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Summer Immuno Lecture 4

front 1 APCs use two major “billboards” to display peptide fragments. Which are they? A. IgM and IgG B. C3b and C5b C. Class I and II MHC D. CD40 and CD40L	back 1 C. Class I and II MHC
front 2 Class I MHC has what type of peptide-binding groove? A. Open at both ends B. Open at one end C. Closed at both ends D. Closed in the middle	back 2 C. Closed at both ends
front 3 Class II MHC has what type of peptide-binding groove? A. Open at both ends B. Closed at both ends C. Open at one end D. No binding groove	back 3 A. Open at both ends
front 4 Because class I MHC has a closed groove, what peptide length fits best? A. 3–5 amino acids B. 8–9 amino acids C. 13–25 amino acids D. 30–40 amino acids	back 4 B. 8–9 amino acids

front 5 Because class II MHC has an open groove, what peptide length can it fit? A. 4–6 amino acids B. 8–9 amino acids C. 10–12 amino acids D. 13–25 amino acids	back 5 D. 13–25 amino acids
front 6 Every human has three genes encoding class I HLA proteins. Which set is correct? A. HLA-A, HLA-B, HLA-C B. HLA-D, HLA-E, HLA-F C. HLA-I, HLA-II, HLA-III D. HLA-M, HLA-N, HLA-O	back 6 A. HLA-A, HLA-B, HLA-C
front 7 The class I HLA genes are located on which chromosome? A. Chromosome 2 B. Chromosome 14 C. Chromosome 6 D. Chromosome 22	back 7 C. Chromosome 6
front 8 Each class I HLA protein pairs with which protein? A. β2-microglobulin B. TAP 1 C. TAP 2 D. Proteasome	back 8 A. β2-microglobulin

front 9 HLA protein plus β2-microglobulin forms a complete what? A. Class II MHC B. Complement receptor C. Class I MHC D. B-cell receptor	back 9 C. Class I MHC
front 10 Humans have the same gene for which class I partner protein? A. HLA-A B. HLA-B C. HLA-C D. β2-microglobulin	back 10 D. β2-microglobulin
front 11 Class I HLA genes are best described as what? A. Highly polymorphic B. Mostly identical C. Antibody-dependent D. Cytokine-encoded	back 11 A. Highly polymorphic
front 12 Class I MHC is selective about amino acids located where? A. Peptide ends B. Peptide middle C. Fc region D. C-terminal only	back 12 A. Peptide ends

front 13 Class I MHC is relatively “promiscuous” about amino acids located where? A. Peptide ends B. Peptide middle C. TAP pore D. β2 chain	back 13 B. Peptide middle
front 14 Class I MHC selectivity at peptide ends helps each peptide fit what? A. TAP transporter B. Binding groove ends C. Proteasome core D. Class II groove	back 14 B. Binding groove ends
front 15 Class II MHC molecules are encoded by which HLA region? A. HLA-A region B. HLA-B region C. HLA-D region D. HLA-C region	back 15 C. HLA-D region
front 16 The HLA-D region is located on which chromosome? A. Chromosome 6 B. Chromosome 2 C. Chromosome 14 D. Chromosome 22	back 16 A. Chromosome 6

front 17 Compared with class I, class II MHC has selective binding points located where? A. Only at ends B. Along the groove C. Only on β2-microglobulin D. Outside the groove	back 17 B. Along the groove
front 18 MHC I molecules display what material? A. Fragments of proteins B. Whole antibodies C. Intact bacteria D. Free carbohydrates	back 18 A. Fragments of proteins
front 19 Endogenous proteins are proteins made by which source? A. Nearby bacteria B. Helper T cells C. The cell itself D. Extracellular fluid	back 19 C. The cell itself
front 20 Almost every nucleated cell expresses which MHC class? A. Class II MHC B. Class III MHC C. Class I MHC D. Secreted MHC	back 20 C. Class I MHC

