Day 3 Flashcards


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1

What are the two most common causes of dementia in the elderly?

_____ disease (most common)
_____ dementia

Alzheimer disease (most common)
Vascular dementia

2

What is the likely diagnosis for an adult with a history of chronic alcohol consumption who is exhibiting anterograde amnesia and confabulation in the emergency department?

Korsakoff syndrome

3

What type of amnesia is present in a patient who sustained a head injury and is unable to recall anything that occurred from the time that the injury occurred?

Anterograde amnesia

4

What type of amnesia is present in a patient who cannot recall anything that occurred before they sustained a head injury but can still make new memories?

Retrograde amnesia

5

Korsakoff syndrome is a late neuropsychiatric manifestation of what disease?

Wernicke encephalopathy

6

What is the definition of an anxiety disorder?

When a patient experiences inappropriate ____ and ____

When a patient experiences inappropriate fear and worry

7

Which three other conditions must be ruled out to make a diagnosis of anxiety disorder?

Another ____ disorder
____ use
____ condition

Another psychiatric disorder
Substance use
Medical condition

8

In a person with bipolar disorder, what mood can you expect between episodes of mania/hypomania and depression?

Mood generally returns to ______

Mood generally returns to normal

9

What disorder is present in a patient who has mild dysthymia and has been experiencing hypomanic episodes for 3 years?

Cyclothymic disorder

10

What class of drugs are used most commonly to treat bipolar disorder?

____ ____

____ ____

Mood stabilizers
Atypical antipsychotics

11

How does bipolar I disorder differ from bipolar II disorder?

Bipolar I disorder includes _____ episodes with or without a _____ or _____ episode
Bipolar II disoder includes a _____ episode and a _____ episode, but no _____ episodes

Bipolar I disorder includes manic episodes with or without a hypomanic or depressive episode
Bipolar II disoder includes a hypomanic episode and a depressive episode, but no manic episodes

12

What class of drugs can cause mania and increase suicide risk in patients with bipolar disorder?

______

Antidepressant

13

How long are symptoms required to be present for a diagnosis of cyclothymic disorder?

____ or more years with symptoms present at least ____% of the time, with any remission lasting for ____ months or less

2 or more years with symptoms present at least 50% of the time, with any remission lasting for 2 months or less

14

What additional disorder do patients with selective mutism usually have?

Social anxiety disorder

15

How do you treat selective mutism?

____, ____, and ____ therapies with or without ____

Behavioral, family, and play therapies with or without SSRIs

16

What is selective mutism?

____ disorder that involves refraining from ____ in specific situations for less than or equal to ____ month in a child older than ____ years who has no impairment in speech/language development

Anxiety disorder that involves refraining from speech in specific situations for less than or equal to 1 month in a child older than 5 years who has no impairment in speech/language development

17

Selective mutism interferes with performance of what kinds of tasks?

____ tasks
____ tasks
____ tasks

Academic tasks
Social tasks
Occupational tasks

18

In _____ disorder, the basic rights of others or social norms are violated
In _____ _____ disorder, the basic rights of others or social norms are not violated

In conduct disorder, the basic rights of others or social norms are violated
In oppositional defiant disorder, the basic rights of others or social norms are not violated

19

What is the treatment for conduct disorder?

Psychotherapy

20

How do you treat a child with oppositional defiant disorder?

Psychotherapy

21

Up to what age is separation anxiety considered a normal phenomenon?

___ to ___ years

3 to 4 years

22

An episode of separation anxiety in older children must last how long for it to be considered a disorder?

____ weeks or more

4 weeks or more

23

What can be used to treat a child with separation anxiety disorder?

____ ____ therapy
____ therapy
____ therapy

Cognitive Behavioral Therapy

Family therapy

Play therapy

24

What modalities are used to treat intractable tics in a patient with Tourette syndrome?

High-potency____, ____-agonists, ________

High-potency antipsychotics
α2-agonists
Tetrabenazine

25

Tourette syndrome presents with what symptoms and at what age?

Sudden, rapid, recurrent, [rhythmic/nonrhythmic] stereotyped vocal and motor ____ that are present > ____ year(s) before the age of ____ years

Sudden, rapid, recurrent, nonrhythmic stereotyped vocal and motor tics that are present > 1 year(s) before the age of 18 years

26

What is the first-line therapy for Tourette syndrome?

_____ therapy
_____education

Behavioral therapy
Psychoeducation

27

What features and associated disorders may be seen in a patient with Tourette syndrome?

Vocal and motor ____
C____
____-____ ____
____-____ ____ ____

Vocal and motor tics
Coprolalia
Obsessive-compulsive disorder
Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder

28

____ is the medical term for the involuntary outburst of obscene words, slurs, or socially inappropriate remarks.

Coprolalia

29

How long do symptoms need to be present for Tourette syndrome to be diagnosed?

More than __ year(s)

More than 1 year(s)

30

ADHD symptoms must last for how long before diagnosis?

6 months

31

What three traits characterize attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder?

I____
I____
H____

Inattention
Impulsivity
Hyperactivity

32

ADHD symptoms must be found in ____ or more settings

2

33

What are the treatment options for attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder?

______ with or without ______ ______ therapy
______ alternatives

Stimulants with or without cognitive behavioral therapy
Stimulant alternatives

34

You suspect that a child who does poorly in school has attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder. Does this disorder affect intelligence?

No

35

What classes of drugs are used to treat disruptive mood dysregulation disorder?

_____

_____

Stimulants
Antipsychotics

36

How does disruptive mood dysregulation disorder present?

Severe, recurrent _____ outbursts incongruent to situation

Severe, recurrent temper outbursts incongruent to situation

37

How long must symptoms be present before a diagnosis of disruptive mood dysregulation can be made?

1 year

38

Autism must present in [early/late] childhood and is more common in [boys/girls]

Autism must present in early childhood and is more common in boys

39

At what age would you diagnose a patient with conduct disorder?

Before the age of ____ years

Before the age of 18 years

40

After age 18, conduct disorder is reclassified as _____ _____ disorder.

After age 18, it is reclassified as antisocial personality disorder.

41

A child with autism may have an intellectual _______ or _______ abilities or specific skills. Size of head and/or brain may be _______.

A child with autism may have an intellectual disability or exceptional abilities or specific skills. Size of head and/or brain may be increased

42

Which childhood disorder is characterized by poor social interactions, communication deficits, ritualized or repetitive behavior, and restricted interests?

_____ _____ disorder

Autism spectrum disorder

43

What is intellectual disability?

______ cognitive deficits that affect memory, reasoning, judgment, abstract thinking, language, and learning

Global cognitive deficits that affect memory, reasoning, judgment, abstract thinking, language, and learning

44

Why do patients with intellectual disability have difficulties in socialization, education, employment, and independence?

_____ functioning is impaired due to _____ cognitive deficits

Adaptive functioning is impaired due to global cognitive deficits

45

How do you treat a patient with intellectual disability?

By providing ______ support to improve global functioning

By providing multidisciplinary support to improve global functioning

46

A child is unable to read near the level of proficiency for his or her age even after working with a tutor 7 months. What is the most likely diagnosis?

_____ _____ disorder

Specific learning disorder

47

What happens to general functioning and intelligence in an individual with specific learning disorder?

They are usually normal

48

How long must symptoms persist for a diagnosis of specific learning childhood disorder?

> ___ months

> 6 months

49

How do you treat a patient with specific learning disorder?

_____ support
C_____
_____ activities

Academic support
Counseling
Extracurricular activities

50

How do you treat delirium?

Treatment of delirium is aimed at identifying and addressing the _____ _____

Treatment of delirium is aimed at identifying and addressing the underlying condition

51

_____ may be used as needed for acute episodes of delirium

Antipsychotics may be used as needed for acute episodes.

52

What classes of medication should be avoided in the treatment of delirium?

_____
_____
_____

Benzodiazepines
Anticholinergics
Opioids

53

What could be the cause of sudden waning of consciousness in hospitalized older patients?

delirium

54

You suspect that your patient with altered mental status has delirium. What test may help to confirm the diagnosis?

_____

EEG

55

EEG may reveal _____ _____ _____ slowing, a finding associated with delirium.

diffuse background rhythm

56

Define delirium.

Acute, [reversible/irreversible], onset of waxing/waning _____ with rapidly decreasing _____ span and level of _____

Acute, reversible, onset of waxing/waning consciousness with rapidly decreasing attention span and level of arousal

57

How do you begin management of delirium before considering medication?

Identifying/treating underlying _____
Providing cognitive _____
Keeping a clock or calendar nearby for _____ purposes
Reducing _____ disturbances

Identifying/treating underlying condition
Providing cognitive stimulation
Keeping a clock or calendar nearby for orientation purposes
Reducing sleep disturbances

58

What is the treatment for atypical depression?
_____
_____ _____ therapy
_____ (not first-line)

SSRIs
Cognitive behavioral therapy
MAOIs (not first-line)

59

What symptoms differentiate atypical depression from classical depression?

