What are the two most common causes of dementia in the elderly?
_____ disease (most common)
_____ dementia
Alzheimer disease (most common)
Vascular dementia
What is the likely diagnosis for an adult with a history of chronic alcohol consumption who is exhibiting anterograde amnesia and confabulation in the emergency department?
Korsakoff syndrome
What type of amnesia is present in a patient who sustained a head injury and is unable to recall anything that occurred from the time that the injury occurred?
Anterograde amnesia
What type of amnesia is present in a patient who cannot recall anything that occurred before they sustained a head injury but can still make new memories?
Retrograde amnesia
Korsakoff syndrome is a late neuropsychiatric manifestation of what disease?
Wernicke encephalopathy
What is the definition of an anxiety disorder?
When a patient experiences inappropriate ____ and ____
When a patient experiences inappropriate fear and worry
Which three other conditions must be ruled out to make a diagnosis of
anxiety disorder?
Another ____ disorder
____
use
____ condition
Another psychiatric disorder
Substance use
Medical condition
In a person with bipolar disorder, what mood can you expect between
episodes of mania/hypomania and depression?
Mood
generally returns to ______
Mood generally returns to normal
What disorder is present in a patient who has mild dysthymia and has been experiencing hypomanic episodes for 3 years?
Cyclothymic disorder
What class of drugs are used most commonly to treat bipolar disorder?
____ ____
____ ____
Mood stabilizers
Atypical antipsychotics
How does bipolar I disorder differ from bipolar II disorder?
Bipolar I disorder includes _____ episodes with or without a
_____ or _____ episode
Bipolar II disoder includes a _____
episode and a _____ episode, but no _____ episodes
Bipolar I disorder includes manic episodes with or without a
hypomanic or depressive episode
Bipolar II disoder includes a
hypomanic episode and a depressive episode, but no manic episodes
What class of drugs can cause mania and increase suicide risk in patients with bipolar disorder?
______
Antidepressant
How long are symptoms required to be present for a diagnosis of
cyclothymic disorder?
____ or more
years with symptoms present at least ____% of the time, with any
remission lasting for ____ months or less
2 or more years with symptoms present at least 50% of the time, with any remission lasting for 2 months or less
What additional disorder do patients with selective mutism usually have?
Social anxiety disorder
How do you treat selective mutism?
____, ____, and ____
therapies with or without ____
Behavioral, family, and play therapies with or without SSRIs
What is selective mutism?
____ disorder that involves
refraining from ____ in specific situations for less than or equal to
____ month in a child older than ____ years who has no impairment in
speech/language development
Anxiety disorder that involves refraining from speech in specific situations for less than or equal to 1 month in a child older than 5 years who has no impairment in speech/language development
Selective mutism interferes with performance of what kinds of
tasks?
____ tasks
____ tasks
____ tasks
Academic tasks
Social tasks
Occupational tasks
In _____ disorder, the basic rights of others or social norms are
violated
In _____ _____ disorder, the basic rights of others or
social norms are not violated
In conduct disorder, the basic rights of others or social norms are
violated
In oppositional defiant disorder, the basic rights of
others or social norms are not violated
What is the treatment for conduct disorder?
Psychotherapy
How do you treat a child with oppositional defiant disorder?
Psychotherapy
Up to what age is separation anxiety considered a normal
phenomenon?
___ to ___ years
3 to 4 years
An episode of separation anxiety in older
children must last how long for it to be considered a
disorder?
____ weeks or more
4 weeks or more
What can be used to treat a child with separation anxiety
disorder?
____ ____ therapy
____ therapy
____ therapy
Cognitive Behavioral Therapy
Family therapy
Play therapy
What modalities are used to treat intractable tics
in a patient with Tourette syndrome?
High-potency____,
____-agonists, ________
High-potency antipsychotics
α2-agonists
Tetrabenazine
Tourette syndrome presents with what symptoms and at what age?
Sudden, rapid, recurrent, [rhythmic/nonrhythmic] stereotyped
vocal and motor ____ that are present > ____ year(s) before the age
of ____ years
Sudden, rapid, recurrent, nonrhythmic stereotyped vocal and motor tics that are present > 1 year(s) before the age of 18 years
What is the first-line therapy for Tourette syndrome?
_____ therapy
_____education
Behavioral therapy
Psychoeducation
What features and associated disorders may be seen in a patient with
Tourette syndrome?
Vocal and motor
____
C____
____-____ ____
____-____ ____ ____
Vocal and motor tics
Coprolalia
Obsessive-compulsive
disorder
Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder
____ is the medical term for the involuntary outburst of obscene words, slurs, or socially inappropriate remarks.
Coprolalia
How long do symptoms need to be present for Tourette syndrome to be diagnosed?
More than __ year(s)
More than 1 year(s)
ADHD symptoms must last for how long before diagnosis?
6 months
What three traits characterize attention-deficit hyperactivity
disorder?
I____
I____
H____
Inattention
Impulsivity
Hyperactivity
ADHD symptoms must be found in ____ or more settings
2
What are the treatment options for attention-deficit hyperactivity
disorder?
______ with or without ______ ______
therapy
______ alternatives
Stimulants with or without cognitive behavioral
therapy
Stimulant alternatives
You suspect that a child who does poorly in school has attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder. Does this disorder affect intelligence?
No
What classes of drugs are used to treat disruptive mood dysregulation disorder?
_____
_____
Stimulants
Antipsychotics
How does disruptive mood dysregulation disorder
present?
Severe, recurrent _____ outbursts incongruent to situation
Severe, recurrent temper outbursts incongruent to situation
How long must symptoms be present before a diagnosis of disruptive mood dysregulation can be made?
1 year
Autism must present in [early/late] childhood and is more common in [boys/girls]
Autism must present in early childhood and is more common in boys
At what age would you diagnose a patient with conduct
disorder?
Before the age of ____ years
Before the age of 18 years
After age 18, conduct disorder is reclassified as _____ _____ disorder.
After age 18, it is reclassified as antisocial personality disorder.
A child with autism may have an intellectual _______ or _______ abilities or specific skills. Size of head and/or brain may be _______.
A child with autism may have an intellectual disability or exceptional abilities or specific skills. Size of head and/or brain may be increased
Which childhood disorder is characterized by poor social interactions, communication deficits, ritualized or repetitive behavior, and restricted interests?
_____ _____ disorder
Autism spectrum disorder
What is intellectual disability?
______ cognitive
deficits that affect memory, reasoning, judgment, abstract thinking,
language, and learning
Global cognitive deficits that affect memory, reasoning, judgment, abstract thinking, language, and learning
Why do patients with intellectual disability have
difficulties in socialization, education, employment, and
independence?
_____ functioning is impaired due
to _____ cognitive deficits
Adaptive functioning is impaired due to global cognitive deficits
How do you treat a patient with intellectual disability?
By providing ______ support to improve global functioning
By providing multidisciplinary support to improve global functioning
A child is unable to read near the level of proficiency for his or her age even after working with a tutor 7 months. What is the most likely diagnosis?
_____ _____ disorder
Specific learning disorder
What happens to general functioning and intelligence in an individual with specific learning disorder?
They are usually normal
How long must symptoms persist for a diagnosis of specific learning childhood disorder?
> ___ months
> 6 months
How do you treat a patient with specific learning disorder?
_____ support
C_____
_____ activities
Academic support
Counseling
Extracurricular activities
How do you treat delirium?
Treatment of delirium is
aimed at identifying and addressing the _____ _____
Treatment of delirium is aimed at identifying and addressing the underlying condition
_____ may be used as needed for acute episodes of delirium
Antipsychotics may be used as needed for acute episodes.
What classes of medication should be avoided in the
treatment of delirium?
_____
_____
_____
Benzodiazepines
Anticholinergics
Opioids
What could be the cause of sudden waning of consciousness in hospitalized older patients?
delirium
You suspect that your patient with altered mental status has delirium. What test may help to confirm the diagnosis?
_____
EEG
EEG may reveal _____ _____ _____ slowing, a finding associated with delirium.
diffuse background rhythm
Define delirium.
Acute, [reversible/irreversible], onset
of waxing/waning _____ with rapidly decreasing _____ span and level
of _____
Acute, reversible, onset of waxing/waning consciousness with rapidly decreasing attention span and level of arousal
How do you begin management of delirium before considering
medication?
Identifying/treating underlying
_____
Providing cognitive _____
Keeping a clock or calendar
nearby for _____ purposes
Reducing _____ disturbances
Identifying/treating underlying condition
Providing cognitive
stimulation
Keeping a clock or calendar nearby for orientation
purposes
Reducing sleep disturbances
What is the treatment for atypical depression?
_____
_____
_____ therapy
_____ (not first-line)
SSRIs
Cognitive behavioral therapy
MAOIs (not first-line)
What symptoms differentiate atypical depression from
classical depression?
_____
reactivity
[Hypersomnia/Hyposomnia]
[Overeating/Undereating]
_____
paralysis
_____ to rejection
Mood reactivity
Hypersomnia
Overeating
Leaden
paralysis
Hypersensitivity to rejection
Heavy feeling in legs and arms is called what?