front 21 Class I MHC molecules are inspected mainly by which cells? A. Helper T cells B. Plasma cells C. B cells D. Killer T cells	back 21 D. Killer T cells
front 22 Killer T cells are also called what? A. Plasma lymphocytes B. Cytotoxic lymphocytes C. Regulatory lymphocytes D. Follicular lymphocytes	back 22 B. Cytotoxic lymphocytes
front 23 Cytotoxic T lymphocytes inspect class I MHC mainly to determine whether a cell is what? A. Infected B. Opsonized C. Allergic D. Complement-coated	back 23 A. Infected
front 24 Approximately how many class I MHC molecules are on each cell? A. 100,000 B. 1,000 C. 10 million D. 60	back 24 A. 100,000

front 25 Class I MHC molecules on a cell are replaced how often? A. Hourly B. Weekly C. Daily D. Monthly	back 25 C. Daily
front 26 Old or defective intracellular proteins are broken down by what? A. Lysosomes B. Ribosomes C. Golgi bodies D. Proteasomes	back 26 D. Proteasomes
front 27 Protein fragments for class I loading are transported into which organelle? A. Nucleus B. Endoplasmic reticulum C. Mitochondrion D. Lysosome	back 27 B. Endoplasmic reticulum
front 28 Which transporters carry fragments into the ER? A. HLA-A and HLA-B B. C1 and C3 C. Igα and Igβ D. TAP 1 and TAP 2	back 28 D. TAP 1 and TAP 2

front 29 Where are class I MHC molecules loaded with protein fragments? A. Golgi apparatus B. Phagolysosome C. Endoplasmic reticulum D. Cell membrane	back 29 C. Endoplasmic reticulum
front 30 Some macrophages cut proteins into segments specifically for which transporters? A. HLA transporters B. C1 transporters C. CD40 transporters D. TAP transporters	back 30 D. TAP transporters
front 31 Macrophages can process proteins specifically for TAP and which molecule? A. Class II MHC B. β2-microglobulin alone C. Class I MHC D. Complement receptors	back 31 C. Class I MHC
front 32 A viral protein is synthesized inside an epithelial cell. Which MHC class displays its fragments? A. Class II MHC B. Secretory IgA C. Complement C3 D. Class I MHC	back 32 D. Class I MHC

front 33 A bacterial protein is engulfed by an APC from outside the cell. Which MHC class is generally suited for longer peptides? A. Class I MHC B. Class II MHC C. β2-microglobulin D. TAP complex	back 33 B. Class II MHC
front 34 Which statement about β2-microglobulin is correct? A. It encodes HLA-D B. It binds class II only C. It forms TAP pores D. Humans share its gene	back 34 D. Humans share its gene
front 35 Class II MHC differs from class I because its selective binding points are where? A. Only at peptide ends B. Only on β2-microglobulin C. Only outside the groove D. Spaced along the groove	back 35 D. Spaced along the groove
front 36 A class I peptide must fit tightly at the groove ends. What explains this? A. Closed binding groove B. Open binding groove C. HLA-D encoding D. C1 binding	back 36 A. Closed binding groove

front 37 A class II peptide can extend beyond the groove. What explains this? A. β2-microglobulin pairing B. TAP transport C. HLA-C polymorphism D. Open binding groove	back 37 D. Open binding groove
front 38 Which molecule is required to complete a class I MHC molecule? A. C3b B. CD40L C. β2-microglobulin D. Igβ	back 38 C. β2-microglobulin
front 39 Which molecule is not encoded by polymorphic class I HLA genes? A. β2-microglobulin B. HLA-A C. HLA-B D. HLA-C	back 39 A. β2-microglobulin
front 40 Which sequence best fits MHC I loading? A. ER → proteasome → TAP B. Proteasome → TAP → ER C. TAP → lysosome → CD40 D. C1 → TAP → membrane	back 40 B. Proteasome → TAP → ER