_____ reactivity
[Hypersomnia/Hyposomnia]
[Overeating/Undereating]
_____ paralysis
_____ to rejection

Mood reactivity
Hypersomnia
Overeating
Leaden paralysis
Hypersensitivity to rejection

60

Heavy feeling in legs and arms is called what?

Transient improvement in mood in response to a positive event is called what?

Leaden paralysis

Mood reactivity

61

What is the most common subtype of depression?

Depression with atypical features

62

How long must symptoms be present for a diagnosis of delusional disorder to be made?

> [...] month(s)

> 1 month(s)

63

How long must symptoms persist for a diagnosis of brief psychotic disorder?

< [...] month(s)

< 1 month(s)

64

Symptoms of major depressive disorder last ≥ [...] weeks
Dysthymia and cyclothymia are diagnosed in adults after symptoms last > [...] years

Symptoms of major depressive disorder last ≥ 2 weeks
Dysthymia and cyclothymia are diagnosed in adults after symptoms last > 2 years

65

After how many months of anxiety-related symptoms can the diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder be made?

> [...] months

> 6 months

66

After how many months of symptoms can the diagnosis of panic disorder be made?

> [...] month(s)

> 1 month(s)

67

How many months of symptoms are necessary for a narcolepsy diagnosis?

> [...] month(s)

> 3 months

68

How long must symptoms be present in a child for a diagnosis of oppositional defiant disorder to be made?

> [...] months

> 6 months

69

How long must symptoms be present for the diagnosis of tic disorder be made?

> [...] year(s)

> 1 year(s)

70

How long must symptoms be present for the diagnosis of a phobia be made?

> [...] months

> 6 months

71

Symptoms persisting ____ than ____ months indicate adjustment disorder

Symptoms persisting ____ than ____ months indicate generalized anxiety disorder

Symptoms persisting less than 6 months indicate adjustment disorder

Symptoms persisting more than 6 months indicate generalized anxiety disorder

72

Compare the duration of symptoms in acute stress disorder versus post-traumatic stress disorder.

Acute stress disorder → Symptoms persist ____ than ____ month(s)
Post-traumatic stress disorder → Symptoms persist ____ than ____ month(s)

Acute stress disorder → Symptoms persist less than 1 month(s)
Post-traumatic stress disorder → Symptoms persist more than 1 month(s)

73

How long must symptoms be present for a diagnosis of schizophreniform disorder to be made?

Symptoms must be present for [...] to [...] months

Symptoms must be present for 1 to 6 months

74

How long must symptoms be present for a diagnosis of schizophrenia to be made?

> 6 months

75

Name six psychiatric conditions associated with dissociative identity disorder.

____-____ ____ disorder
______
______ personality disorder
______ use disorder
______ disorders
History of ______ abuse

Post-traumatic stress disorder
Depression
Borderline personality disorder
Substance use disorder
Somatoform disorders
History of sexual abuse

76

Dissociative identity disorder is more common in which sex?

female

77

Depersonalization → Feelings of detachment/estrangement from one's ____
Derealization → Feelings of detachment/estrangement from one's ____

Depersonalization → Feelings of detachment/estrangement from one's self
Derealization → Feelings of detachment/estrangement from one's environment

78

A man often feels estranged from his surroundings and from himself, almost as if he is merely an observer. What could this condition be?

________/________ disorder

Depersonalization/derealization disorder

79

If a patient has two or more distinct personality states or identities, what is the diagnosis?

Dissociative identity disorder

80

Due to the severe trauma of child abuse, a woman is unable to recall her date of birth. What type of amnesia is this?

_____ amnesia

Dissociative amnesia

81

A man abruptly travels to the other side of the country and is found wandering on the streets there. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Dissociative _____

Dissociative fugue

82

Dissociative fugue occurs during a period of dissociative amnesia, which is often associated with _____ circumstances.

traumatic

83

Which eating disorder involves dieting, fasting, and/or exercising excessively without purging or binge eating for ≥ 3 months?

Anorexia nervosa, restricting type

84

Which eating disorder involves recurrent purging behaviors or binge eating for ≥ 3 months?

Anorexia nervosa, binge-eating/purging type

85

What three treatment options are available for patients with anorexia nervosa?

_____
_____ rehabilitation
_____

Psychotherapy
Nutritional rehabilitation
Olanzapine

86

What is the definition of anorexia nervosa?

Intense fear of [gaining/losing] weight, distortion of body image, and overvaluation of ____ → Calorie ____, extreme weight [gain/loss], and inappropriately [high/low] BMI

Intense fear of gaining weight, distortion of body image, and overvaluation of thinness → Calorie restriction, extreme weight loss, and inappropriately low BMI

87

Name three electrolyte disturbances that occur in refeeding syndrome in patients with anorexia.

[Hyperkalemia/Hypokalemia]
[Hyperphosphatemia/Hypophosphatemia]
[Hypermagnesemia/Hypomagnesemia]

Hypokalemia
Hypophosphatemia
Hypomagnesemia

88

In anorexia nervosa, what three symptoms or diseases may present due to disruption of the endocrine symptom?

[Hyperthyroidism/Hypothyroidism]
_____
_____

Hypothyroidism
Amenorrhea
Osteoporosis

89

How may body hair be altered in anorexia nervosa?

Development of ____ hair on the arms and legs

Development of soft hair on the arms and legs

90

Compare the body weight profiles of patients with anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa.

Anorexia nervosa → _____ BMI
Bulimia nervosa → _____ or _____ BMI

Anorexia nervosa → Low BMI
Bulimia nervosa → Normal BMI or overweight

91

What four findings may be seen in a patient with bulimia nervosa?

____ of enamel on teeth
Metabolic [acidosis/alkalosis]
____ disturbances
[Ventral/Dorsal] hand ____ caused by induction of vomiting

Erosion of enamel on teeth
Metabolic alkalosis
Electrolyte disturbances
Dorsal hand calluses caused by induction of vomiting

92

What is the definition of pica?

Recurring consumption of _____ items, not considered normal for an individual's culture or developmental stage, for _____ month(s) or longer

Recurring consumption of nonfood items, not considered normal for an individual's culture or developmental stage, for 1 month(s) or longer

93

What is the treatment for pica?

First-line treatment → _____ rehabilitation and _____
Second-line treatment → _____

First-line treatment → Nutritional rehabilitation and psychotherapy
Second-line treatment → SSRIs

94

What population of patients does pica typically affect?

_____
_____ women

Children
Pregnant women

95

What four comorbidities is pica associated with?

______ deficiency anemia
______ disabilities
______
______ trauma

Iron deficiency anemia
Developmental disabilities
Malnutrition
Emotional trauma

96

Describe the mechanism of refeeding syndrome and three potential complications in a patient with anorexia.

Sudden increase in calorie intake → Increase in ____ → [Hyperphosphatemia/Hypophosphatemia], [hyperkalemia/hypokalemia], and [hypermagnesemia/hypomagnesemia] → Rhabdomyolysis, seizures, and cardiac complications

Sudden increase in calorie intake → Increase in insulin → Hypophosphatemia, hypokalemia, and hypomagnesemia → Rhabdomyolysis, seizures, and cardiac complications

97

What treatment options are available for binge-eating disorder?

_____ (first-line treatment)
_____
_____

Psychotherapy (first-line treatment)
SSRIs
Lisdexamfetamine

98

Why is bupropion contraindicated for patients with bulimia nervosa?

Elevated risk of ______

Elevated risk of seizures

99

Why might a doctor order an endoscopy for a patient with bulimia nervosa?

To check for _____ in the [upper/lower] part of the esophagus

To check for tears in the lower part of the esophagus.

This is Malory-Weiss syndrome.

100

Which enzyme would increase as a result of parotid gland hypertrophy in patients with bulimia nervosa?

Serum _____

Serum amylase

101

What is the treatment for bulimia nervosa?

_____
_____ rehabilitation
_____

Antidepressants
Nutritional rehabilitation
Psychotherapy

102

Is electroconvulsive therapy safe for pregnant patients and elderly patients?

Yes. There are no absolute contraindications to electroconvulsive therapy.

103

Name four clinical indications for electroconvulsive therapy.

Acute _____
_____ with psychosis
_____ depression
C_____

Acute suicidality
Depression with psychosis
Refractory depression
Catatonia

104

What is the mechanism of electroconvulsive therapy?

Electroconvulsive therapy induces ____-____ seizures in patients under anesthesia and neuromuscular blockade

Electroconvulsive therapy induces tonic-clonic seizures in patients under anesthesia and neuromuscular blockade

105

What are the adverse effects of electroconvulsive therapy?

_____
_____
_____/_____ amnesia that usually resolves within _____ months

Headache
Disorientation
Anterograde/retrograde amnesia that usually resolves within 6 months

106

What is the first-line treatment for someone diagnosed with enuresis?

______ modifications
[Positive/Negative] reinforcement

Behavioral modifications
Positive reinforcement

107

For nocturnal urinary incontinence refractory to behavioral modifications, what are two treatment options?

Bedwetting ______
Oral ______

Bedwetting alarm
Oral desmopressin

108

How long must symptoms of nighttime incontinence last for a diagnosis of enuresis to be made?