Transient improvement in mood in response to a positive event is called what?
Leaden paralysis
Mood reactivity
What is the most common subtype of depression?
Depression with atypical features
How long must symptoms be present for a diagnosis of delusional
disorder to be made?
> [...] month(s)
> 1 month(s)
How long must symptoms persist for a diagnosis of brief psychotic
disorder?
< [...] month(s)
< 1 month(s)
Symptoms of major depressive disorder last ≥ [...]
weeks
Dysthymia and
cyclothymia are diagnosed in adults after symptoms
last > [...] years
Symptoms of major depressive disorder last ≥ 2 weeks
Dysthymia
and cyclothymia are diagnosed in adults after symptoms last > 2 years
After how many months of anxiety-related symptoms can the diagnosis
of generalized anxiety disorder be made?
> [...] months
> 6 months
After how many months of symptoms can the diagnosis of panic disorder
be made?
> [...] month(s)
> 1 month(s)
How many months of symptoms are necessary for a narcolepsy
diagnosis?
> [...] month(s)
> 3 months
How long must symptoms be present in a child for a diagnosis of
oppositional defiant disorder to be made?
> [...] months
> 6 months
How long must symptoms be present for the diagnosis of tic disorder
be made?
> [...] year(s)
> 1 year(s)
How long must symptoms be present for the diagnosis of a phobia be
made?
> [...] months
> 6 months
Symptoms persisting ____ than ____ months indicate adjustment disorder
Symptoms persisting ____ than ____ months indicate generalized anxiety disorder
Symptoms persisting less than 6 months indicate adjustment disorder
Symptoms persisting more than 6 months indicate generalized anxiety disorder
Compare the duration of symptoms in acute stress disorder versus
post-traumatic stress disorder.
Acute stress disorder →
Symptoms persist ____ than ____ month(s)
Post-traumatic stress
disorder → Symptoms persist ____ than ____ month(s)
Acute stress disorder → Symptoms persist less than 1
month(s)
Post-traumatic stress disorder → Symptoms persist more
than 1 month(s)
How long must symptoms be present for a diagnosis of
schizophreniform disorder to be made?
Symptoms must be present for [...] to [...] months
Symptoms must be present for 1 to 6 months
How long must symptoms be present for a diagnosis of schizophrenia to be made?
> 6 months
Name six psychiatric conditions associated with dissociative identity
disorder.
____-____ ____ disorder
______
______ personality disorder
______ use
disorder
______ disorders
History of ______ abuse
Post-traumatic stress disorder
Depression
Borderline
personality disorder
Substance use disorder
Somatoform
disorders
History of sexual abuse
Dissociative identity disorder is more common in which sex?
female
Depersonalization → Feelings of detachment/estrangement from one's
____
Derealization → Feelings of detachment/estrangement from
one's ____
Depersonalization → Feelings of detachment/estrangement from one's
self
Derealization → Feelings of detachment/estrangement from
one's environment
A man often feels estranged from his surroundings and from himself,
almost as if he is merely an observer. What could this condition
be?
________/________ disorder
Depersonalization/derealization disorder
If a patient has two or more distinct personality states or identities, what is the diagnosis?
Dissociative identity disorder
Due to the severe trauma of child abuse, a woman is unable to recall her date of birth. What type of amnesia is this?
_____ amnesia
Dissociative amnesia
A man abruptly travels to the other side of the country and is found
wandering on the streets there. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
Dissociative _____
Dissociative fugue
Dissociative fugue occurs during a period of dissociative amnesia, which is often associated with _____ circumstances.
traumatic
Which eating disorder involves dieting, fasting, and/or exercising excessively without purging or binge eating for ≥ 3 months?
Anorexia nervosa, restricting type
Which eating disorder involves recurrent purging behaviors or binge eating for ≥ 3 months?
Anorexia nervosa, binge-eating/purging type
What three treatment options are available for patients with anorexia
nervosa?
_____
_____ rehabilitation
_____
Psychotherapy
Nutritional rehabilitation
Olanzapine
What is the definition of anorexia nervosa?
Intense fear
of [gaining/losing] weight, distortion of body image, and
overvaluation of ____ → Calorie ____, extreme weight [gain/loss], and
inappropriately [high/low] BMI
Intense fear of gaining weight, distortion of body image, and overvaluation of thinness → Calorie restriction, extreme weight loss, and inappropriately low BMI
Name three electrolyte disturbances that occur in refeeding syndrome
in patients with anorexia.
[Hyperkalemia/Hypokalemia]
[Hyperphosphatemia/Hypophosphatemia]
[Hypermagnesemia/Hypomagnesemia]
Hypokalemia
Hypophosphatemia
Hypomagnesemia
In anorexia nervosa, what three symptoms or diseases may present due
to disruption of the endocrine symptom?
[Hyperthyroidism/Hypothyroidism]
_____
_____
Hypothyroidism
Amenorrhea
Osteoporosis
How may body hair be altered in anorexia nervosa?
Development of ____ hair on the arms and legs
Development of soft hair on the arms and legs
Compare the body weight profiles of patients with anorexia nervosa
and bulimia nervosa.
Anorexia nervosa → _____
BMI
Bulimia nervosa → _____ or _____ BMI
Anorexia nervosa → Low BMI
Bulimia nervosa → Normal BMI or overweight
What four findings may be seen in a patient with bulimia
nervosa?
____ of enamel on teeth
Metabolic
[acidosis/alkalosis]
____ disturbances
[Ventral/Dorsal] hand
____ caused by induction of vomiting
Erosion of enamel on teeth
Metabolic alkalosis
Electrolyte
disturbances
Dorsal hand calluses caused by induction of vomiting
What is the definition of pica?
Recurring consumption of
_____ items, not considered normal for an individual's culture or
developmental stage, for _____ month(s) or longer
Recurring consumption of nonfood items, not considered normal for an individual's culture or developmental stage, for 1 month(s) or longer
What is the treatment for pica?
First-line treatment → _____ rehabilitation and _____
Second-line treatment → _____
First-line treatment → Nutritional rehabilitation and
psychotherapy
Second-line treatment → SSRIs
What population of patients does pica typically affect?
_____
_____ women
Children
Pregnant women
What four comorbidities is pica associated with?
______
deficiency anemia
______ disabilities
______
______ trauma
Iron deficiency anemia
Developmental
disabilities
Malnutrition
Emotional trauma
Describe the mechanism of refeeding syndrome and
three potential complications in a patient with
anorexia.
Sudden increase in calorie intake → Increase in
____ → [Hyperphosphatemia/Hypophosphatemia],
[hyperkalemia/hypokalemia], and [hypermagnesemia/hypomagnesemia] →
Rhabdomyolysis, seizures, and cardiac complications
Sudden increase in calorie intake → Increase in insulin → Hypophosphatemia, hypokalemia, and hypomagnesemia → Rhabdomyolysis, seizures, and cardiac complications
What treatment options are available for binge-eating disorder?
_____ (first-line treatment)
_____
_____
Psychotherapy (first-line treatment)
SSRIs
Lisdexamfetamine
Why is bupropion contraindicated for patients with bulimia nervosa?
Elevated risk of ______
Elevated risk of seizures
Why might a doctor order an endoscopy for a patient with
bulimia nervosa?
To check for _____
in the [upper/lower] part of the esophagus
To check for tears in the lower part of the esophagus.
This is Malory-Weiss syndrome.
Which enzyme would increase as a result of parotid gland hypertrophy in patients with bulimia nervosa?
Serum _____
Serum amylase
What is the treatment for bulimia nervosa?
_____
_____ rehabilitation
_____
Antidepressants
Nutritional rehabilitation
Psychotherapy
Is electroconvulsive therapy safe for pregnant patients and elderly patients?
Yes. There are no absolute contraindications to electroconvulsive therapy.
Name four clinical indications for electroconvulsive therapy.
Acute _____
_____ with psychosis
_____ depression
C_____
Acute suicidality
Depression with psychosis
Refractory depression
Catatonia
What is the mechanism of electroconvulsive therapy?
Electroconvulsive therapy induces ____-____ seizures in patients
under anesthesia and neuromuscular blockade
Electroconvulsive therapy induces tonic-clonic seizures in patients under anesthesia and neuromuscular blockade
What are the adverse effects of electroconvulsive therapy?
_____
_____
_____/_____ amnesia that usually resolves
within _____ months
Headache
Disorientation
Anterograde/retrograde amnesia that
usually resolves within 6 months
What is the first-line treatment for someone diagnosed with
enuresis?
______ modifications
[Positive/Negative] reinforcement
Behavioral modifications
Positive reinforcement
For nocturnal urinary incontinence refractory to behavioral
modifications, what are two treatment options?
Bedwetting
______
Oral ______
Bedwetting alarm
Oral desmopressin
How long must symptoms of nighttime incontinence last for a diagnosis
of enuresis to be made?
