usually be what?

Activated

76

Which B-cell state can function as an APC?

Activated B cell

77

Dendritic cells are classically described as having what shape?
A. Spherical
B. Starfish-like
C. Spindle-shaped
D. Biconcave

B. Starfish-like

78

A dendritic cell migrates to a lymph node and activates a never-before-stimulated T cell. Which T cell is this?
A. Experienced T cell
B. Memory T cell
C. Virgin T cell
D. Regulatory T cell

C. Virgin T cell

79

Which APC is especially important for initiating immune responses?

Dendritic cell

80

Resting dendritic cells act as sentinel cells beneath which barrier?

Epithelial cells

81

Resting dendritic cells beneath epithelial barriers are best described as what?
A. Antibody factories
B. Sentinel cells
C. Cytotoxic lymphocytes
D. Complement proteins

B. Sentinel cells

82

Resting dendritic cells store many reserve molecules of which class?
A. Class I MHC
B. IgG
C. CD1
D. Class II MHC

D. Class II MHC

83

Upon activation, reserve class II MHC molecules are loaded with what?
A. Surrounding antigens
B. Nuclear DNA only
C. Complement inhibitors
D. IgE antibodies

A. Surrounding antigens

84

A dendritic cell loads nearby antigens as it activates. This is like taking what?
A. Blood sample
B. Complement pulse
C. Local snapshot
D. Thymic census

C. Local snapshot

85

After activation, dendritic cells upregulate production of which class?
A. Class II MHC
B. CD1
C. IgA
D. Class I MHC

A. Class II MHC

86

Once activated, a dendritic cell travels through which system?

Lymph system

87

Activated dendritic cells increase production of which co-stimulatory protein?

B7

88

The activated dendritic cell’s destination is usually which site?

Lymph node

89

By the time an activated dendritic cell reaches a lymph node, it can activate which cells?
A. Naive B cells only
B. Virgin T cells
C. Erythrocytes
D. Neutrophils

B. Virgin T cells

90

How long does an activated dendritic cell live after reaching a lymph node?
A. About 1 week
B. About 1 day
C. About 1 month
D. About 1 year

A. About 1 week

91

As activated dendritic cells leave tissues, they produce what signaling molecules?
A. Antibodies
B. Complement pores
C. Histamine granules
D. Chemokines

D. Chemokines

92

Dendritic-cell chemokines recruit which cells into tissues?
A. Plasma cells
B. Erythrocytes
C. Monocytes
D. Platelets

C. Monocytes

93

Recruited monocytes can enter tissues and become which cells?
A. Dendritic cells
B. Eosinophils
C. Mast cells
D. Plasma cells

A. Dendritic cells

94

Why do activated dendritic cells recruit monocytes as replacements?
A. To kill antibodies
B. To remove lymph nodes
C. To stop antigen capture
D. To obtain fresh snapshots

D. To obtain fresh snapshots

95

Dendritic antigen-presenting cells generally do not what?
A. Present antigen
B. Express MHC
C. Activate T cells
D. Kill

D. Kill

96

Which APC distinction is correct?
A. Dendritic cells kill
B. Macrophages do not travel
C. B cells lack receptors
D. APCs lack MHC

B. Macrophages do not travel

97

Activated macrophages mainly provide consistent restimulation of which T cells?
A. Virgin T cells
B. Naive T cells
C. Experienced T cells
D. Immature T cells

C. Experienced T cells

98

Activated macrophages restimulate T cells mainly at what location?
A. Bone marrow
B. Site of infection
C. Thymic cortex
D. Blood plasma

B. Site of infection

99

Which APC has an advantage in concentrating antigen?
A. Activated B cell
B. Activated macrophage
C. Dendritic cell
D. NK cell

A. Activated B cell

100

Activated B cells can concentrate antigen using which receptor?

B-cell receptor

101

Experienced B cells act as APCs specifically for which T cells?

Helper T cells

102

Some APCs present exogenous antigen on class I MHC. What is this called?
A. Class switching
B. Cross-presentation
C. Affinity maturation
D. Polyclonal activation

B. Cross-presentation

103

Cross-presentation uses exogenous antigens for which MHC class?
A. Class II only
B. CD1 only
C. Secretory IgA
D. Class I MHC

D. Class I MHC

104

Cross-presentation is especially important because exogenous antigens can activate which cells?
A. Plasma cells
B. Mast cells
C. Killer T cells
D. Erythrocytes

C. Killer T cells

105

The nonclassical MHC family that binds lipids is called what?

CD1

106

CD1 proteins are structurally similar to MHC I because they include what?
A. Two equal chains
B. Invariant chain only
C. Long heavy chain
D. Antibody light chain

C. Long heavy chain

107

CD1 proteins pair with which molecule?
A. CD40L
B. β2-microglobulin
C. CLIP
D. C3b

B. β2-microglobulin

108

CD1 proteins are part of which MHC family?
A. Classical MHC
B. Antibody MHC
C. Nonclassical MHC
D. Complement MHC

C. Nonclassical MHC

109

Organ transplant rejection is primarily caused by recognition of what?
A. MHC molecules
B. IgA molecules
C. C1 inhibitors
D. Histamine

A. MHC molecules

110

Resting dendritic cells load reserve class II MHC molecules when they become what?
A. Degranulated
B. Activated
C. Apoptotic
D. Anucleate

B. Activated

111

Steps of T cell activation
1. First must recognize _____ _____ presented by MHC
2. recieve _____ signal from APC

cognate antigen

co-stimulatory

112

Which cell produces large amount of interferon Alpha and beta during viral attack?

plasmacytoid dendritic cells (pDCs)

113

Major histocompatibility complex is located on chromsome ____

17

114

B cells rely on specific, membrane-bound antibodies (B Cell Receptors) that require ______ by the presented antigen.

crosslinking