≥ [...] times per week for ≥ [...] months

≥ 2 times per week for ≥ 3 months

109

How old does a person have to be for a diagnosis of enuresis to be made?

> [...] years

> 5 years

110

A caregiver—usually a parent—intentionally fabricates, exaggerates, or induces physical or psychological symptoms in a dependent (often a child) to deceive others and gain attention or sympathy.

_____ disorder imposed on [self/another]

Factitious disorder imposed on another

111

Patients with factitious disorder imposed on self are _____ to undergo tests and procedures

Patients with malingering often _____ treatment

Patients with factitious disorder imposed on self are willing to undergo tests and procedures

Patients with malingering often avoid treatment

112

What is the primary goal of a patient with a factitious disorder?

To get _____ and medical _____ by means of the sick role

To get sympathy and medical attention by means of the sick role

113

In which two population groups is factitous disorder imposed on self more common?

_____ workers
[Men/Women]

Healthcare workers
Women

114

What is the definition of gambling disorder?

Persistent, recurrent, problematic gambling that cannot be better explained as a _____ episode

Persistent, recurrent, problematic gambling that cannot be better explained as a manic episode

115

What is the treatment of gambling disorder?

______

Psychotherapy

116

What is the definition of transgender?

When a patient lives their life as a [similar/different] gender than what was assigned at _____

When a patient lives their life as a different gender than what was assigned at birth

117

What is definition of gender dysphoria?

A difference between the way an individual ______ gender and the gender assigned at ______

A difference between the way an individual experiences gender and the gender assigned at birth

118

gender dysphoria lasts for over ______ months and causes persistent ______.

gender dysphoria lasts for over 6 months and causes persistent distress.

119

Is gender nonconformity a mental disorder?

No

120

At what age does gender identity develop?

3 yo

121

What are seven of the most common symptoms associated with generalized anxiety disorder?

Excessive _____
_____ problems
_____
_____
Difficulty _____
_____
Muscle _____

Excessive anxiety
Sleep problems
Restlessness
Fatigue
Difficulty concentrating
Irritability
Muscle tension

122

By definition, the symptoms of generalized anxiety disorder must be present for how long to be clinically significant?

On most days for [...] months or longer

On most days for 6 months or longer

123

What are three first-line treatment options available for generalized anxiety disorder?

____ ____ therapy
____
____

Cognitive behavioral therapy
SSRIs
SNRIs

124

What are three second-line treatment options for generalized anxiety disorder?

____
____
____

Buspirone
TCAs
Benzodiazepines

125

How do the criteria for a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder in adults compare with the criteria for a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder in children?

Adults → ≥ [...] symptoms of generalized anxiety
Children → ≥ [...] symptoms of generalized anxiety

Adults → ≥ 3 symptoms of generalized anxiety
Children → ≥ 1 symptoms of generalized anxiety

126

Compare hypomanic and manic episodes in terms of severity.

Hypomanic episodes are [more/less] intense
Hypomanic episodes do not impair ____ or feature ____
Hypomanic episodes do not require ____
Hypomanic episodes last for ≥ ____ consecutive days

Hypomanic episodes are less intense
Hypomanic episodes do not impair function or feature psychosis
Hypomanic episodes do not require hospitalization
Hypomanic episodes last for ≥ 4 consecutive days

127

What treatment options are first line for major depressive disorder?

_____ _____ _____
_____

Cognitive behavioral therapy
SSRIs

128

What are the features of major depressive disorder?

_____ disturbance
Decreased interest in _____ activities
_____
[Increased/Decreased] energy
[Increased/Decreased] concentration
_____ /_____ changes
_____ agitation
_____ ideation

Sleep disturbance
Decreased interest in pleasurable activities
Guilt
Decreased energy
Decreased concentration
Appetite/weight changes
Psychomotor agitation
Suicidal ideation

129

For major depressive episode: Symptoms must have been present for most days for a period of ____ ____ or longer

2 weeks

130

Which disorder is often milder than major depressive disorder with at least 2 depressive symptoms lasting at least 2 years and with remission of 2 months or less?

_____ _____ disorder AKA _____

Persistent depressive disorder AKA dysthymia

131

In which depressive disorder do episodes occur only during a particular season in 2 or more consecutive years?

_____ _____ disorder with _____ _____

Major depressive disorder with seasonal pattern

132

What are the treatment options for major depressive disorder with seasonal pattern?

______ ______ therapy
______
______ therapy

Cognitive behavior therapy
SSRIs
Light therapy

133

Psychotic features occur only ______ the major depressive episode in a patient with major depressive disorder with psychotic features

A patient with schizoaffective disorder will have psychotic symptoms [dependent/independent] of a depressive episode

Psychotic features occur only during the major depressive episode in a patient with major depressive disorder with psychotic features

A patient with schizoaffective disorder will have psychotic symptoms independent of a depressive episode

134

What is the treatment for major depressive disorder with psychotic features?

A(n) ______ combined with a(n) ______ ______ or ______ therapy

A(n) antidepressant combined with a(n) atypical antipsychotic or electroconvulsive therapy

135

Define major depressive disorder with psychotic features.

Major depressive disorder accompanied by _____ or _____

Major depressive disorder accompanied by delusions or hallucinations

136

In major depressive disorder with psychotic features, hallucinations and delusions typically have what overlying theme?

They are typically mood ______ with depressed mood

They are typically mood congruent with depressed mood

137

Which disorder is intentional and the patient's complaints stop after something is gained?

Malingering

138

Which disorder occurs when a patient consciously fakes, exaggerates, or reports a disorder with goal of attaining a secondary gain?

Malingering

139

How does malingering affect a patient's compliance with treatment and follow-up?

Compliance with treatment or follow-up is often _____

Compliance with treatment or follow-up is often poor

140

What are the seven symptoms of a manic episode?

_____
_____/_____
_____
Flight of _____
[Increased/Decreased] activity/agitation
[Increased/Decreased] sleep needs
_____

Distractibility
Impulsivity/indiscretion
Grandiosity
Flight of ideas
Increased activity/agitation
Decreased sleep needs
Talkativeness

141

For diagnosis of a manic episode, how many manic symptoms must be present and for how long?

At least ___ symptoms for at least ___ ___

At least 3 symptoms for at least 1 week

142

Define mood disorders: disorders in which an abnormal range of internal emotions/moods and loss of ____ over them cause distress and impairment in ____ function

Disorders in which an abnormal range of internal emotions/moods and loss of control over them cause distress and impairment in daily function

143

Give four examples of disorders that are classified as mood disorders.

____ ____ disorder
____ disorder
____ disorder
____ disorder

Major depressive disorder
Bipolar disorder
Dysthymic disorder
Cyclothymic disorder

144

Can a patient with a mood disorder experience symptoms of psychosis, such as hallucinations or delusions?

Yes

145

List the order in which a person loses his or her components of orientation.

First → ______
Second → ______
Third → ______

First → Time
Second → Place
Third → Person

146

What is orientation in the context of the psychiatric exam?

An individual’s ability to know ____ he/she is, ____ he/she is, and the ____ and ____

An individual’s ability to know who he/she is, where he/she is, and the date and time

147

What are the common causes of loss of orientation?

____ injury
Fluid/electrolyte ____
____
____
Hypo_____
Hypo_____
_____
_____ deficiencies

Head injury
Fluid/electrolyte imbalance
Drugs
Alcohol
Hypoglycemia
Hypoxia
Infection
Nutritional deficiencies

148

What are the criteria for a diagnosis of panic disorder?

____ ____ followed by history of ≥ ____ month of ____ or more of the following criteria:

____ of new attacks
____ about consequences of attacks
Changed ____ due to attacks

Panic attack followed by history of ≥ 1 month of 1 or more of the following criteria:

Fear of new attacks
Worry about consequences of attacks
Changed behavior due to attacks

149

What is the treatment for panic disorder?

_____ _____ therapy
_____
_____

Cognitive behavioral therapy
SSRIs
Venlafaxine

150

For panic disorder, what drug class may be used for acute episodes?

Benzodiazepines may be used for acute episodes.

151

Is panic disorder genetic?

Yes

152

What disorder causes recurrent episodes of intense fear, nausea, paresthesias, and depersonalization for short periods?

Panic Disorder

153

How does panic disorder affect the risk for suicide?

Increases sucide risk

154

What are risk factors for postpartum psychosis?

_____ disorder
_____ disorder
[First/Second] pregnancy
_____ history
Recent discontinuation of _____ medication

Bipolar disorder
Psychotic disorder
First pregnancy
Family history
Recent discontinuation of psychotropic medication

155

Which of the peripartum mood disturbances is the only one that does not usually warrant pharmacologic therapy?

_____ _____

Postpartum blues

156

What postpartum mental disorder could cause a woman to have delusions and threaten to kill herself and the baby?

_____ _____

Postpartum psychosis

157

What is the treatment for major depressive disorder with peripartum onset?

____
____ ____ therapy

SSRIs
Cognitive behavioral therapy

158

When will the symptoms of postpartum blues likely resolve?

Within ____ ____

Within 2 weeks

159

What are three peripartum mood disturbances that new mothers may experience in order from highest to lowest incidence rate?