≥ [...] times per week for ≥ [...] months
≥ 2 times per week for ≥ 3 months
How old does a person have to be for a diagnosis of enuresis to be
made?
> [...] years
> 5 years
A caregiver—usually a parent—intentionally fabricates, exaggerates, or induces physical or psychological symptoms in a dependent (often a child) to deceive others and gain attention or sympathy.
_____ disorder imposed on [self/another]
Factitious disorder imposed on another
Patients with factitious disorder imposed on self are _____ to undergo tests and procedures
Patients with malingering often _____ treatment
Patients with factitious disorder imposed on self are willing to undergo tests and procedures
Patients with malingering often avoid treatment
What is the primary goal of a patient with a factitious
disorder?
To get _____ and medical _____ by means of the
sick role
To get sympathy and medical attention by means of the sick role
In which two population groups is factitous disorder imposed
on self more common?
_____ workers
[Men/Women]
Healthcare workers
Women
What is the definition of gambling disorder?
Persistent, recurrent, problematic gambling that
cannot be better explained as a _____ episode
Persistent, recurrent, problematic gambling that cannot be better explained as a manic episode
What is the treatment of gambling disorder?
______
Psychotherapy
What is the definition of transgender?
When a patient
lives their life as a [similar/different] gender than what was
assigned at _____
When a patient lives their life as a different gender than what was assigned at birth
What is definition of gender dysphoria?
A difference
between the way an individual ______ gender and the gender assigned
at ______
A difference between the way an individual experiences gender and the gender assigned at birth
gender dysphoria lasts for over ______ months and causes persistent ______.
gender dysphoria lasts for over 6 months and causes persistent distress.
Is gender nonconformity a mental disorder?
No
At what age does gender identity develop?
3 yo
What are seven of the most common symptoms associated with
generalized anxiety disorder?
Excessive _____
_____
problems
_____
_____
Difficulty
_____
_____
Muscle _____
Excessive anxiety
Sleep
problems
Restlessness
Fatigue
Difficulty
concentrating
Irritability
Muscle tension
By definition, the symptoms of generalized anxiety disorder must be
present for how long to be clinically significant?
On
most days for [...] months or longer
On most days for 6 months or longer
What are three first-line treatment options available for generalized
anxiety disorder?
____ ____ therapy
____
____
Cognitive behavioral therapy
SSRIs
SNRIs
What are three second-line treatment options for generalized anxiety
disorder?
____
____
____
Buspirone
TCAs
Benzodiazepines
How do the criteria for a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder
in adults compare with the criteria for a diagnosis of generalized
anxiety disorder in children?
Adults → ≥ [...] symptoms
of generalized anxiety
Children → ≥ [...] symptoms of
generalized anxiety
Adults → ≥ 3 symptoms of generalized anxiety
Children → ≥ 1
symptoms of generalized anxiety
Compare hypomanic and manic episodes in terms of severity.
Hypomanic episodes are [more/less] intense
Hypomanic
episodes do not impair ____ or feature ____
Hypomanic episodes
do not require ____
Hypomanic episodes last for ≥ ____
consecutive days
Hypomanic episodes are less intense
Hypomanic episodes do not
impair function or feature psychosis
Hypomanic episodes do not
require hospitalization
Hypomanic episodes last for ≥ 4
consecutive days
What treatment options are first line for major depressive
disorder?
_____ _____ _____
_____
Cognitive behavioral therapy
SSRIs
What are the features of major depressive disorder?
_____ disturbance
Decreased interest in _____
activities
_____
[Increased/Decreased]
energy
[Increased/Decreased] concentration
_____ /_____
changes
_____ agitation
_____ ideation
Sleep disturbance
Decreased interest in pleasurable
activities
Guilt
Decreased energy
Decreased
concentration
Appetite/weight changes
Psychomotor
agitation
Suicidal ideation
For major depressive episode: Symptoms must have been present for most days for a period of ____ ____ or longer
2 weeks
Which disorder is often milder than major depressive
disorder with at least 2 depressive symptoms lasting
at least 2 years and with remission of 2
months or less?
_____ _____ disorder AKA _____
Persistent depressive disorder AKA dysthymia
In which depressive disorder do episodes occur only during a
particular season in 2 or more consecutive years?
_____ _____ disorder with _____ _____
Major depressive disorder with seasonal pattern
What are the treatment options for major depressive disorder
with seasonal pattern?
______ ______
therapy
______
______ therapy
Cognitive behavior therapy
SSRIs
Light therapy
Psychotic features occur only ______ the major depressive episode in a patient with major depressive disorder with psychotic features
A patient with schizoaffective disorder will have psychotic symptoms [dependent/independent] of a depressive episode
Psychotic features occur only during the major depressive episode in a patient with major depressive disorder with psychotic features
A patient with schizoaffective disorder will have psychotic symptoms independent of a depressive episode
What is the treatment for major depressive disorder with
psychotic features?
A(n) ______ combined with
a(n) ______ ______ or ______ therapy
A(n) antidepressant combined with a(n) atypical antipsychotic or electroconvulsive therapy
Define major depressive disorder with psychotic features.
Major depressive disorder accompanied by _____ or _____
Major depressive disorder accompanied by delusions or hallucinations
In major depressive disorder with psychotic features, hallucinations
and delusions typically have what overlying theme?
They
are typically mood ______ with depressed mood
They are typically mood congruent with depressed mood
Which disorder is intentional and the patient's complaints stop after something is gained?
Malingering
Which disorder occurs when a patient consciously fakes, exaggerates, or reports a disorder with goal of attaining a secondary gain?
Malingering
How does malingering affect a patient's compliance with treatment and
follow-up?
Compliance with treatment or follow-up is
often _____
Compliance with treatment or follow-up is often poor
What are the seven symptoms of a manic episode?
_____
_____/_____
_____
Flight of
_____
[Increased/Decreased]
activity/agitation
[Increased/Decreased] sleep needs
_____
Distractibility
Impulsivity/indiscretion
Grandiosity
Flight
of ideas
Increased activity/agitation
Decreased sleep needs
Talkativeness
For diagnosis of a manic episode, how many manic
symptoms must be present and for how long?
At least ___
symptoms for at least ___ ___
At least 3 symptoms for at least 1 week
Define mood disorders: disorders in which an abnormal range of internal emotions/moods and loss of ____ over them cause distress and impairment in ____ function
Disorders in which an abnormal range of internal emotions/moods and loss of control over them cause distress and impairment in daily function
Give four examples of disorders that are classified as mood
disorders.
____ ____ disorder
____
disorder
____ disorder
____ disorder
Major depressive disorder
Bipolar disorder
Dysthymic
disorder
Cyclothymic disorder
Can a patient with a mood disorder experience symptoms of psychosis, such as hallucinations or delusions?
Yes
List the order in which a person loses his or her components of
orientation.
First → ______
Second →
______
Third → ______
First → Time
Second → Place
Third → Person
What is orientation in the context of the psychiatric exam?
An individual’s ability to know ____ he/she is, ____ he/she is,
and the ____ and ____
An individual’s ability to know who he/she is, where he/she is, and the date and time
What are the common causes of loss of orientation?
____
injury
Fluid/electrolyte ____
____
____
Hypo_____
Hypo_____
_____
_____ deficiencies
Head injury
Fluid/electrolyte
imbalance
Drugs
Alcohol
Hypoglycemia
Hypoxia
Infection
Nutritional deficiencies
What are the criteria for a diagnosis of panic
disorder?
____ ____ followed by history of ≥
____ month of ____ or more of the following criteria:
____ of new attacks
____ about consequences of
attacks
Changed ____ due to attacks
Panic attack followed by history of ≥ 1 month of 1 or more of the
following criteria:
Fear of new attacks
Worry about
consequences of attacks
Changed behavior due to attacks
What is the treatment for panic disorder?
_____ _____
therapy
_____
_____
Cognitive behavioral therapy
SSRIs
Venlafaxine
For panic disorder, what drug class may be used for acute episodes?
Benzodiazepines may be used for acute episodes.
Is panic disorder genetic?
Yes
What disorder causes recurrent episodes of intense fear, nausea, paresthesias, and depersonalization for short periods?
Panic Disorder
How does panic disorder affect the risk for suicide?
Increases sucide risk
What are risk factors for postpartum psychosis?
_____
disorder
_____ disorder
[First/Second] pregnancy
_____
history
Recent discontinuation of _____ medication
Bipolar disorder
Psychotic disorder
First
pregnancy
Family history
Recent discontinuation of
psychotropic medication
Which of the peripartum mood disturbances is the only one that does not usually warrant pharmacologic therapy?
_____ _____
Postpartum blues
What postpartum mental disorder could cause a woman to have delusions and threaten to kill herself and the baby?
_____ _____
Postpartum psychosis
What is the treatment for major depressive disorder with
peripartum onset?
____
____ ____ therapy
SSRIs
Cognitive behavioral therapy
When will the symptoms of postpartum blues likely resolve?
Within ____ ____
Within 2 weeks
What are three peripartum mood disturbances that new mothers may
experience in order from highest to lowest incidence rate?