front 41 A macrophage receives a cytokine signal that changes its proteasome composition for better MHC I presentation. Which cytokine caused this? A. IL-4 B. TNF C. IL-10 D. IFN-γ	back 41 D. IFN-γ
front 42 IFN-γ upregulates which proteasome-associated components? A. LMP2, LMP7, MECL1 B. TAP1, TAP2, CLIP C. B7, CD28, CD40 D. HLA-A, HLA-B, C1	back 42 A. LMP2, LMP7, MECL1
front 43 LMP2, LMP7, and MECL1 fit into which structure? A. Endosomes B. Phagosomes C. Proteasomes D. Ribosomes	back 43 C. Proteasomes
front 44 IFN-γ-modified proteasomes preferentially cut proteins after which amino acids? A. Acidic or polar B. Hydrophobic or basic C. Aromatic or acidic D. Neutral or sulfur-containing	back 44 B. Hydrophobic or basic

front 45 Proteasomes cut after hydrophobic/basic residues because TAP and MHC I favor these where? A. Peptide C-termini B. Peptide N-termini C. MHC II grooves D. Invariant chains	back 45 A. Peptide C-termini
front 46 TAP transporters preferentially bind peptides of what length? A. 3–5 amino acids B. 6–7 amino acids C. 20–30 amino acids D. 8–16 amino acids	back 46 D. 8–16 amino acids
front 47 Most proteins degraded by proteasomes are best described as what? A. Extracellular proteins B. Structurally flawed proteins C. Complement-coated proteins D. Antibody-bound proteins	back 47 B. Structurally flawed proteins
front 48 Proteasomal degradation usually targets flawed proteins more than simply what? A. Viral B. Exogenous C. Old D. Secreted	back 48 C. Old

front 49 Class II MHC molecules are expressed exclusively on which cells? A. Red blood cells B. Immune system cells C. Skeletal muscle cells D. Endothelial cells only	back 49 B. Immune system cells
front 50 Class II MHC molecules are designed to present antigen to which cells? A. Helper T cells B. Killer T cells C. Natural killer cells D. Plasma B cells	back 50 A. Helper T cells
front 51 Class II MHC molecules are made from which two protein chains? A. Heavy and light B. CD40 and CD40L C. TAP1 and TAP2 D. α and β	back 51 D. α and β
front 52 In the ER, class II MHC α and β chains bind which third protein? A. CLIP B. HLA-DM C. Invariant chain D. β2-microglobulin	back 52 C. Invariant chain

front 53 Class II MHC binds the invariant chain in which organelle? A. Endoplasmic reticulum B. Golgi stack C. Endosome D. Phagosome	back 53 A. Endoplasmic reticulum
front 54 The invariant chain prevents premature peptide loading by sitting in the MHC II what? A. Tail B. Membrane anchor C. Groove D. Cytosolic domain	back 54 C. Groove
front 55 Why does the invariant chain occupy the MHC II groove? A. It binds CD28 B. It blocks ER peptides C. It activates C1 D. It degrades TAP	back 55 B. It blocks ER peptides
front 56 The invariant chain helps guide MHC II molecules through which structure? A. Nucleus B. Proteasome C. Mitochondrion D. Golgi stack	back 56 D. Golgi stack

front 57 After the Golgi, invariant-chain-bound MHC II is guided to which vesicles? A. Lysosomes B. Ribosomes C. Endosomes D. Peroxisomes	back 57 C. Endosomes
front 58 The goal of MHC II presentation is to display which proteins? A. Endogenous proteins B. Exogenous proteins C. Structurally flawed proteins D. Cytosolic proteins	back 58 B. Exogenous proteins
front 59 Exogenous proteins are best defined as proteins from where? A. Outside the cell B. Inside the nucleus C. Proteasome fragments D. Mitochondrial matrix	back 59 A. Outside the cell
front 60 Once inside an endosome, MHC II merges with what structure? A. Proteasome B. Ribosome C. Golgi vesicle D. Phagosome	back 60 D. Phagosome

front 61 The phagosome carries what material into the MHC II-loading pathway? A. TAP transporters B. Outside protein debris C. β2-microglobulin D. CD28 molecules	back 61 B. Outside protein debris
front 62 Inside the endosome, exogenous proteins are what? A. Secreted intact B. Sent to TAP C. Bound by C1 D. Broken down	back 62 D. Broken down
front 63 During endosomal processing, most invariant chain is destroyed except what piece? A. CLIP B. TAP1 C. B7 D. LMP7	back 63 A. CLIP
front 64 CLIP remains temporarily in the MHC II groove to do what? A. Bind CD28 B. Activate proteasomes C. Guard the groove D. Recruit NK cells	back 64 C. Guard the groove