____ ____ (50% to 85%)
____ ____ disorder with ____ ____ (10% to 15%)
____ ____ (0.1% to 0.2%)

Postpartum blues (50% to 85%)
Major depressive disorder with peripartum onset (10% to 15%)
Postpartum psychosis (0.1% to 0.2%)

160

What is the treatment for postpartum psychosis?

Admission to inpatient _____ unit

Administration of _____ _____ or _____ therapy if drug therapy is ineffective

Admission to inpatient psychiatric unit

Administration of atypical antipsychotics or electroconvulsive therapy if drug therapy is ineffective

161

What is the definition of personality disorder?

[Flexible/Inflexible] and ______ pattern of behavior that is pervasive in their lifeDistress and/or impaired function

Inflexible and maladaptive pattern of behavior that is pervasive in their life → Distress and/or impaired function

162

What is the definition of personality trait?

A personality trait is an enduring pattern in which a person processes and relates to his/her _____ and his/her _____ in it

A personality trait is an enduring pattern in which a person processes and relates to his/her environment and his/her role in it

163

In what age group do personality disorders usually present?

Before or during early ______

Before or during early adulthood

164

What are the three clusters of personality disorders?

Cluster A → "____"
Cluster B → "____"
Cluster C → "____"

Cluster A → "Weird"
Cluster B → "Wild"
Cluster C → "Worried"

165

What are the three cluster A personality disorders?

____ personality disorder
____ personality disorder
____ personality disorder

Paranoid personality disorder
Schizoid personality disorder
Schizotypal personality disorder

166

Cluster A personality disorders have a genetic association with which other psychiatric disorder?

_______

Schizophrenia

167

What common characteristics could be observed in an individual with paranoid personality disorder?

Pervasive _____
[Hypervigilance/Hypovigilance]
_____
Very _____ view of the world

Pervasive distrust
Hypervigilance
Suspiciousness
Very cynical view of the world

168

What are four common characteristics of schizotypal personality disorder?

_____ beliefs
Interpersonal _____
_____ thinking
_____ appearance

Odd beliefs
Interpersonal awkwardness
Magical thinking
Eccentric appearance

169

What three characteristics are common with schizoid personality disorder?

Limited _____ expression
Indifferent to the _____ of others
Prefers _____ activities

Limited emotional expression
Indifferent to the opinion of others
Prefers solitary activities

170

What are the four cluster B personality disorders?

____ personality disorder
____ personality disorder
____ personality disorder
____ personality disorder

Antisocial personality disorder
Borderline personality disorder
Histrionic personality disorder
Narcissistic personality disorder

171

What three characteristics do cluster B personality disorders share?

D_____ behavior
E_____ behavior
E_____ behavior

Dramatic behavior
Emotional behavior
Erratic behavior

172

Cluster B personality disorders are genetically associated with what two other disorders?

____ abuse
____ disorders

Substance abuse
Mood disorders

173

What personality disorder could cause a person who has fragile self-esteem to demonstrate entitlement, grandiosity, and defensiveness and lack empathy?

______ personality disorder

Narcissistic personality disorder

174

What personality disorder could cause a person to engage in impulsive and self-mutilating behavior, express emotional emptiness, and have unstable moods and relationships?

______ personality disorder

Borderline personality disorder

175

What is the treatment for borderline personality disorder?

_____ _____ therapy

Dialectical behavioral

176

What is a major defense mechanism for a patient with borderline personality disorder?

Splitting

177

What personality disorder could cause a person to be shallow and sexually provocative, seek attention, and use dramatic speech and emotional expression?

______ personality disorder

Histrionic personality disorder

178

What personality disorder could cause individuals to be hostile, impulsive, manipulative, and unremorseful when they disregard the rights of others?

______ personality disorder

Antisocial personality disorder

179

Is antisocial personality disorder more common in males or females?

Males

180

What are the three cluster C personality disorders?

____ personality disorder
____-____ personality disorder
____ personality disorder

Avoidant personality disorder
Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
Dependent personality disorder

181

What category of disorders is cluster C personality disorders associated with?

_____ disorders

Anxiety disorders

182

What personality disorder could cause an individual to have low self-confidence, often remain in abusive relationships, and constantly seek support from others?

_____ personality disorder

Dependent personality disorder

183

What personality disorder could cause a person to be preoccupied with perfectionism, order, and control and experience pleasure in doing so?

_____-_____ personality disorder

Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

184

What personality disorder could cause a person to be hypersensitive to rejection, timid, and socially inhibited and express feelings of inadequacy yet desire relationships?

[...] personality disorder

Avoidant personality disorder

185

What are the three hallmarks of serotonin syndrome?

[Increased/Decreased] activity
____ instability
Altered ____ status

Increased activity
Autonomic instability
Altered mental status

186

What are two methods of preventing serotonin syndrome?

Allow for a ______ period between serotonergic drugs
Avoid using ______ serotonergic drugs at the same time

Allow for a washout period between serotonergic drugs
Avoid using multiple serotonergic drugs at the same time

187

Which medication can be used in the treatment of serotonin syndrome, and what is its mechanism?

_____ , which is a _____ receptor antagonist

Cyproheptadine, which is a 5-HT2 receptor antagonist

188

What condition can develop in a patient on a MAOI who consumes tyramine-rich foods?

______ ______

Hypertensive crisis

189

What is the treatment for a patient prescribed MAOIs undergoing a hypertensive crisis?

______

Phentolamine

190

Tyramine foods include _____ and _____

wine and cheese

191

How long should a patient wait after discontinuation of an MAO inhibitor to begin taking another serotonergic drug or stop dietary restrictions?

[...] weeks

2 weeks

192

What are 3 clinical uses of MAO inhibitors?

[Typical/Atypical] ______
______ disease
______

Atypical depression
Parkinson disease
Anxiety

193

How does eating tyramine-rich foods while taking MAOIs result in hypertensive crisis?

Tyramine displaces ______ in the synaptic cleft → Increased ______ → Stimulation of the ______ nervous system

Tyramine displaces norepinephrine in the synaptic cleft → Increased norepinephrine → Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system

194

What are six manifestations of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

M________
F________
E________
________ unstable
[Increased/Decreased] enzyme levels
Muscle ________

Myoglobinuria
Fever
Encephalopathy
Vitals unstable
Increased enzyme levels
Muscle rigidity

195

What class of drugs should not be prescribed for a patient with a known family history of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

Antipsychotics

196

What drugs can be used to treat neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
_____
_____
_____ agonists

Dantrolene
Benzodiazepines
Dopamine agonists

197

In a patient experiencing alcohol withdrawal, when does delirium tremens typically arise?

____ to ____ days after the last drink

2 to 4 days after the last drink

198

What is the treatment for a patient undergoing alcohol withdrawal with seizures?

Longer-acting _______

Longer-acting benzodiazepines

199

What is the likely cause of laryngospasm requiring intubation in a patient who has started taking an antipsychotic medication?

Acute _____

Acute dystonia

200

Which three drugs/drug classes can cause acute dystonia?

_______

_______

_______

Anticonvulsants
Antipsychotics
Metoclopramide

201

What two drugs can be used to treat acute dystonia?
_______

_______

Diphenhydramine
Benztropine

202

What three symptoms may be present in a patient with acute dystonia?

Muscle _____
Muscle _____
_____ crisis

Muscle spasms
Muscle stiffness
Oculogyric crisis

203

acute dystonia symptoms can begin hours to days after use of a _____ _____.

typical antipsychotic

204

An oculogyric crisis is an acute, involuntary neurological condition characterized by a sustained, ______ deviation of the eyeballs.

upward

205

What is the treatment for lithium toxicity?

______ of lithium

Hydrating aggressively with ______ ______ solution

______ can be considered

Discontinuation of lithium

Hydrating aggressively with isotonic saline solution

Hemodialysis can be considered

206

What is the treatment for a TCA overdose?

_____ treatment

Activated _____

_____

_____ monitoring

Supportive treatment

Activated charcoal

Bicarbonate

ECG monitoring

207

What are three potential causes of lithium toxicity?

[Increase/Decrease] in lithium dosage
[Increase/Decrease] in renal clearance
Drugs that affect _____

Increase in lithium dosage
Decrease in renal clearance
Drugs that affect clearance

208

Lithium is a ______ ______ commonly used to treat bipolar disorder.

mood stabilizer

209

Lithium is the drug of choice for _____ _____ in bipolar patients. It commonly causes an action _____ that is exacerbated by caffeine.

acute mania

tremor

210

What is the treatment for alcohol withdrawal?

Longer-acting _______

Longer-acting benzodiazepines

211

What are these symptoms of?

Altered mental status
Autonomic hyperactivity
Hallucinations
Anxiety
Tremors
Seizures
Psychomotor agitation
Insomnia
Nausea

delirium tremens

212

Which can contribute to serotonin syndrome?

A. Metoclopramide
B. Ondansetron
C. Prochlorperazine
D. Promethazine

B. Ondansetron

213

Which can contribute to serotonin syndrome?

A. Melatonin
B. Ginkgo biloba
C. St. John’s wort
D. Valerian root

C. St. John’s wort

214

Which can contribute to serotonin syndrome?