____ ____ (50% to 85%)
____ ____ disorder with ____ ____
(10% to 15%)
____ ____ (0.1% to 0.2%)
Postpartum blues (50% to 85%)
Major depressive disorder with
peripartum onset (10% to 15%)
Postpartum psychosis (0.1% to 0.2%)
What is the treatment for postpartum psychosis?
Admission to inpatient _____ unit
Administration of _____ _____ or _____ therapy if drug therapy is ineffective
Admission to inpatient psychiatric unit
Administration of atypical antipsychotics or electroconvulsive therapy if drug therapy is ineffective
What is the definition of personality disorder?
[Flexible/Inflexible] and ______ pattern of behavior that is
pervasive in their life → Distress
and/or impaired function
Inflexible and maladaptive pattern of behavior that is pervasive in their life → Distress and/or impaired function
What is the definition of personality trait?
A
personality trait is an enduring pattern in which a
person processes and relates to his/her _____ and
his/her _____ in it
A personality trait is an enduring pattern in which a person processes and relates to his/her environment and his/her role in it
In what age group do personality disorders usually present?
Before or during early ______
Before or during early adulthood
What are the three clusters of personality disorders?
Cluster A → "____"
Cluster B →
"____"
Cluster C → "____"
Cluster A → "Weird"
Cluster B →
"Wild"
Cluster C → "Worried"
What are the three cluster A personality disorders?
____
personality disorder
____ personality disorder
____
personality disorder
Paranoid personality disorder
Schizoid personality
disorder
Schizotypal personality disorder
Cluster A personality disorders have a genetic association with which other psychiatric disorder?
_______
Schizophrenia
What common characteristics could be observed in an individual with
paranoid personality disorder?
Pervasive
_____
[Hypervigilance/Hypovigilance]
_____
Very _____
view of the world
Pervasive distrust
Hypervigilance
Suspiciousness
Very
cynical view of the world
What are four common characteristics of schizotypal
personality disorder?
_____
beliefs
Interpersonal _____
_____ thinking
_____ appearance
Odd beliefs
Interpersonal awkwardness
Magical
thinking
Eccentric appearance
What three characteristics are common with schizoid
personality disorder?
Limited _____
expression
Indifferent to the _____ of others
Prefers _____ activities
Limited emotional expression
Indifferent to the opinion of
others
Prefers solitary activities
What are the four cluster B personality disorders?
____
personality disorder
____ personality disorder
____
personality disorder
____ personality disorder
Antisocial personality disorder
Borderline personality
disorder
Histrionic personality disorder
Narcissistic
personality disorder
What three characteristics do cluster B personality disorders
share?
D_____ behavior
E_____
behavior
E_____ behavior
Dramatic behavior
Emotional behavior
Erratic behavior
Cluster B personality disorders are genetically
associated with what two other disorders?
____
abuse
____ disorders
Substance abuse
Mood disorders
What personality disorder could cause a person who has fragile self-esteem to demonstrate entitlement, grandiosity, and defensiveness and lack empathy?
______ personality disorder
Narcissistic personality disorder
What personality disorder could cause a person to engage in
impulsive and self-mutilating
behavior, express emotional emptiness, and
have unstable moods and
relationships?
______ personality disorder
Borderline personality disorder
What is the treatment for borderline personality
disorder?
_____ _____ therapy
Dialectical behavioral
What is a major defense mechanism for a patient with borderline personality disorder?
Splitting
What personality disorder could cause a person to be shallow
and sexually provocative, seek
attention, and use dramatic speech and emotional
expression?
______ personality disorder
Histrionic personality disorder
What personality disorder could cause individuals to be hostile, impulsive, manipulative, and unremorseful when they disregard the rights of others?
______ personality disorder
Antisocial personality disorder
Is antisocial personality disorder more common in males or females?
Males
What are the three cluster C personality disorders?
____
personality disorder
____-____ personality disorder
____
personality disorder
Avoidant personality disorder
Obsessive-compulsive personality
disorder
Dependent personality disorder
What category of disorders is cluster C personality disorders associated with?
_____ disorders
Anxiety disorders
What personality disorder could cause an individual to have
low self-confidence, often remain in
abusive relationships, and constantly seek support
from others?
_____ personality disorder
Dependent personality disorder
What personality disorder could cause a person to be
preoccupied with perfectionism,
order, and control and experience pleasure in
doing so?
_____-_____ personality disorder
Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
What personality disorder could cause a person to be
hypersensitive to rejection,
timid, and socially inhibited and
express feelings of inadequacy yet desire
relationships?
[...] personality disorder
Avoidant personality disorder
What are the three hallmarks of serotonin syndrome?
[Increased/Decreased] activity
____
instability
Altered ____ status
Increased activity
Autonomic instability
Altered mental status
What are two methods of preventing serotonin syndrome?
Allow for a ______ period between serotonergic drugs
Avoid
using ______ serotonergic drugs at the same time
Allow for a washout period between serotonergic drugs
Avoid
using multiple serotonergic drugs at the same time
Which medication can be used in the treatment of serotonin syndrome,
and what is its mechanism?
_____ , which is a _____
receptor antagonist
Cyproheptadine, which is a 5-HT2 receptor antagonist
What condition can develop in a patient on a MAOI who consumes tyramine-rich foods?
______ ______
Hypertensive crisis
What is the treatment for a patient prescribed MAOIs undergoing a hypertensive crisis?
______
Phentolamine
Tyramine foods include _____ and _____
wine and cheese
How long should a patient wait after discontinuation of an MAO
inhibitor to begin taking another serotonergic drug or stop dietary restrictions?
[...] weeks
2 weeks
What are 3 clinical uses of MAO inhibitors?
[Typical/Atypical] ______
______ disease
______
Atypical depression
Parkinson disease
Anxiety
How does eating tyramine-rich foods while taking MAOIs result in
hypertensive crisis?
Tyramine displaces
______ in the synaptic cleft → Increased
______ → Stimulation of the ______
nervous system
Tyramine displaces norepinephrine in the synaptic cleft → Increased norepinephrine → Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system
What are six manifestations of neuroleptic malignant
syndrome?
M________
F________
E________
________
unstable
[Increased/Decreased] enzyme levels
Muscle ________
Myoglobinuria
Fever
Encephalopathy
Vitals
unstable
Increased enzyme levels
Muscle rigidity
What class of drugs should not be prescribed for a patient with a known family history of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
Antipsychotics
What drugs can be used to treat neuroleptic malignant
syndrome?
_____
_____
_____ agonists
Dantrolene
Benzodiazepines
Dopamine agonists
In a patient experiencing alcohol withdrawal, when
does delirium tremens typically arise?
____ to ____ days after the last drink
2 to 4 days after the last drink
What is the treatment for a patient undergoing alcohol
withdrawal with seizures?
Longer-acting _______
Longer-acting benzodiazepines
What is the likely cause of laryngospasm requiring
intubation in a patient who has started taking an
antipsychotic medication?
Acute _____
Acute dystonia
Which three drugs/drug classes can cause acute dystonia?
_______
_______
_______
Anticonvulsants
Antipsychotics
Metoclopramide
What two drugs can be used to treat acute dystonia?
_______
_______
Diphenhydramine
Benztropine
What three symptoms may be present in a patient with acute
dystonia?
Muscle _____
Muscle _____
_____ crisis
Muscle spasms
Muscle stiffness
Oculogyric crisis
acute dystonia symptoms can begin hours to days after use of a _____ _____.
typical antipsychotic
An oculogyric crisis is an acute, involuntary neurological condition characterized by a sustained, ______ deviation of the eyeballs.
upward
What is the treatment for lithium toxicity?
______ of lithium
Hydrating aggressively with ______ ______ solution
______ can be considered
Discontinuation of lithium
Hydrating aggressively with isotonic saline solution
Hemodialysis can be considered
What is the treatment for a TCA overdose?
_____ treatment
Activated _____
_____
_____ monitoring
Supportive treatment
Activated charcoal
Bicarbonate
ECG monitoring
What are three potential causes of lithium toxicity?
[Increase/Decrease] in lithium dosage
[Increase/Decrease]
in renal clearance
Drugs that affect _____
Increase in lithium dosage
Decrease in renal
clearance
Drugs that affect clearance
Lithium is a ______ ______ commonly used to treat bipolar disorder.
mood stabilizer
Lithium is the drug of choice for _____ _____ in bipolar patients. It commonly causes an action _____ that is exacerbated by caffeine.
acute mania
tremor
What is the treatment for alcohol withdrawal?
Longer-acting _______
Longer-acting benzodiazepines
What are these symptoms of?
Altered mental status
Autonomic
hyperactivity
Hallucinations
Anxiety
Tremors
Seizures
Psychomotor agitation
Insomnia
Nausea
delirium tremens
Which can contribute to serotonin syndrome?
A. Metoclopramide
B. Ondansetron
C.
Prochlorperazine
D. Promethazine
B. Ondansetron
Which can contribute to serotonin syndrome?