front 65 Which protein releases CLIP from MHC II? A. IFN-γ B. TAP2 C. β2-microglobulin D. HLA-DM	back 65 D. HLA-DM
front 66 HLA-DM release of CLIP allows loading of what? A. Endogenous peptide B. Exogenous protein fragment C. Whole bacterium D. C1 complex	back 66 B. Exogenous protein fragment
front 67 HLA-DM also helps ensure MHC II presents peptides that fit how? A. Loosely B. Randomly C. Tightly D. Weakly	back 67 C. Tightly
front 68 HLA-DM competes with peptides trying to bind which molecule? A. MHC II B. MHC I C. CD28 D. TAP1	back 68 A. MHC II

front 69 HLA-DM acts like a peptide editor by favoring what? A. Fastest peptides B. Largest proteins C. Tightest binders D. Complement fragments	back 69 C. Tightest binders
front 70 For T cells to function, they need cognate antigen plus what? A. Complement fixation B. Antibody secretion C. TAP transport D. Co-stimulation	back 70 D. Co-stimulation
front 71 Killer T cells and helper T cells both require antigen presented by what? A. MHC molecules B. Antibodies C. Complement proteins D. Fc receptors	back 71 A. MHC molecules
front 72 Which cells have both class I and class II MHC and provide co-stimulation? A. Neutrophils B. APCs C. Red blood cells D. Platelets	back 72 B. APCs

front 73 Co-stimulation usually involves B7 on which cell? A. T cell B. NK cell C. APC D. Plasma cell	back 73 C. APC
front 74 Co-stimulation usually involves CD28 on which cell? A. T cell B. APC C. Macrophage D. Bacterium	back 74 A. T cell
front 75 A T cell recognizes antigen-MHC but receives no co-stimulation. What key signal is missing? A. Antigen signal B. TAP signal C. CLIP signal D. B7-CD28 signal	back 75 D. B7-CD28 signal
front 76 The MHC II pathway begins with α, β, and invariant chain assembly where? A. Endosome B. ER C. Phagosome D. Cell surface	back 76 B. ER

front 77 Invariant chain first blocks which event? A. Peptide binding in ER B. MHC II synthesis C. Golgi transport D. Endosomal fusion	back 77 A. Peptide binding in ER
front 78 Which sequence best fits MHC II loading? A. Proteasome → TAP → ER B. C1 → C3 → C5 C. CD28 → B7 → CLIP D. ER → Golgi → endosome	back 78 D. ER → Golgi → endosome
front 79 A macrophage presents extracellular bacterial fragments to helper T cells. Which pathway is used? A. MHC II pathway B. MHC I pathway C. NK-cell pathway D. Complement pathway	back 79 A. MHC II pathway
front 80 A macrophage processes cytosolic proteins for killer T-cell inspection. Which pathway is emphasized? A. MHC II pathway B. MHC I pathway C. IgE pathway D. C1 pathway	back 80 B. MHC I pathway

front 81 IFN-γ-induced LMP proteins help generate peptides suited for which transporters? A. HLA-DM B. B7 C. TAP D. CD28	back 81 C. TAP
front 82 IFN-γ-induced proteasome changes help generate peptides suited for which MHC class? A. MHC II B. Secretory IgA C. Complement C1 D. MHC I	back 82 D. MHC I
front 83 TAP favors peptides with hydrophobic/basic features at which end? A. N-terminus B. C-terminus C. Middle only D. Both ends equally	back 83 B. C-terminus
front 84 MHC I favors hydrophobic/basic features at which end? A. C-terminus B. N-terminus C. CLIP region D. Invariant chain	back 84 A. C-terminus