A. Cocaine
B. MDMA
C. Alcohol
D. Ketamine

B. MDMA

215

Which can contribute to serotonin syndrome?

A. Triptans
B. NSAIDs
C. Beta-blockers
D. Calcium channel blockers

A. Triptans

216

Which can contribute to serotonin syndrome?

A. Guaifenesin
B. Benzonatate
C. Dextromethorphan
D. Pseudoephedrine

C. Dextromethorphan

217

Which can contribute to serotonin syndrome?

A. Morphine
B. Tramadol
C. Oxycodone
D. Hydromorphone

B. Tramadol

218

Which can contribute to serotonin syndrome?

A. Vancomycin
B. Doxycycline
C. Ceftriaxone
D. Linezolid

D. Linezolid

219

Which can contribute to serotonin syndrome?

A. Fentanyl
B. Meperidine
C. Codeine
D. Methadone

B. Meperidine

220

What are five life-threatening effects of ecstasy intoxication?

[Tachycardia/Bradycardia]
[Hyperthermia/Hypothermia]
[Hypernatremia/Hyponatremia]
[Hypertension/Hypotension]
[...] syndrome

Tachycardia
Hyperthermia
Hyponatremia
Hypertension
Serotonin syndrome

221

How do you treat opioid withdrawal?

______ management
______
______

Symptom management
Buprenorphine
Methadone

222

What are three treatment options for smoking cessation?

_____ replacement
_____
_____

Nicotine replacement
Bupropion
Varenicline

223

What pupillary changes can be seen with both cocaine and amphetamine toxicity?

Pupillary [dilation/constriction]

Pupillary dilation

224

What may be present on the physical examination of a patient with chronic cocaine use?

______ nasal septum secondary to vasoconstriction
______ necrosis

Perforated nasal septum secondary to vasoconstriction
Ischemic necrosis

225

What are two cardiac manifestations of cocaine overdose?

______
Sudden cardiac ______

Angina
Sudden cardiac death

226

What are two cardiovascular manifestations of amphetamine toxicity?

[Hypertension/Hypotension]
Cardiac ______ in severe intoxication

Hypertension
Cardiac arrest in severe intoxication

227

What is the treatment for a cocaine overdose?

______

Benzodiazepines

228

Do barbiturates or benzodiazepines have a higher safety margin?

benzodiazepines

These can still cause minor respiratory depression.

229

What life-threatening condition may develop in a patient with alcohol use disorder who has consumed no alcohol for 48 hours?

Delirium tremens

230

What are the symptoms of barbiturate withdrawal?

______
______ collapse

Delirium
Cardiovascular collapse

231

What is the treatment for a benzodiazepine overdose?

______

Flumazenil

232

Flumazenil is a competitive ______ ______ that binds to ______, which is rarely used because it can precipitate ______.

benzodiazepine antagonist

GABA

seizures

233

What two symptoms can be present with benzodiazepine intoxication?

_______ depression
_______

Respiratory depression
Ataxia

234

What are three symptoms of withdrawal from benzodiazepines?

_______ disturbance
_______
_______

Sleep disturbance
Depression
Seizures

235

Intoxication with what substance may cause slurred speech, emotional lability, ataxia, coma, blackouts, and high serum GGT?

Alcohol

236

What is the expected ratio of AST to ALT for a patient that recently consumed alcohol?

2:1

237

What kind of intoxication could cause acute slurred speech, disorientation, drowsiness, abnormal gait, and a perioral rash?

______ intoxication

Inhalant intoxication

238

Which intoxicant is the most likely cause of hyperalertness, fever, fractured teeth, and skin excoriations?

Amphetamines

239

What are three common symptoms of caffeine withdrawal?

_____-like symptoms
_____
Lack of _____

Flu-like symptoms
Headaches
Lack of concentration

240

What is the treatment for agitation and seizures secondary to methamphetamine use?

Benzodiazepines

241

What is the treatment for marked respiratory depression for a patient taking barbituates?

Provide ______ and increase ______ ______ as needed.

Provide ventilation and increase blood pressure as needed.

242

What class of drugs is responsible for the most drug-overdose–related deaths?

Opioids

243

What is the treatment for opioid overdose?

Naloxone

244

What is the most common presentation of acute nicotine intoxication?

Restlessness

245

The following signs and symptoms may be present in a patient intoxicated by which psychoactive drug?

Agitation/violent behavior + psychosis — hallucinations, paranoia, delirium.

Nystagmus — especially horizontal, but can be vertical/rotary.

Sympathetic activationhypertension + tachycardia.

Phencyclidine

246

The following signs and symptoms may be present in a patient intoxicated by which psychoactive drug?

Conjunctival injection
Euphoria
Social withdrawal
Dry mouth
Hallucinations
Paranoia
Slowed time preception
Increased appetite
Worsened judgement

Cannabis

247

The following signs and symptoms may be present in a patient intoxicatied by which psychoactive drug?

Auditory/visual hallucination
Anxiety
Paranoia
Flashbacks that are not disturbing
Mydriasis
Depersonalization

LSD

248

The following nonspecific symptoms may be present in a patient with withdrawal from which class of psychoactive drugs?

Depression / dysphoria / anhedonia

Fatigue + hypersomnia

Increased appetite

Stimulants

249

________ is a stimulant that can lead to diaphoresis, hypertension, tachycardia, severe agitation, and psychosis.

Methamphetamine

250

The following nonspecific symptoms may be present in a patient with withdrawal from which class of psychoactive drugs?

Anxiety
Tremor
Insomnia
Seizures

Depressants

251

The following symptoms may be present in a patient with withdrawal from which psychoactive drug?

Restlessness
Increased appetite/weight
Anxiety
Irritability

Nicotine

252

The following symptoms may be present in a patient with withdrawal from which psychoactive drug?

Hunger
Sleep disturbances
Severe depression
Restlessness

Cocaine

253

The following presentations may be present in a patient intoxicated by which psychoactive drug?

Paranoia
Hallucinations (including tactile)
Impaired judgment
Diaphoresis

Cocaine

254

The following psychiatric symptoms may be present in a patient intoxicated by which psychoactive drug?

Euphoria
Grandiosity
Prolonged wakefulness/attention
Paranoia

Amphetamines

255

The following physical findings may be present in a patient with withdrawal from which psychoactive drug?

Yawning
Sweating
Rhinorrhea
Nausea
Stomach cramps
Diarrhea
Lacrimation
Piloerection
Dilated pupils

Opioids

256

The following symptoms may be present in a patient with withdrawal from which psychoactive drug?

Depression
Anxiety
Fatigue
Appetite changes
Difficulty concentrating

Ecstasy

257

The following signs may be present in a patient intoxicated by which psychoactive drug?

Euphoria
Mydriasis
Hallucinations
Bruxism
Disinhibition
Increased thirst
Distorted sensory and time perception

Ecstasy

258

The following symptoms may be present in a patient with withdrawal from which psychoactive drug?

Dysphoria
Irritability
Sleep disturbance
Headaches

Inhalants

259

The following signs and symptoms may be present in a patient intoxicated by which psychoactive drug?

Decreased respiratory and central nervous system function
Decreased gag reflex
Seizures
Decreased gastrointestinal motility
Euphoria
Pinpoint pupils

Opioids

260

The following symptoms may be present in a patient with withdrawal from which psychoactive drug?

Depression
Insomnia
Vivid dreams
Decreased appetite
Weight loss

Cannabis

261

The following general signs and symptoms may be present in a patient intoxicated by which class of psychoactive drugs?

Decreased appetite
Anxiety
Fast heart rate
Insomnia
Psychomotor agitation
Elevated mood
Cardiac arrhythmias

Stimulants

262

The following general signs and symptoms may be present in a patient intoxicated by which class of psychoactive drugs?

Respiratory depression
Disinhibition
Sedation
Decreased anxiety
Elevated mood

Depressants

263

How can a Pancoast tumor cause sensorimotor deficits in the upper extremity?

By compression of the ______ ______

By compression of the brachial plexus

264

How can a Pancoast tumor cause hoarseness?

By compression of the ______ ______ nerve

By compression of the recurrent laryngeal nerve

265

What three symptoms are typically seen if a Pancoast tumor disrupts the cervical sympathetic plexus at the stellate ganglion?

Ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis

266

What three neurologic structures are commonly compressed by a Pancoast tumor?

____ ____ nerve
____ ganglion
____ ____

Recurrent laryngeal nerve
Stellate ganglion
Brachial plexus

267

What two vascular structures are commonly compressed by a Pancoast tumor?

______ ______ ______
______ vein

Superior vena cava
Brachiocephalic vein

268

brachiocephalic syndrome (caused by compression of a brachiocephalic vein, for example due to Pancoast tumor) can cause ______ ______ of the upper arm, neck, and face.

unilateral congestion

269

superior vena cava syndrome can cause ______, ______ distention, and ______ of the ______ upper extremities, head, and neck

superior vena cava syndrome can cause plethora, venous distention, and edema of the edema upper extremities, head, and neck

270
card image

CT shows _____ tumor, AKA _____ _____ tumor

CT shows Pancoast tumor, AKA superior sulcus tumor

271

Why might a patient with Pancoast tumor have hemidiaphragm elevation on a chest X-ray?