A. Melatonin
B. Ginkgo biloba
C. St. John’s wort
D. Valerian root
C. St. John’s wort
Which can contribute to serotonin syndrome?
A. Cocaine
B. MDMA
C. Alcohol
D. Ketamine
B. MDMA
Which can contribute to serotonin syndrome?
A. Triptans
B. NSAIDs
C. Beta-blockers
D.
Calcium channel blockers
A. Triptans
Which can contribute to serotonin syndrome?
A. Guaifenesin
B. Benzonatate
C.
Dextromethorphan
D. Pseudoephedrine
C. Dextromethorphan
Which can contribute to serotonin syndrome?
A. Morphine
B. Tramadol
C. Oxycodone
D. Hydromorphone
B. Tramadol
Which can contribute to serotonin syndrome?
A. Vancomycin
B. Doxycycline
C. Ceftriaxone
D. Linezolid
D. Linezolid
Which can contribute to serotonin syndrome?
A. Fentanyl
B. Meperidine
C. Codeine
D. Methadone
B. Meperidine
What are five life-threatening effects of ecstasy intoxication?
[Tachycardia/Bradycardia]
[Hyperthermia/Hypothermia]
[Hypernatremia/Hyponatremia]
[Hypertension/Hypotension]
[...] syndrome
Tachycardia
Hyperthermia
Hyponatremia
Hypertension
Serotonin syndrome
How do you treat opioid
withdrawal?
______ management
______
______
Symptom management
Buprenorphine
Methadone
What are three treatment options for smoking cessation?
_____ replacement
_____
_____
Nicotine replacement
Bupropion
Varenicline
What pupillary changes can be seen with both cocaine and amphetamine
toxicity?
Pupillary [dilation/constriction]
Pupillary dilation
What may be present on the physical examination of a patient with
chronic cocaine use?
______ nasal septum secondary to
vasoconstriction
______ necrosis
Perforated nasal septum secondary to vasoconstriction
Ischemic necrosis
What are two cardiac manifestations of cocaine
overdose?
______
Sudden cardiac ______
Angina
Sudden cardiac death
What are two cardiovascular manifestations of amphetamine
toxicity?
[Hypertension/Hypotension]
Cardiac ______
in severe intoxication
Hypertension
Cardiac arrest in severe intoxication
What is the treatment for a cocaine overdose?
______
Benzodiazepines
Do barbiturates or benzodiazepines have a higher safety margin?
benzodiazepines
These can still cause minor respiratory depression.
What life-threatening condition may develop in a patient with alcohol use disorder who has consumed no alcohol for 48 hours?
Delirium tremens
What are the symptoms of barbiturate withdrawal?
______
______ collapse
Delirium
Cardiovascular collapse
What is the treatment for a benzodiazepine overdose?
______
Flumazenil
Flumazenil is a competitive ______ ______ that binds to ______, which is rarely used because it can precipitate ______.
benzodiazepine antagonist
GABA
seizures
What two symptoms can be present with benzodiazepine
intoxication?
_______ depression
_______
Respiratory depression
Ataxia
What are three symptoms of withdrawal from benzodiazepines?
_______ disturbance
_______
_______
Sleep disturbance
Depression
Seizures
Intoxication with what substance may cause slurred speech, emotional lability, ataxia, coma, blackouts, and high serum GGT?
Alcohol
What is the expected ratio of AST to ALT for a patient that recently consumed alcohol?
2:1
What kind of intoxication could cause acute slurred speech,
disorientation, drowsiness, abnormal gait, and a perioral
rash?
______ intoxication
Inhalant intoxication
Which intoxicant is the most likely cause of hyperalertness, fever, fractured teeth, and skin excoriations?
Amphetamines
What are three common symptoms of caffeine withdrawal?
_____-like symptoms
_____
Lack of _____
Flu-like symptoms
Headaches
Lack of concentration
What is the treatment for agitation and seizures secondary to methamphetamine use?
Benzodiazepines
What is the treatment for marked respiratory
depression for a patient taking
barbituates?
Provide ______ and increase
______ ______ as needed.
Provide ventilation and increase blood pressure as needed.
What class of drugs is responsible for the most drug-overdose–related deaths?
Opioids
What is the treatment for opioid overdose?
Naloxone
What is the most common presentation of acute nicotine intoxication?
Restlessness
The following signs and symptoms may be present in a patient intoxicated by which psychoactive drug?
Agitation/violent behavior + psychosis — hallucinations, paranoia, delirium.
Nystagmus — especially horizontal, but can be vertical/rotary.
Sympathetic activation — hypertension + tachycardia.
Phencyclidine
The following signs and symptoms may be present in a patient
intoxicated by which psychoactive drug?
Conjunctival injection
Euphoria
Social
withdrawal
Dry mouth
Hallucinations
Paranoia
Slowed time
preception
Increased appetite
Worsened judgement
Cannabis
The following signs and symptoms may be present in a patient
intoxicatied by which psychoactive drug?
Auditory/visual hallucination
Anxiety
Paranoia
Flashbacks that are not disturbing
Mydriasis
Depersonalization
LSD
The following nonspecific symptoms may be present in a patient with withdrawal from which class of psychoactive drugs?
Depression / dysphoria / anhedonia
Fatigue + hypersomnia
Increased appetite
Stimulants
________ is a stimulant that can lead to diaphoresis, hypertension, tachycardia, severe agitation, and psychosis.
Methamphetamine
The following nonspecific symptoms may be present in a patient with
withdrawal from which class of psychoactive
drugs?
Anxiety
Tremor
Insomnia
Seizures
Depressants
The following symptoms may be present in a patient with
withdrawal from which psychoactive drug?
Restlessness
Increased appetite/weight
Anxiety
Irritability
Nicotine
The following symptoms may be present in a patient with
withdrawal from which psychoactive drug?
Hunger
Sleep disturbances
Severe depression
Restlessness
Cocaine
The following presentations may be present in a patient
intoxicated by which psychoactive drug?
Paranoia
Hallucinations (including tactile)
Impaired judgment
Diaphoresis
Cocaine
The following psychiatric symptoms may be present in a patient
intoxicated by which psychoactive drug?
Euphoria
Grandiosity
Prolonged
wakefulness/attention
Paranoia
Amphetamines
The following physical findings may be present in a patient with
withdrawal from which psychoactive drug?
Yawning
Sweating
Rhinorrhea
Nausea
Stomach
cramps
Diarrhea
Lacrimation
Piloerection
Dilated pupils
Opioids
The following symptoms may be present in a patient with
withdrawal from which psychoactive drug?
Depression
Anxiety
Fatigue
Appetite changes
Difficulty concentrating
Ecstasy
The following signs may be present in a patient
intoxicated by which psychoactive drug?
Euphoria
Mydriasis
Hallucinations
Bruxism
Disinhibition
Increased
thirst
Distorted sensory and time perception
Ecstasy
The following symptoms may be present in a patient with
withdrawal from which psychoactive drug?
Dysphoria
Irritability
Sleep
disturbance
Headaches
Inhalants
The following signs and symptoms may be present in a patient
intoxicated by which psychoactive drug?
Decreased respiratory and central nervous system
function
Decreased gag reflex
Seizures
Decreased gastrointestinal
motility
Euphoria
Pinpoint pupils
Opioids
The following symptoms may be present in a patient with
withdrawal from which psychoactive drug?
Depression
Insomnia
Vivid dreams
Decreased
appetite
Weight loss
Cannabis
The following general signs and symptoms may be present in a patient
intoxicated by which class of psychoactive
drugs?
Decreased appetite
Anxiety
Fast
heart rate
Insomnia
Psychomotor
agitation
Elevated mood
Cardiac arrhythmias
Stimulants
The following general signs and symptoms may be present in a patient
intoxicated by which class of psychoactive
drugs?
Respiratory depression
Disinhibition
Sedation
Decreased anxiety
Elevated mood
Depressants
How can a Pancoast tumor cause sensorimotor
deficits in the upper extremity?
By compression of the ______ ______
By compression of the brachial plexus
How can a Pancoast tumor cause hoarseness?
By
compression of the ______ ______ nerve
By compression of the recurrent laryngeal nerve
What three symptoms are typically seen if a Pancoast tumor disrupts the cervical sympathetic plexus at the stellate ganglion?
Ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis
What three neurologic structures are commonly compressed by a
Pancoast tumor?
____ ____ nerve
____
ganglion
____ ____
Recurrent laryngeal nerve
Stellate ganglion
Brachial plexus
What two vascular structures are commonly compressed by a Pancoast
tumor?
______ ______ ______
______ vein
Superior vena cava
Brachiocephalic vein
brachiocephalic syndrome (caused by compression of a brachiocephalic vein, for example due to Pancoast tumor) can cause ______ ______ of the upper arm, neck, and face.
unilateral congestion
superior vena cava syndrome can cause ______, ______ distention, and ______ of the ______ upper extremities, head, and neck
superior vena cava syndrome can cause plethora, venous distention, and edema of the edema upper extremities, head, and neck

CT shows _____ tumor, AKA _____ _____ tumor
CT shows Pancoast tumor, AKA superior sulcus tumor
Why might a patient with Pancoast tumor have hemidiaphragm
elevation on a chest X-ray?