front 85 Which statement best describes immunoproteasome-style cutting? A. Cuts after acidic residues B. Prevents all degradation C. Generates MHC II peptides D. Favors TAP-compatible peptides	back 85 D. Favors TAP-compatible peptides
front 86 An APC has both MHC classes and B7. What can it provide to T cells? A. Antibody secretion B. Complement fixation C. Co-stimulation D. IgA transport	back 86 C. Co-stimulation
front 87 Which set correctly lists the three main APC types? A. Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils B. NK cells, mast cells, platelets C. Dendritic cells, macrophages, B cells D. Erythrocytes, monocytes, plasma cells	back 87 C. Dendritic cells, macrophages, B cells
front 88 For a macrophage to function well as an APC, it must usually be what? A. Activated B. Resting C. Degranulated D. Anucleate	back 88 A. Activated

front 89 Which B-cell state can function as an APC? A. Immature B cell B. Virgin B cell only C. Plasma cell only D. Activated B cell	back 89 D. Activated B cell
front 90 Dendritic cells are classically described as having what shape? A. Spherical B. Starfish-like C. Spindle-shaped D. Biconcave	back 90 B. Starfish-like
front 91 Dendritic cells should not be confused with which cell type? A. Plasmacytoid dendritic cells B. Activated macrophages C. Activated B cells D. Virgin T cells	back 91 A. Plasmacytoid dendritic cells
front 92 A dendritic cell migrates to a lymph node and activates a never-before-stimulated T cell. Which T cell is this? A. Experienced T cell B. Memory T cell C. Virgin T cell D. Regulatory T cell	back 92 C. Virgin T cell

front 93 Which APC is especially important for initiating immune responses? A. Activated B cell B. Dendritic cell C. Activated macrophage D. Plasma cell	back 93 B. Dendritic cell
front 94 Resting dendritic cells act as sentinel cells beneath which barrier? A. Endothelial cells B. Synovial cells C. Red pulp D. Epithelial cells	back 94 D. Epithelial cells
front 95 Resting dendritic cells beneath epithelial barriers are best described as what? A. Antibody factories B. Sentinel cells C. Cytotoxic lymphocytes D. Complement proteins	back 95 B. Sentinel cells
front 96 Resting dendritic cells store many reserve molecules of which class? A. Class I MHC B. IgG C. CD1 D. Class II MHC	back 96 D. Class II MHC

front 97 Upon activation, reserve class II MHC molecules are loaded with what? A. Surrounding antigens B. Nuclear DNA only C. Complement inhibitors D. IgE antibodies	back 97 A. Surrounding antigens
front 98 A dendritic cell loads nearby antigens as it activates. This is like taking what? A. Blood sample B. Complement pulse C. Local snapshot D. Thymic census	back 98 C. Local snapshot
front 99 After activation, dendritic cells upregulate production of which class? A. Class II MHC B. CD1 C. IgA D. Class I MHC	back 99 D. Class I MHC
front 100 Once activated, a dendritic cell travels through which system? A. Bloodstream B. Lymph system C. Portal circulation D. Biliary system	back 100 B. Lymph system

front 101 Activated dendritic cells increase production of which co-stimulatory protein? A. CD40 B. CD28 C. B7 D. Fas	back 101 C. B7
front 102 The activated dendritic cell’s destination is usually which site? A. Lymph node B. Bone marrow C. Thymic cortex D. Spleen capsule	back 102 A. Lymph node
front 103 By the time an activated dendritic cell reaches a lymph node, it can activate which cells? A. Naive B cells only B. Virgin T cells C. Erythrocytes D. Neutrophils	back 103 B. Virgin T cells
front 104 How long does an activated dendritic cell live after reaching a lymph node? A. About 1 week B. About 1 day C. About 1 month D. About 1 year	back 104 A. About 1 week

front 105 As activated dendritic cells leave tissues, they produce what signaling molecules? A. Antibodies B. Complement pores C. Histamine granules D. Chemokines	back 105 D. Chemokines
front 106 Dendritic-cell chemokines recruit which cells into tissues? A. Plasma cells B. Erythrocytes C. Monocytes D. Platelets	back 106 C. Monocytes
front 107 Recruited monocytes can enter tissues and become which cells? A. Dendritic cells B. Eosinophils C. Mast cells D. Plasma cells	back 107 A. Dendritic cells
front 108 Why do activated dendritic cells recruit monocytes as replacements? A. To kill antibodies B. To remove lymph nodes C. To stop antigen capture D. To obtain fresh snapshots	back 108 D. To obtain fresh snapshots