The tumor is compressing the ______ nerve

phrenic

272

Pancoast tumors can cause a brachial plexopathy primarily affecting the _____ nerve distribution, and they may also affect the T2 nerve root.

ulnar

273
card image

What is indicated by the red arrow in the electron micrograph showing an axon in cross-section?

Myelin

274

What does myelin do to an axon's space constant, conduction velocity, membrane resistance, and membrane capacitance?

[Increases/Decreases] space constant
[Increases/Decreases] conduction velocity
[Increases/Decreases] membrane resistance
[Increases/Decreases] membrane capacitance

Increases space constant
Increases conduction velocity
Increases membrane resistance
Decreases membrane capacitance

275

What role does myelin play in neuronal activity?

Myelin forms an ______ sheath around a neuron's axon to [increase/decrease] conduction velocity of action potentials

Myelin forms an insulating sheath around a neuron's axon to increase conduction velocity of action potentials

276

How does myelin increase conduction velocity down an axon?

It promotes ____ conduction at the ____ of ____ where concentrations of ____ channels are high

It promotes saltatory conduction at the nodes of Ranvier where concentrations of Na+ channels are high

277

Which cranial nerves are myelinated as part of the central nervous system and peripheral nervous system?

Central nervous system → Cranial nerve _____
Peripheral nervous system → Cranial nerves _____ to _____

Central nervous system → Cranial nerve II
Peripheral nervous system → Cranial nerves III to XII

278

What could cause a person to always use more drugs than intended despite knowing the dangers and trying to cut down on use?

Substance Use Disorder

279

Aside from the dangerous effects on health, how can a substance use disorder harm a person and their social life?

Recurrent use in _____ dangerous situations
Significant _____ expended in obtaining/using/recovering from the substance
Problems with _____/_____

Recurrent use in physically dangerous situations
Significant energy expended in obtaining/using/recovering from the substance
Problems with work/school

280

What five causes should you include in the differential for any sexual dysfunction disorder?

_____
_____
_____
Insufficient _____ _____
_____

Psychological
Endocrine
Neurogenic
Insufficient blood flow
Substances

281

What 3 symptoms are classically associated with normal pressure hydrocephalus?

Urinary ______
______ apraxia
______ dysfunction

Urinary incontinence
Gait apraxia
Cognitive dysfunction

282
card image

A patient presents with the brain MRI shown. He has symptoms related to stretching of the corona radiata. What is the diagnosis?

normal pressure hydrocephalus

the image shows ventricular expansion leading to stretching of corona radiata

283
card image

A patient with advanced Alzheimer disease presents with the MRI findings shown.

What do you think you are seeing here?

What will a measurement of the patient's ICP reveal?

What does this patient have

I see increased CSF

ICP will be normal.

This patient has ex vacuo ventriculomegaly due to atrophy of brain tissue.

284
card image

What kind of hydrocephalus is likely with the brain MRI finding shown in the image?

Noncommunicating hydrocephalus

This involves structural blockage of cerebrospinal fluid flow.

285

What is the classic gait pattern seen in a patient with enlarged ventricles on brain imaging, urinary incontinence, and cognitive impairment?

_____ gait

Magnetic gait

286

What conditions are associated with ex vacuo ventriculomegaly?

______ disorders that cause brain ______

Neurodegenerative disorders that cause brain atrophy

287

Aqueductal stenosis causes what type of hydrocephalus?

_____ _____

Noncommunicating hydrocephalus

288

Noncommunicating hydrocephalus due to aqueductal stenosis is caused by a structural blockage of cerebrospinal fluid circulation within the _____ system.

ventricular

289

In a patient with normal pressure hydrocephalus, on lumbar puncture, what will the opening pressure measurement be?

_____, however it may be _____ episodically

Normal, however it may be elevated episodically

290

What will a head CT show in an older adult who presents with urinary incontinence, cognitive dysfunction, and gait apraxia?

_____ expansion → Distortion of the fibers of the _____ _____ without an increase in _____ space volume

Ventricular expansion → Distortion of the fibers of the corona radiata without an increase in subarachnoid space volume

291

What is the mechanism by which meningitis can cause a communicating hydrocephalus and subsequent papilledema, herniation, and increased ICP?

Arachnoid ______ after meningitis → Limited CSF ______ via arachnoid ______

Arachnoid scarring after meningitis → Limited CSF absorption via arachnoid granulations

292

How can the symptoms of normal pressure hydrocephalus be reversed?

CSF drainage via _____ _____
CSF _____ placement

CSF drainage via lumbar puncture
CSF shunt placement

293

What are the 3 common causes of noncommunicating hydrocephalus?

Blockage of the _____ of _____ by a colloid cyst
Stenosis of the _____ of _____
_____

Blockage of the foramen of Monro by a colloid cyst
Stenosis of the aqueduct of Sylvius
Tumor

294

What is hydrocephalus?

[Increased/Decreased] CSF volume → Ventricular _____ with/without [increased/decreased] ICP

Increased CSF volume → Ventricular dilation with/without increased ICP

295

What are three common triggers for sleep terror disorders?

______
______ stress
Lack of ______

Fever
Emotional stress
Lack of sleep

296

What waveform is seen on an EEG performed for a patient with sleep terror disorder?

______ waves

Slow waves

297

Slow waves indicate ____ sleep, stage ____

Slow waves indicate deep sleep, stage N3

298

What is the definition of sleep terror disorder?

Episodes of inconsolable ______ accompanied by ______ in the middle of the night

Episodes of inconsolable terror accompanied by screaming in the middle of the night

299

In which population are sleep terror disorders most common?

Children

300

Is a patient with sleep terror disorder likely to remember the arousal episodes the next morning?

No

Patients have no memory of the episode as it occurs during non-REM sleep.

301

In Pavlov's classical conditioning experiment, when you ring a bell, a dog salivates. What is the unconditioned stimulus?

Food

302

In Pavlov's classical conditioning experiment, when you ring a bell, a dog salivates. What is the learned/conditioned stimulus?

Bell

303

What condition is associated with gustatory hallucinations?

______

Epilepsy

304

What type of hallucination is associated with waking from sleep?

Hypnopompic

305

What type of hallucination is associated with falling asleep?

Hypnagogic

306

What two substances, which are frequently abused, are associated with tactile hallucination?

_____

_____

Alcohol

Cocaine

307

What two conditions are associated with olfactory hallucinations?

____ tumors
____ ____ epilepsy

Brain tumors

Temporal lobe epilepsy

308

What kind of speech consists of words and ideas strung together based on sounds, puns, or loose associations?

_____ speech

Disorganized speech

309

Define psychosis.

______ perception of reality marked by hallucinations, delusions, and/or disorganized thought and/or speech

distorted

310

Define delusion.

A fixed, untrue, _____ belief, persisting despite evidence against it, that is not typical of an individual's _____ or _____

A fixed, untrue, idiosyncratic belief, persisting despite evidence against it, that is not typical of an individual's religion or culture

311

[Men/Women] attempt suicide more often.

[Men/Women] complete suicide more often.

Women

Men

312

What is the greatest risk factor for suicide?

Previous _____

Previous attempt

313

What is the most common method of suicide in the United States?

_____

firearms

314

Does family history of suicide completion affect a person's risk of suicide completion?

Yes

315

What are some of the protective factors for patients at risk for suicide completion?

Effective treatment of _______
Sense of _______ with others
Religious/cultural beliefs directed toward self-_______
Strong ____-____ skills

Effective treatment of comorbidities
Sense of connectedness with others
Religious/cultural beliefs directed toward self-preservation
Strong problem-solving skills

316

What is the first-line treatment for schizophrenia?

Atypical antipsychotics

317

schizophrenia's positive and negative symptoms stop with management?

no, negative symptoms often persist after treatment.

318

How does schizophrenia affect dopaminergic activity and dendritic branching?

[Increases/Decreases] dopaminergic activity
[Increases/Decreases] dendritic branching

Increases dopaminergic activity
Decreases dendritic branching

319

Is schizophrenia more likely to be diagnosed in males or females?

Males

320

What could be the cause of delusions, hallucinations, and catatonia lasting for 6 months with symptoms of a mood disorder?

_____ disorder

Schizoaffective disorder

321

Name five positive symptoms of schizophrenia.

_____
_____
_____ speech
Evidence of _____ thought processes
_____ behavior

Delusions
Hallucinations
Disorganized speech
Evidence of unusual thought processes
Strange behavior

322

What is the most likely cause of hallucinations and delusions lasting between 1 day and 1 month?

______ ______ disorder

Brief psychotic disorder

323

List the five negative symptoms of schizophrenia.

______/______ affect
______from social activity
______
______
______

Blunted/flat affect
Withdrawal from social activity
Avolition
Anhedonia
Alogia

324

how long do brief psychotic disorder, schizophreniform disorder, and schizophrenia each last?

Brief psychotic disorder lasts < 1 month.
Schizophreniform disorder lasts 1 to 6 months.
Schizophrenia lasts > 6 months.