The tumor is
compressing the ______ nerve
phrenic
Pancoast tumors can cause a brachial plexopathy primarily affecting the _____ nerve distribution, and they may also affect the T2 nerve root.
ulnar

What is indicated by the red arrow in the electron micrograph showing an axon in cross-section?
Myelin
What does myelin do to an axon's space constant, conduction velocity,
membrane resistance, and membrane capacitance?
[Increases/Decreases] space constant
[Increases/Decreases]
conduction velocity
[Increases/Decreases] membrane
resistance
[Increases/Decreases] membrane capacitance
Increases space constant
Increases conduction
velocity
Increases membrane resistance
Decreases membrane capacitance
What role does myelin play in neuronal activity?
Myelin
forms an ______ sheath around a neuron's axon to [increase/decrease]
conduction velocity of action potentials
Myelin forms an insulating sheath around a neuron's axon to increase conduction velocity of action potentials
How does myelin increase conduction velocity down an axon?
It promotes ____ conduction at the ____ of ____ where
concentrations of ____ channels are high
It promotes saltatory conduction at the nodes of Ranvier where concentrations of Na+ channels are high
Which cranial nerves are myelinated as part of the central nervous
system and peripheral nervous system?
Central nervous
system → Cranial nerve _____
Peripheral nervous system → Cranial
nerves _____ to _____
Central nervous system → Cranial nerve II
Peripheral nervous
system → Cranial nerves III to XII
What could cause a person to always use more drugs than intended despite knowing the dangers and trying to cut down on use?
Substance Use Disorder
Aside from the dangerous effects on health, how can a substance use
disorder harm a person and their social life?
Recurrent
use in _____ dangerous situations
Significant _____ expended in
obtaining/using/recovering from the substance
Problems with _____/_____
Recurrent use in physically dangerous situations
Significant
energy expended in obtaining/using/recovering from the
substance
Problems with work/school
What five causes should you include in the differential for any
sexual dysfunction disorder?
_____
_____
_____
Insufficient _____ _____
_____
Psychological
Endocrine
Neurogenic
Insufficient blood flow
Substances
What 3 symptoms are classically associated with normal
pressure hydrocephalus?
Urinary
______
______ apraxia
______ dysfunction
Urinary incontinence
Gait apraxia
Cognitive dysfunction

A patient presents with the brain MRI shown. He has symptoms related to stretching of the corona radiata. What is the diagnosis?
normal pressure hydrocephalus
the image shows ventricular expansion leading to stretching of corona radiata

A patient with advanced Alzheimer disease presents with the MRI findings shown.
What do you think you are seeing here?
What will a measurement of the patient's ICP reveal?
What does this patient have
I see increased CSF
ICP will be normal.
This patient has ex vacuo ventriculomegaly due to atrophy of brain tissue.

What kind of hydrocephalus is likely with the brain MRI finding shown in the image?
Noncommunicating hydrocephalus
This involves structural blockage of cerebrospinal fluid flow.
What is the classic gait pattern seen in a patient with enlarged ventricles on brain imaging, urinary incontinence, and cognitive impairment?
_____ gait
Magnetic gait
What conditions are associated with ex vacuo ventriculomegaly?
______ disorders that cause brain ______
Neurodegenerative disorders that cause brain atrophy
Aqueductal stenosis causes what type of hydrocephalus?
_____ _____
Noncommunicating hydrocephalus
Noncommunicating hydrocephalus due to aqueductal stenosis is caused by a structural blockage of cerebrospinal fluid circulation within the _____ system.
ventricular
In a patient with normal pressure hydrocephalus, on lumbar puncture, what will the opening pressure measurement be?
_____, however it may be _____ episodically
Normal, however it may be elevated episodically
What will a head CT show in an older adult who presents with urinary
incontinence, cognitive dysfunction, and gait apraxia?
_____ expansion → Distortion of the fibers of the _____ _____
without an increase in _____ space volume
Ventricular expansion → Distortion of the fibers of the corona radiata without an increase in subarachnoid space volume
What is the mechanism by which meningitis can cause
a communicating hydrocephalus and subsequent
papilledema, herniation, and increased ICP?
Arachnoid
______ after meningitis → Limited CSF ______ via arachnoid ______
Arachnoid scarring after meningitis → Limited CSF absorption via arachnoid granulations
How can the symptoms of normal pressure hydrocephalus be
reversed?
CSF drainage via _____ _____
CSF _____ placement
CSF drainage via lumbar puncture
CSF shunt placement
What are the 3 common causes of noncommunicating
hydrocephalus?
Blockage of the _____ of _____
by a colloid cyst
Stenosis of the _____ of _____
_____
Blockage of the foramen of Monro by a colloid cyst
Stenosis of
the aqueduct of Sylvius
Tumor
What is hydrocephalus?
[Increased/Decreased] CSF volume
→ Ventricular _____ with/without [increased/decreased] ICP
Increased CSF volume → Ventricular dilation with/without increased ICP
What are three common triggers for sleep terror disorders?
______
______ stress
Lack of ______
Fever
Emotional stress
Lack of sleep
What waveform is seen on an EEG performed for a patient with sleep
terror disorder?
______ waves
Slow waves
Slow waves indicate ____ sleep, stage ____
Slow waves indicate deep sleep, stage N3
What is the definition of sleep terror disorder?
Episodes of inconsolable ______ accompanied by ______ in the
middle of the night
Episodes of inconsolable terror accompanied by screaming in the middle of the night
In which population are sleep terror disorders most common?
Children
Is a patient with sleep terror disorder likely to remember the arousal episodes the next morning?
No
Patients have no memory of the episode as it occurs during non-REM sleep.
In Pavlov's classical conditioning experiment, when you ring a bell, a dog salivates. What is the unconditioned stimulus?
Food
In Pavlov's classical conditioning experiment, when you ring a bell, a dog salivates. What is the learned/conditioned stimulus?
Bell
What condition is associated with gustatory hallucinations?
______
Epilepsy
What type of hallucination is associated with waking from sleep?
Hypnopompic
What type of hallucination is associated with falling asleep?
Hypnagogic
What two substances, which are frequently abused, are associated
with tactile hallucination?
_____
_____
Alcohol
Cocaine
What two conditions are associated with olfactory
hallucinations?
____ tumors
____ ____ epilepsy
Brain tumors
Temporal lobe epilepsy
What kind of speech consists of words and ideas strung together based on sounds, puns, or loose associations?
_____ speech
Disorganized speech
Define psychosis.
______ perception of reality marked by
hallucinations, delusions, and/or disorganized thought
and/or speech
distorted
Define delusion.
A fixed, untrue, _____ belief,
persisting despite evidence against it, that is not typical of an
individual's _____ or _____
A fixed, untrue, idiosyncratic belief, persisting despite evidence against it, that is not typical of an individual's religion or culture
[Men/Women] attempt suicide more often.
[Men/Women] complete suicide more often.
Women
Men
What is the greatest risk factor for suicide?
Previous _____
Previous attempt
What is the most common method of suicide in the United States?
_____
firearms
Does family history of suicide completion affect a person's risk of suicide completion?
Yes
What are some of the protective factors for patients at risk for
suicide completion?
Effective treatment of
_______
Sense of _______ with others
Religious/cultural
beliefs directed toward self-_______
Strong ____-____ skills
Effective treatment of comorbidities
Sense of connectedness with
others
Religious/cultural beliefs directed toward
self-preservation
Strong problem-solving skills
What is the first-line treatment for schizophrenia?
Atypical antipsychotics
schizophrenia's positive and negative symptoms stop with management?
no, negative symptoms often persist after treatment.
How does schizophrenia affect dopaminergic activity and dendritic
branching?
[Increases/Decreases] dopaminergic
activity
[Increases/Decreases] dendritic branching
Increases dopaminergic activity
Decreases dendritic branching
Is schizophrenia more likely to be diagnosed in males or females?
Males
What could be the cause of delusions, hallucinations, and
catatonia lasting for 6 months with symptoms of a
mood disorder?
_____ disorder
Schizoaffective disorder
Name five positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
_____
_____
_____ speech
Evidence of _____
thought processes
_____ behavior
Delusions
Hallucinations
Disorganized speech
Evidence
of unusual thought processes
Strange behavior
What is the most likely cause of hallucinations and delusions lasting
between 1 day and 1 month?
______
______ disorder
Brief psychotic disorder
List the five negative symptoms of schizophrenia.
______/______ affect
______from social activity
______
______
______
Blunted/flat affect
Withdrawal from social activity
Avolition
Anhedonia
Alogia
how long do brief psychotic disorder, schizophreniform disorder, and schizophrenia each last?
Brief psychotic disorder lasts < 1 month.
Schizophreniform
disorder lasts 1 to 6 months.
Schizophrenia lasts > 6 months.