front 109 Dendritic antigen-presenting cells generally do not what? A. Present antigen B. Express MHC C. Activate T cells D. Kill	back 109 D. Kill
front 110 Which APC distinction is correct? A. Dendritic cells kill B. Macrophages do not travel C. B cells lack receptors D. APCs lack MHC	back 110 B. Macrophages do not travel
front 111 Activated macrophages mainly provide consistent restimulation of which T cells? A. Virgin T cells B. Naive T cells C. Experienced T cells D. Immature T cells	back 111 C. Experienced T cells
front 112 Activated macrophages restimulate T cells mainly at what location? A. Bone marrow B. Site of infection C. Thymic cortex D. Blood plasma	back 112 B. Site of infection

front 113 Which APC has an advantage in concentrating antigen? A. Activated B cell B. Activated macrophage C. Dendritic cell D. NK cell	back 113 A. Activated B cell
front 114 Activated B cells can concentrate antigen using which receptor? A. T-cell receptor B. B-cell receptor C. CD1 receptor D. Fas receptor	back 114 B. B-cell receptor
front 115 Experienced B cells act as APCs specifically for which T cells? A. Killer T cells B. Regulatory T cells C. NK cells D. Helper T cells	back 115 D. Helper T cells
front 116 When antigen is scarce, experienced B cells are better at activating which cells? A. Killer T cells B. Helper T cells C. Macrophages D. Neutrophils	back 116 B. Helper T cells

front 117 Which APC is especially useful when little antigen is present? A. Dendritic cell B. Neutrophil C. Experienced B cell D. Eosinophil	back 117 C. Experienced B cell
front 118 Some APCs present exogenous antigen on class I MHC. What is this called? A. Class switching B. Cross-presentation C. Affinity maturation D. Polyclonal activation	back 118 B. Cross-presentation
front 119 Cross-presentation uses exogenous antigens for which MHC class? A. Class II only B. CD1 only C. Secretory IgA D. Class I MHC	back 119 D. Class I MHC
front 120 Cross-presentation is especially important because exogenous antigens can activate which cells? A. Plasma cells B. Mast cells C. Killer T cells D. Erythrocytes	back 120 C. Killer T cells

front 121 The nonclassical MHC family that binds lipids is called what? A. CD1 B. CD28 C. CD40 D. C1	back 121 A. CD1
front 122 CD1 proteins are structurally similar to MHC I because they include what? A. Two equal chains B. Invariant chain only C. Long heavy chain D. Antibody light chain	back 122 C. Long heavy chain
front 123 CD1 proteins pair with which molecule? A. CD40L B. β2-microglobulin C. CLIP D. C3b	back 123 B. β2-microglobulin
front 124 CD1 grooves are designed to bind what? A. Peptides B. DNA C. Carbohydrates D. Lipids	back 124 D. Lipids

front 125 Organ transplant rejection is primarily caused by recognition of what? A. MHC molecules B. IgA molecules C. C1 inhibitors D. Histamine	back 125 A. MHC molecules
front 126 Which APC is most associated with taking tissue “snapshots”? A. Dendritic cell B. Activated macrophage C. Activated B cell D. NK cell	back 126 A. Dendritic cell
front 127 Resting dendritic cells load reserve class II MHC molecules when they become what? A. Degranulated B. Activated C. Apoptotic D. Anucleate	back 127 B. Activated
front 128 Activated dendritic cells travel to lymph nodes through lymph because they are trying to find what? A. Red blood cells B. Platelets C. Antibodies only D. Virgin T cells	back 128 D. Virgin T cells

front 129 A cell takes up extracellular antigen but displays it on MHC I. Which process occurred? A. Cross-presentation B. Class switching C. Complement fixation D. ADCC	back 129 A. Cross-presentation
front 130 CD1 proteins are part of which MHC family? A. Classical MHC B. Antibody MHC C. Nonclassical MHC D. Complement MHC	back 130 C. Nonclassical MHC