325

How many symptoms are required to diagnose brief psychotic disorder, schizophreniform disorder, and schizophrenia?

Brief psychotic disorder → [...] or more positive symptoms for < [...] month
Schizophreniform disorder → [...] or more symptoms
Schizophrenia → [...] or more symptoms

Brief psychotic disorder → 1 or more positive symptoms for < 1 month
Schizophreniform disorder → 2 or more symptoms
Schizophrenia → 2 or more symptoms

326

For a diagnosis of schizophrenia to be made, periods of psychosis and disturbed behavior/thought leading to functional decline must last for how long?

At least [...] month(s) during the past [...] months or longer

At least 1 month(s) during the past 6 months or longer

327

Is general function impaired in a patient with delusional disorder?

No

328

Heavy use of which drug in adolescence is associated with incidence and worsened course of psychotic, mood, and anxiety disorders?

Cannabis

329

What would you expect to find on brain imaging performed for a patient with schizophrenia?

ventriculomegaly

330

Which personality disorder is included on the schizophrenia spectrum?

_____ personality disorder

Schizotypal personality disorder

331

What are the cognitive symptoms of schizophrenia spectrum disorders?
______
Decreased ______ memory
Reduced ability to comprehend or create ______

Inattention
Decreased working memory
Reduced ability to comprehend or create plans

332

What neurochemical changes are associated with schizophrenia?

[Increased/Decreased] dopaminergic activity
[Increased/Decreased] serotonergic activity

Increased dopaminergic activity
Increased serotonergic activity

333

What criteria are required for a diagnosis of schizophrenia?

≥ 2 of the following active symptoms, including ≥ 1 from the first 3 symptoms:

_____
_____
_____ speech
_____/_____ behavior
[Positive/Negative] symptoms

Delusions
Hallucinations
Disorganized speech
Disorganized/catatonic behavior
Negative symptoms

334

What are the criteria for a diagnosis of schizophreniform disorder?
≥ 2 of the following symptoms:
______
______
______ speech
______/______ behavior
[Positive/Negative] symptoms lasting for [...] to [...] months

Delusions
Hallucinations
Disorganized speech
Disorganized/catatonic behavior
Negative symptoms lasting for 1 to 6 months

335

In patients with schizophrenia, how does age at onset compare in males and females?

Schizophrenia presents at a(n) [older/younger] age in males when compared with females

younger

336

In what disorder is "la belle indifférence" seen?

______ disorder

Conversion disorder

337

What is a somatic symptom disorder?

One or more _____ complaints that last for _____ month(s) to _____ years

One or more physical complaints that last for 1 month(s) to several years

338

Patients with what disorder demonstrate anxiety about having a disease, despite lack of symptoms, multiple evaluations showing no evidence, and many attempts at reassurance?

_____ _____ disorder

Ilness anxiety disorder

339

What form of somatic symptoms and related disorders presents with unexplained loss of motor or sensory function following an acute stressor?

______ disorder

Conversion disorder

340

Identify the three groups in which conversion disorder is most common.

[Males/Females]
_____
[Older/Younger] adults

Females
Adolescents
Younger adults

341

What treatment options are available for somatic symptom disorder?

_____ visits with the same _____ along with _____

Regular visits with the same physician along with psychotherapy

342

What is another name for conversion disorder?

_____ _____ symptom disorder

Functional neurologic symptom disorder

343

Somatic symptom disorder → ≥ ___ bodily complaint lasting from ___ to ___
Illness anxiety disorder → ___ or ___ somatic symptoms

Somatic symptom disorder → ≥ 1 bodily complaint lasting from months to years
Illness anxiety disorder → Few or no somatic symptoms

344

What are three motivational strategies for the precontemplation stage of the transtheoretical model of change?

Remind the patient that the ____ is available for them
Remind the patient of their own ____ when explaining risks
Encourage the patient to be ____

Remind the patient that the physician is available for them
Remind the patient of their own priorities when explaining risks
Encourage the patient to be introspective

345

What are two motivational strategies for the contemplation stage of the transtheoretical model of change?

Suggest different ways to _____ behavioral change
Discuss the _____ and _____ of behavior change to support the healthy behavior

Suggest different ways to support behavioral change
Discuss the pros and cons of behavior change to support the healthy behavior

346

What are three motivational strategies for the preparation/determination stage of the transtheoretical model of change?

_____ the first steps of change
Promote _____ for good results
Ensure the patient is aware of _____ to help planning

Encourage the first steps of change
Promote expectations for good results
Ensure the patient is aware of resources to help planning

347

What are two motivational strategies for the action/willpower stage of the transtheoretical model of change?

Assist with strategies to ____ with situations that trigger old behaviors
Promote ____-____

Assist with strategies to cope with situations that trigger old behaviors
Promote self-efficacy

348

What are three motivational strategies for the maintenance stage of the transtheoretical model of change?

_____ good habits
[Positive/Negative] reinforcement for good behavior
Decrease _____ risk

Reinforce good habits
Positive reinforcement for good behavior
Decrease relapse risk

349

What are two motivational strategies for the relapse stage of the transtheoretical model of change?

_____ the patient to return to good habits
Provide _____ that goals are achievable

Encourage the patient to return to good habits
Provide reassurance that goals are achievable

350

What four symptoms would you expect in a patient with post-traumatic stress disorder?

Persistent [hyperarousal/hypoarousal]
_____ of trauma-related stimuli
_____ of event
Distress lasting > [...] month(s)

Persistent hyperarousal
Avoidance of trauma-related stimuli
Re-experiencing of event
Distress lasting > 1 month(s)

351

What is the treatment for acute stress disorder?

Cognitive behavioral therapy

352

What are the three first-line treatments for post-traumatic stress disorder?
_____ _____ therapy

_____

_____

Cognitive behavioral therapy
SSRIs
Venlafaxine

353

What is the definition of adjustment disorder?

A patient experiences emotional and/or behavioral symptoms within ____ months of an identified ____ stressor with symptoms lasting less than ____ months

A patient experiences emotional and/or behavioral symptoms within 3 months of an identified psychosocial stressor with symptoms lasting less than 6 months

354

What is the treatment for adjustment disorder?

CBT

355

What is the medication treatment for nightmares in a patient with post-traumatic stress disorder?

Prazosin

356

Exposure to what types of experiences may result in post-traumatic stress disorder?

_____ experience
Discovering that a loved one has experienced _____ events

Direct experience
Discovering that a loved one has experienced traumatic events

357

What is the mechanism of action of mirtazapine?

Mirtazapine inhibits the ____-adrenergic receptor

Mirtazapine inhibits the α2-adrenergic receptor

358

What are 4 common side effects of mirtazapine?

Weight ______
Increased ______
______
______ ______

Weight gain
Increased appetite
Sedation
Dry mouth

359

does α₂-adrenergic receptors increase or decrease nori?

decrease

360

What changes in neurotransmitter levels are expected when a patient takes a MAOI?

Blockage of _____ _____ → Increased levels of _____, _____, and _____

Blockage of monoamine oxidase → Increased levels of serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine

361

What are the 4 MAO inhibitors? (PITS)

_____
_____
_____
_____

Phenelzine
Isocarboxazid
Tranylcypromine
Selegiline

362

_____ _____ breaks down serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine into metabolites.

Monoamine oxidase

363

Which three classes of antidepressants act by inhibiting norepinephrine reuptake?

[...]
[...]
[...]

TCAs
SNRIs
Bupropion

364

Which four classes of antidepressants act by inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin?

[...]
[...]
[...]
[...]

TCAs
Trazodone
SSRIs
SNRIs

365

Name two high-potency typical antipsychotics that don't have the suffix trick!

________, ________

Haloperidol, Pimozide

366

What types of meds are these?

Trifluoperazine, Fluphenazine, Thioridazine, Chlorpromazine

typical antipsychotics

notice the "-azine" suffix

367

What are the adverse effects of higher potency antipsychotics such as haloperidol, trifluoperazine, and fluphenazine?

_____ effects

Neurologic effects

368

What are the ophthalmologic adverse effects of chlorpromazine?

____ deposits

Corneal deposits

369

What are the ophthalmologic adverse effects of thioridazine?

____ deposits

Retinal deposits

370

Which two typical antipsychotics are considered low-potency drugs?

_____azine
_____azine

Chlorpromazine
Thioridazine

371

What adverse effects are more common with low-potency typical antipsychotics?

______ effects
Anti-______-adrenergic effects
______ effects

Antihistaminic effects
Anti-α1-adrenergic effects
Antimuscarinic effects

372

What could be the cause of a prolonged QT interval in a patient treated for schizophrenia?

The use of ______ or ______ ______

The use of typical or atypical antipsychotics

373

What is the reason for the long half-life of antipsychotics?

They are ______ soluble and stored in ______

They are lipid soluble and stored in fat

374

Put the following extrapyramidal symptoms in the order in which they occur.

Tardive dyskinesia
Akathisia
Dystonia
Bradykinesia

Hours to days → [...]
Days to months → [...] and/or [...]
Months to years → [...]