How many symptoms are required to diagnose brief psychotic disorder,
schizophreniform disorder, and schizophrenia?
Brief
psychotic disorder → [...] or more positive symptoms for < [...]
month
Schizophreniform disorder → [...] or more
symptoms
Schizophrenia → [...] or more symptoms
Brief psychotic disorder → 1 or more positive symptoms for < 1
month
Schizophreniform disorder → 2 or more
symptoms
Schizophrenia → 2 or more symptoms
For a diagnosis of schizophrenia to be made, periods of psychosis and
disturbed behavior/thought leading to functional decline must last for
how long?
At least [...] month(s) during the past [...]
months or longer
At least 1 month(s) during the past 6 months or longer
Is general function impaired in a patient with delusional disorder?
No
Heavy use of which drug in adolescence is associated with incidence and worsened course of psychotic, mood, and anxiety disorders?
Cannabis
What would you expect to find on brain imaging performed for a patient with schizophrenia?
ventriculomegaly
Which personality disorder is included on the schizophrenia
spectrum?
_____ personality disorder
Schizotypal personality disorder
What are the cognitive symptoms of schizophrenia spectrum
disorders?
______
Decreased ______ memory
Reduced
ability to comprehend or create ______
Inattention
Decreased working memory
Reduced ability to
comprehend or create plans
What neurochemical changes are associated with schizophrenia?
[Increased/Decreased] dopaminergic
activity
[Increased/Decreased] serotonergic activity
Increased dopaminergic activity
Increased serotonergic activity
What criteria are required for a diagnosis of schizophrenia?
≥ 2 of the following active symptoms, including ≥ 1 from the
first 3 symptoms:
_____
_____
_____
speech
_____/_____ behavior
[Positive/Negative] symptoms
Delusions
Hallucinations
Disorganized
speech
Disorganized/catatonic behavior
Negative symptoms
What are the criteria for a diagnosis of schizophreniform
disorder?
≥ 2 of the following
symptoms:
______
______
______
speech
______/______ behavior
[Positive/Negative] symptoms
lasting for [...] to [...] months
Delusions
Hallucinations
Disorganized
speech
Disorganized/catatonic behavior
Negative symptoms
lasting for 1 to 6 months
In patients with schizophrenia, how does age at onset compare in
males and females?
Schizophrenia presents at a(n)
[older/younger] age in males when compared with females
younger
In what disorder is "la belle indifférence" seen?
______ disorder
Conversion disorder
What is a somatic symptom disorder?
One or more _____
complaints that last for _____ month(s) to _____ years
One or more physical complaints that last for 1 month(s) to several years
Patients with what disorder demonstrate anxiety about having
a disease, despite lack of symptoms,
multiple evaluations showing no evidence, and
many attempts at reassurance?
_____
_____ disorder
Ilness anxiety disorder
What form of somatic symptoms and related disorders presents with
unexplained loss of motor or sensory function
following an acute stressor?
______ disorder
Conversion disorder
Identify the three groups in which conversion disorder is most
common.
[Males/Females]
_____
[Older/Younger] adults
Females
Adolescents
Younger adults
What treatment options are available for somatic symptom
disorder?
_____ visits with the same _____
along with _____
Regular visits with the same physician along with psychotherapy
What is another name for conversion disorder?
_____
_____ symptom disorder
Functional neurologic symptom disorder
Somatic symptom disorder → ≥ ___ bodily complaint lasting from ___ to
___
Illness anxiety disorder → ___ or ___ somatic symptoms
Somatic symptom disorder → ≥ 1 bodily complaint lasting from months
to years
Illness anxiety disorder → Few or no somatic symptoms
What are three motivational strategies for the
precontemplation stage of the
transtheoretical model of change?
Remind the patient that
the ____ is available for them
Remind the patient of their own
____ when explaining risks
Encourage the patient to be ____
Remind the patient that the physician is available for
them
Remind the patient of their own priorities when explaining
risks
Encourage the patient to be introspective
What are two motivational strategies for the contemplation
stage of the transtheoretical model of change?
Suggest different ways to _____ behavioral change
Discuss
the _____ and _____ of behavior change to support the healthy behavior
Suggest different ways to support behavioral change
Discuss the
pros and cons of behavior change to support the healthy behavior
What are three motivational strategies for the
preparation/determination stage of the
transtheoretical model of change?
_____ the first steps
of change
Promote _____ for good results
Ensure the patient
is aware of _____ to help planning
Encourage the first steps of change
Promote expectations for
good results
Ensure the patient is aware of resources to help planning
What are two motivational strategies for the action/willpower
stage of the transtheoretical model of change?
Assist with strategies to ____ with situations that trigger old
behaviors
Promote ____-____
Assist with strategies to cope with situations that trigger old
behaviors
Promote self-efficacy
What are three motivational strategies for the
maintenance stage of the
transtheoretical model of change?
_____ good
habits
[Positive/Negative] reinforcement for good
behavior
Decrease _____ risk
Reinforce good habits
Positive reinforcement for good
behavior
Decrease relapse risk
What are two motivational strategies for the relapse
stage of the transtheoretical model of change?
_____ the patient to return to good habits
Provide _____
that goals are achievable
Encourage the patient to return to good habits
Provide
reassurance that goals are achievable
What four symptoms would you expect in a patient with post-traumatic
stress disorder?
Persistent
[hyperarousal/hypoarousal]
_____ of trauma-related
stimuli
_____ of event
Distress lasting > [...] month(s)
Persistent hyperarousal
Avoidance of trauma-related
stimuli
Re-experiencing of event
Distress lasting > 1 month(s)
What is the treatment for acute stress disorder?
Cognitive behavioral therapy
What are the three first-line treatments for post-traumatic stress
disorder?
_____ _____ therapy
_____
_____
Cognitive behavioral therapy
SSRIs
Venlafaxine
What is the definition of adjustment disorder?
A patient
experiences emotional and/or behavioral symptoms within ____ months
of an identified ____ stressor with symptoms lasting less than ____ months
A patient experiences emotional and/or behavioral symptoms within 3 months of an identified psychosocial stressor with symptoms lasting less than 6 months
What is the treatment for adjustment disorder?
CBT
What is the medication treatment for nightmares in a patient with post-traumatic stress disorder?
Prazosin
Exposure to what types of experiences may result in post-traumatic
stress disorder?
_____ experience
Discovering that a
loved one has experienced _____ events
Direct experience
Discovering that a loved one has experienced
traumatic events
What is the mechanism of action of mirtazapine?
Mirtazapine inhibits the ____-adrenergic receptor
Mirtazapine inhibits the α2-adrenergic receptor
What are 4 common side effects of mirtazapine?
Weight
______
Increased ______
______
______ ______
Weight gain
Increased appetite
Sedation
Dry mouth
does α₂-adrenergic receptors increase or decrease nori?
decrease
What changes in neurotransmitter levels are expected when a patient
takes a MAOI?
Blockage of _____ _____ → Increased levels
of _____, _____, and _____
Blockage of monoamine oxidase → Increased levels of serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine
What are the 4 MAO inhibitors? (PITS)
_____
_____
_____
_____
Phenelzine
Isocarboxazid
Tranylcypromine
Selegiline
_____ _____ breaks down serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine into metabolites.
Monoamine oxidase
Which three classes of antidepressants act by inhibiting
norepinephrine reuptake?
[...]
[...]
[...]
TCAs
SNRIs
Bupropion
Which four classes of antidepressants act by inhibiting the
reuptake of serotonin?
[...]
[...]
[...]
[...]
TCAs
Trazodone
SSRIs
SNRIs
Name two high-potency typical antipsychotics that
don't have the suffix trick!
________, ________
Haloperidol, Pimozide
What types of meds are these?
Trifluoperazine, Fluphenazine, Thioridazine, Chlorpromazine
typical antipsychotics
notice the "-azine" suffix
What are the adverse effects of higher potency antipsychotics such as
haloperidol, trifluoperazine, and fluphenazine?
_____ effects
Neurologic effects
What are the ophthalmologic adverse effects of chlorpromazine?
____ deposits
Corneal deposits
What are the ophthalmologic adverse effects of thioridazine?
____ deposits
Retinal deposits
Which two typical antipsychotics are considered low-potency
drugs?
_____azine
_____azine
Chlorpromazine
Thioridazine
What adverse effects are more common with low-potency typical
antipsychotics?
______
effects
Anti-______-adrenergic effects
______ effects
Antihistaminic effects
Anti-α1-adrenergic
effects
Antimuscarinic effects
What could be the cause of a prolonged QT interval in a patient treated for schizophrenia?
The use of ______ or ______ ______
The use of typical or atypical antipsychotics
What is the reason for the long half-life of
antipsychotics?
They are ______ soluble and
stored in ______
They are lipid soluble and stored in fat
Put the following extrapyramidal symptoms in the order in which they
occur.
Tardive
dyskinesia
Akathisia
Dystonia
Bradykinesia
Hours to days → [...]
Days to months → [...] and/or
[...]
Months to years → [...]
Hours to days → Dystonia
Days to months → Akathisia and/or
bradykinesia
Months to years → Tardive dyskinesia
A patient treated with antipsychotics develops difficulty sitting still and paces frequently. What is the adverse effect?
Akathisia
Through what mechanism do atypical antipsychotics
cause dry mouth, constipation, and sedation?
______ effects
______ effects
Antimuscarinic effects
Antihistaminic effects
By what mechanism do typical antipsychotics cause hypotension?
_____-blockade
α1-blockade
What extrapyramidal adverse effect of antipsychotics is
irreversible?
______ ______
Tardive dyskinesia
What adverse effect of antipsychotic medications involves sluggishness in initiating purposeful movement days to months after the drug is taken?
Bradykinesia
Describe the mechanism by which antipsychotics cause
galactorrhea.
Antipsychotics antagonize ____ receptors →
Disinhibition of ____ → Hyperprolactinemia and galactorrhea
Antipsychotics antagonize dopamine receptors → Disinhibition of prolactin → Hyperprolactinemia and galactorrhea
In what two scenarios can treatment with clozapine
be considered?
Treatment-resistant ______
disorders
Persistent ______
Treatment-resistant psychotic disorders
Persistent suicidality
Which two antipsychotic medications have the highest risk for metabolic disturbances?
______
______
Clozapine
Olanzapine
What blood test should be ordered when a patient is given a new prescription for clozapine?
CBC
Clozapine CBC: This is to monitor absolute neutrophil count because clozapine can cause _________.
agranulocytosis
What are four clinical uses for antipsychotics apart form
schizophrenia?
______ disorder
______ ______
disorder
______ disease
______ syndrome
Bipolar disorder
Obsessive-compulsive disorder
Huntington
disease
Tourette syndrome
[Typical/Atypical] antipsychotics treat positive
symptoms
[Typical/Atypical] antipsychotics can treat both
positive and negative symptoms
Typical antipsychotics treat positive symptoms
Atypical
antipsychotics can treat both positive and negative symptoms
How is the mechanism of action of aripiprazole unique in comparison
with other antipsychotics?
Aripiprazole is a _____
partial agonist
Aripiprazole is a D2 partial agonist
What major receptors are affected by antipsychotic medications?
_____ receptors are blocked by antipsychotics → Increased _____
D2 receptors are blocked by antipsychotics → Increased cAMP
What is the treatment for akathisia?
_____-blockers
_____
_____
β-blockers
Benztropine
Benzodiazepines
Between typical and atypical antipsychotics, which class has a greater affinity for the dopamine receptor?
Typical
What are four treatments for tardive dyskinesia?
_____
_____ toxin injections
_____
_____
Benzodiazepines
Botulinum toxin injections
Valbenazine
Deutetrabenazine
What are the 4 side effects vortioxetine (atypical
antidepressant)?
_____ (common)
_____
effects
_____ disturbances
_____ dysfunction
Nausea (common)
Anticholinergic effects
Sleep
disturbances
Sexual dysfunction
What is the mechanism of action of vortioxetine?
___-___
reuptake inhibitor
___-___ receptor antagonist
___-___
receptor agonist
5-HT reuptake inhibitor
5-HT3 receptor
antagonist
5-HT1A receptor agonist
What is the major adverse effect of
varenicline?
______ disturbance
sleep disturbance
What is the mechanism of action of
varenicline?
Partial agonist at the
______ ______ receptor
Partial agonist at the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor
Varenicline helps nicotine ______ decline.
cravings
Which atypical antidepressant has stimulant
properties and a lower risk of sexual side effects and weight
gain?
______
Bupropion
What is the mechanism of action of bupropion?
Inhibits
reuptake of ______
Inhibits reuptake of ______
Inhibits reuptake of norepinephrine
Inhibits reuptake of dopamine
Why is trazodone primarily used for insomnia and not
depression?
Trazodone causes ______, which is desirable in
the treatment of insomnia
Trazodone causes sedation, which is desirable in the treatment of insomnia
What is the mechanism of action of trazodone?
Trazadone
blocks [...],
[...], and
[...]
receptors
Weakly inhibits _____ reuptake
Trazadone blocks 5-HT2, H1, and
α1-adrenergic receptors
Weakly inhibits serotonin reuptake
What are the 4 major side effects of trazodone?
Postural ______
______
______
______
Postural hypotension
Nausea
Sedation
Priapism
Lyonization (also called X-chromosome inactivation) is a natural genetic process in female mammals where one of their two X chromosomes is randomly _____ in _____ cell during _____ development.
inactivated
every
embryonic
What is the main function of the pineal gland?
_____ secretion
Melatonin secretion
What is the mechanism of action of vilazodone?
Partial agonist at [...] receptors
[...] receptor antagonist
Partial agonist at 5-HT1A receptors
5-HT3
receptor antagonist
Which 2 atypical antidepressants are used for smoking cessation?
_____
_____
Bupropion
Varenicline
Which atypical antidepressant may be suitable for an
underweight patient?
_____
Mirtazapine
What is the primary clinical indication for prescribing buspirone?
GAD
What is the mechanism of action of buspirone?
[...] receptor
partial agoinst
5-HT1A receptor partial agoinst
How long after a patient starts taking buspirone
does it begin to take effect?
___ to ___ weeks
1 to 2 weeks
What is the advantage of buspirone when compared with other
anti-anxiety medications such as benzodiazepines and barbiturates?
Buspirone does not cause _____, _____, or _____
Buspirone
does not interact with _____
Buspirone does not cause tolerance, sedation, or
addiction
Buspirone does not interact with alcohol
What three conditions can central nervous system
stimulants be used to treat?
______-______ disorder
______-______ ______ disorder
______
Binge-eating disorder
Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder
Narcolepsy
What is the mechanism of action of central nervous system stimulants?
They increase ______ release at the synaptic cleft
They increase catecholamine release at the synaptic cleft
What are four central nervous system stimulants?
________
________
________
________
Dextroamphetamine
Methylphenidate
Lisdexamfetamine
Methamphetamine
Why does lithium require close monitoring of serum levels?
Lithium has a [wide/narrow] therapeutic window
Lithium has a narrow therapeutic window
What are four common side effects of lithium use?
[Hyperthyroidism/Hypothyroidism]
_____ anomaly
_____
_____ _____
_____
Hypothyroidism
Ebstein anomaly
Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
Tremor
What is the mechanism of lithium reabsorption in the kidney?
It is reabsorbed at the proximal
convoluted tubule along with _____ through _____ channels
It is reabsorbed at the proximal convoluted tubule along with Na+ through Na+ channels
How does lithium adversely affect the thyroid?
_____
_____
Hypothyroidism
Hyperthyroidism
What is the mechanism by which lithium causes polyuria?
Lithium inhibits _____ function at the level of the kidney →
_____ _____ _____
Lithium inhibits ADH function at the level of the kidney → Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
What three drug classes are often implicated in affecting lithium clearance?
_____ inhibitors
_____ diuretics
_____
ACE inhibitors
Thiazide diuretics
NSAIDs
Which organ almost exclusively excretes lithium? _____
Kidneys
How does lithium affect calcium levels?
Lithium causes mild [hypercalcemia/hypocalcemia]
Lithium causes mild hypercalcemia
Intravenous drug use increases a patient's risk for which diseases?
Infectious diseases including ____, ____, and
____
____
Right-sided infective ____
____
Infectious diseases including HBV, HIV, and
HCV
Abscesses
Right-sided infective endocarditis
Bacteremia
How is methadone used in the treatment of patients with substance use disorder?
Methadone is a long-acting _____ that is used for _____ from
heroin and long-term _____ therapy
Methadone is a long-acting opioid that is used for detoxification from heroin and long-term maintenance therapy
How is naltrexone used in the treatment of patients with substance
use disorder and what is its mechanism of action?
It is used to prevent _____ after _____ _____
It is a
long-acting oral _____ _____
It is used to prevent relapse after opioid detoxification
It is
a long-acting oral opioid antagonist
What is the mechanism of action of buprenorphine and
how is it used in the treatment of patients with substance use disorder?
Partial ______ agonist
It is administered in the form of a
sublingual film for ______ therapy and suppression of ______
Partial opioid agonist
It is administered in the form of a
sublingual film for maintenance therapy and suppression of withdrawal
What adverse effect may occur when buprenorphine is
taken shortly after a full opioid agonist by an
opioid-dependent individual?
Precipitation of ______ symptoms
Precipitation of withdrawal symptoms
Apart from opioid detoxification, what are the other uses for naltrexone?
Weight _____
Cessation of _____ or _____ use
Weight loss
Cessation of alcohol or nicotine use
Which adverse effects can be caused by nicotine replacement therapy?
Oral _____
_____
Oral irritation
Headaches
Which smoking cessation drug acts as a partial agonist at nicotinic acetylcholine receptors to decrease withdrawal and effects on the reward system?
Varenicline
Name two common side effects of varenicline.
_____ disturbances
_____ discomfort
Sleep disturbances
Gastrointestinal discomfort