Hours to days → Dystonia
Days to months → Akathisia and/or bradykinesia
Months to years → Tardive dyskinesia

375

A patient treated with antipsychotics develops difficulty sitting still and paces frequently. What is the adverse effect?

Akathisia

376

Through what mechanism do atypical antipsychotics cause dry mouth, constipation, and sedation?

______ effects
______ effects

Antimuscarinic effects
Antihistaminic effects

377

By what mechanism do typical antipsychotics cause hypotension?

_____-blockade

α1-blockade

378

What extrapyramidal adverse effect of antipsychotics is irreversible?

______ ______

Tardive dyskinesia

379

What adverse effect of antipsychotic medications involves sluggishness in initiating purposeful movement days to months after the drug is taken?

Bradykinesia

380

Describe the mechanism by which antipsychotics cause galactorrhea.

Antipsychotics antagonize ____ receptors → Disinhibition of ____ → Hyperprolactinemia and galactorrhea

Antipsychotics antagonize dopamine receptors → Disinhibition of prolactin → Hyperprolactinemia and galactorrhea

381

In what two scenarios can treatment with clozapine be considered?

Treatment-resistant ______ disorders
Persistent ______

Treatment-resistant psychotic disorders
Persistent suicidality

382

Which two antipsychotic medications have the highest risk for metabolic disturbances?

______

______

Clozapine
Olanzapine

383

What blood test should be ordered when a patient is given a new prescription for clozapine?

CBC

384

Clozapine CBC: This is to monitor absolute neutrophil count because clozapine can cause _________.

agranulocytosis

385

What are four clinical uses for antipsychotics apart form schizophrenia?

______ disorder
______ ______ disorder
______ disease
______ syndrome

Bipolar disorder
Obsessive-compulsive disorder
Huntington disease
Tourette syndrome

386

[Typical/Atypical] antipsychotics treat positive symptoms
[Typical/Atypical] antipsychotics can treat both positive and negative symptoms

Typical antipsychotics treat positive symptoms
Atypical antipsychotics can treat both positive and negative symptoms

387

How is the mechanism of action of aripiprazole unique in comparison with other antipsychotics?

Aripiprazole is a _____ partial agonist

Aripiprazole is a D2 partial agonist

388

What major receptors are affected by antipsychotic medications?

_____ receptors are blocked by antipsychotics → Increased _____

D2 receptors are blocked by antipsychotics → Increased cAMP

389

What is the treatment for akathisia?

_____-blockers
_____
_____

β-blockers
Benztropine
Benzodiazepines

390

Between typical and atypical antipsychotics, which class has a greater affinity for the dopamine receptor?

Typical

391

What are four treatments for tardive dyskinesia?

_____
_____ toxin injections
_____
_____

Benzodiazepines
Botulinum toxin injections
Valbenazine
Deutetrabenazine

392

What are the 4 side effects vortioxetine (atypical antidepressant)?

_____ (common)
_____ effects
_____ disturbances
_____ dysfunction

Nausea (common)
Anticholinergic effects
Sleep disturbances
Sexual dysfunction

393

What is the mechanism of action of vortioxetine?

___-___ reuptake inhibitor
___-___ receptor antagonist
___-___ receptor agonist

5-HT reuptake inhibitor
5-HT3 receptor antagonist
5-HT1A receptor agonist

394

What is the major adverse effect of varenicline?

______ disturbance

sleep disturbance

395

What is the mechanism of action of varenicline?

Partial agonist at the ______ ______ receptor

Partial agonist at the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor

396

Varenicline helps nicotine ______ decline.

cravings

397

Which atypical antidepressant has stimulant properties and a lower risk of sexual side effects and weight gain?

______

Bupropion

398

What is the mechanism of action of bupropion?

Inhibits reuptake of ______
Inhibits reuptake of ______

Inhibits reuptake of norepinephrine
Inhibits reuptake of dopamine

399

Why is trazodone primarily used for insomnia and not depression?

Trazodone causes ______, which is desirable in the treatment of insomnia

Trazodone causes sedation, which is desirable in the treatment of insomnia

400

What is the mechanism of action of trazodone?

Trazadone blocks [...], [...], and [...] receptors
Weakly inhibits _____ reuptake

Trazadone blocks 5-HT2, H1, and α1-adrenergic receptors
Weakly inhibits serotonin reuptake

401

What are the 4 major side effects of trazodone?

Postural ______
______
______
______

Postural hypotension
Nausea
Sedation
Priapism

402

Lyonization (also called X-chromosome inactivation) is a natural genetic process in female mammals where one of their two X chromosomes is randomly _____ in _____ cell during _____ development.

inactivated

every

embryonic

403

What is the main function of the pineal gland?

_____ secretion

Melatonin secretion

404

What is the mechanism of action of vilazodone?

Partial agonist at [...] receptors
[...] receptor antagonist

Partial agonist at 5-HT1A receptors
5-HT3 receptor antagonist

405

Which 2 atypical antidepressants are used for smoking cessation?

_____

_____

Bupropion
Varenicline

406

Which atypical antidepressant may be suitable for an underweight patient?

_____

Mirtazapine

407

What is the primary clinical indication for prescribing buspirone?

GAD

408

What is the mechanism of action of buspirone?

[...] receptor partial agoinst

5-HT1A receptor partial agoinst

409

How long after a patient starts taking buspirone does it begin to take effect?

___ to ___ weeks

1 to 2 weeks

410

What is the advantage of buspirone when compared with other anti-anxiety medications such as benzodiazepines and barbiturates?

Buspirone does not cause _____, _____, or _____
Buspirone does not interact with _____

Buspirone does not cause tolerance, sedation, or addiction
Buspirone does not interact with alcohol

411

What three conditions can central nervous system stimulants be used to treat?

______-______ disorder
______-______ ______ disorder
______

Binge-eating disorder
Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder
Narcolepsy

412

What is the mechanism of action of central nervous system stimulants?

They increase ______ release at the synaptic cleft

They increase catecholamine release at the synaptic cleft

413

What are four central nervous system stimulants?

________
________
________
________

Dextroamphetamine
Methylphenidate
Lisdexamfetamine
Methamphetamine

414

Why does lithium require close monitoring of serum levels?

Lithium has a [wide/narrow] therapeutic window

Lithium has a narrow therapeutic window

415

What are four common side effects of lithium use?

[Hyperthyroidism/Hypothyroidism]
_____ anomaly
_____ _____ _____
_____

Hypothyroidism
Ebstein anomaly
Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
Tremor

416

What is the mechanism of lithium reabsorption in the kidney?

It is reabsorbed at the proximal convoluted tubule along with _____ through _____ channels

It is reabsorbed at the proximal convoluted tubule along with Na+ through Na+ channels

417

How does lithium adversely affect the thyroid?

_____
_____

Hypothyroidism
Hyperthyroidism

418

What is the mechanism by which lithium causes polyuria?

Lithium inhibits _____ function at the level of the kidney → _____ _____ _____

Lithium inhibits ADH function at the level of the kidney → Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

419

What three drug classes are often implicated in affecting lithium clearance?

_____ inhibitors
_____ diuretics
_____

ACE inhibitors
Thiazide diuretics
NSAIDs

420

Which organ almost exclusively excretes lithium? _____

Kidneys

421

How does lithium affect calcium levels?

Lithium causes mild [hypercalcemia/hypocalcemia]

Lithium causes mild hypercalcemia

422

Intravenous drug use increases a patient's risk for which diseases?

Infectious diseases including ____, ____, and ____
____
Right-sided infective ____
____

Infectious diseases including HBV, HIV, and HCV
Abscesses
Right-sided infective endocarditis
Bacteremia

423

How is methadone used in the treatment of patients with substance use disorder?

Methadone is a long-acting _____ that is used for _____ from heroin and long-term _____ therapy

Methadone is a long-acting opioid that is used for detoxification from heroin and long-term maintenance therapy

424

How is naltrexone used in the treatment of patients with substance use disorder and what is its mechanism of action?

It is used to prevent _____ after _____ _____
It is a long-acting oral _____ _____

It is used to prevent relapse after opioid detoxification
It is a long-acting oral opioid antagonist

425

What is the mechanism of action of buprenorphine and how is it used in the treatment of patients with substance use disorder?

Partial ______ agonist
It is administered in the form of a sublingual film for ______ therapy and suppression of ______

Partial opioid agonist
It is administered in the form of a sublingual film for maintenance therapy and suppression of withdrawal

426

What adverse effect may occur when buprenorphine is taken shortly after a full opioid agonist by an opioid-dependent individual?

Precipitation of ______ symptoms

Precipitation of withdrawal symptoms

427

Apart from opioid detoxification, what are the other uses for naltrexone?

Weight _____
Cessation of _____ or _____ use

Weight loss
Cessation of alcohol or nicotine use

428

Which adverse effects can be caused by nicotine replacement therapy?

Oral _____
_____

Oral irritation

Headaches

429

Which smoking cessation drug acts as a partial agonist at nicotinic acetylcholine receptors to decrease withdrawal and effects on the reward system?

Varenicline

430

Name two common side effects of varenicline.

_____ disturbances
_____ discomfort

Sleep disturbances
Gastrointestinal discomfort