Pharm 13 Flashcards


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1

In heart failure pharmacology, many drugs help a weak heart by doing which overall action?

A) Increasing edema formation

B) Increasing venous return

C) Lowering cardiac stress

D) Increasing vascular resistance

C. Lowering cardiac stress

2

Which group from the notes mainly increases cardiac work or contractility rather than lowering workload?

A) Digoxin, dobutamine, milrinone

B) Thiazides, nitrates, SGLT2 inhibitors

C) ACE inhibitors, ARBs, beta blockers

D) Hydralazine, nitroprusside, nesiritide

A. Digoxin, dobutamine, milrinone

3

A patient with heart failure receives furosemide for edema. Which transporter is directly blocked?

A) Na/Cl transporter

B) SGLT2 transporter

C) Na/K/2Cl transporter

D) Na/K ATPase

C. Na/K/2Cl transporter

4

Furosemide acts primarily in which nephron segment?

A) Thick ascending limb

B) Proximal tubule

C) Collecting tubule

D) Distal convoluted tubule

A. Thick ascending limb

5

Furosemide helps heart failure edema by producing which effect?

A) Salt and water retention

B) Salt and water removal

C) Increased afterload only

D) Increased remodeling

B. Salt and water removal

6

By removing extra salt and water, furosemide decreases which cardiac loading variable?

A) Contractility

B) Afterload

C) Preload

D) Heart rate

C. Preload

7

Furosemide decreases preload because it reduces which variable?

A) Venous return

B) AV conduction

C) Cardiac calcium

D) Vascular remodeling

A. Venous return

8

Which heart failure symptom is directly improved by furosemide-mediated salt and water removal?

A) Edema

B) Arrhythmia

C) Bradycardia

D) Lupus

A. Edema

9

A weak heart benefits from furosemide because reduced preload causes which effect?

A) More ventricular stress

B) Less cardiac workload

C) More sodium reabsorption

D) More venous congestion

B. Less cardiac workload

10

Empagliflozin and dapagliflozin belong to which heart failure drug class?

A) Loop diuretics

B) SGLT2 inhibitors

C) ACE inhibitors

D) Cardiac glycosides

B. SGLT2 inhibitors

11

Which name clue helps identify empagliflozin and dapagliflozin?

A) “flozin” ending

B) “sartan” ending

C) “olol” ending

D) “one” ending

A. “flozin” ending

12

SGLT2 inhibitors act primarily in which nephron segment?

A) Collecting tubule

B) Distal convoluted tubule

C) Thick ascending limb

D) Proximal tubule

D. Proximal tubule

13

Empagliflozin decreases reabsorption of which substances?

A) Calcium and chloride

B) Sodium and glucose

C) Potassium and hydrogen

D) Urea and water

B. Sodium and glucose

14

Dapagliflozin helps heart failure by promoting removal of what?

A) Salt and water

B) Calcium and protein

C) Renin and ACE

D) BNP and cGMP

A. Salt and water

15

SGLT2 inhibitor therapy reduces preload by decreasing which variable?

A) Contractility

B) Venous return

C) AV conduction

D) Platelet count

B. Venous return

16

Which heart failure problem is improved by SGLT2 inhibitor-related fluid removal?

A) Edema

B) Tachyarrhythmia

C) Lupus-like syndrome

D) AV node conduction

A. Edema

17

A heart failure patient receives dapagliflozin. Which mechanism best explains its benefit?

A) Blocks beta receptors

B) Blocks SGLT2 transport

C) Releases nitric oxide

D) Inhibits PDE-3

B. Blocks SGLT2 transport

18

Hydrochlorothiazide lowers fluid burden by blocking which transporter?

A) Na/K ATPase

B) Na/Cl transporter

C) Na/K/2Cl transporter

D) SGLT2 transporter

B. Na/Cl transporter

19

Thiazide diuretics act mainly in which nephron segment?

A) Proximal tubule

B) Collecting tubule

C) Loop of Henle

D) Distal convoluted tubule

D. Distal convoluted tubule

20

Hydrochlorothiazide helps heart failure mainly by removing which substances?

A) Salt and water

B) Calcium and protein

C) Angiotensin and renin

D) cAMP and cGMP

A. Salt and water

21

Thiazide-mediated fluid removal decreases which cardiac loading condition?

A) Preload

B) Contractility

C) Remodeling

D) AV conduction

A. Preload

22

Spironolactone and eplerenone belong to which heart failure drug class?

A) ACE inhibitors

B) Beta blockers

C) Aldosterone antagonists

D) SGLT2 inhibitors

C. Aldosterone antagonists

23

Which name clue helps identify spironolactone and eplerenone?

A) “flozin” ending

B) “pril” ending

C) “sartan” ending

D) “one” ending

D. “one” ending

24

Aldosterone antagonists block receptors in which nephron region?

A) Collecting tubules

B) Proximal tubule

C) Thick ascending limb

D) Distal convoluted tubule

A. Collecting tubules

25

Spironolactone helps heart failure by promoting which overall effect?

A) Sodium and water removal

B) Calcium entry increase

C) Beta-1 stimulation

D) cAMP breakdown

A. Sodium and water removal

26

Aldosterone antagonists reduce preload because they decrease which variable?

A) Venous return

B) Contractility

C) AV node conduction

D) cGMP signaling

A. Venous return

27

Which listed heart failure drugs block aldosterone receptors?

A) Captopril and losartan

B) Empagliflozin and dapagliflozin

C) Spironolactone and eplerenone

D) Dobutamine and milrinone

C. Spironolactone and eplerenone

28

Captopril directly inhibits which enzyme?

A) Renin

B) ACE

C) PDE-3

D) Na/K ATPase

B. ACE

29

ACE inhibition decreases formation of which molecule?

A) Angiotensin II

B) Dopamine

C) BNP

D) cGMP

A. Angiotensin II

30

Captopril helps heart failure by decreasing which two harmful effects?

A) Vasoconstriction and aldosterone

B) Contractility and perfusion

C) Diuresis and vasodilation

D) cGMP and BNP

A. Vasoconstriction and aldosterone

31

ACE inhibitors decrease afterload mainly by reducing which process?

A) Vasoconstriction

B) Glucose excretion

C) AV node conduction

D) Platelet breakdown

A. Vasoconstriction

32

ACE inhibitors decrease preload partly by reducing which hormone effect?

A) Aldosterone

B) Insulin

C) Glucagon

D) Thyroxine

A. Aldosterone

33

Why does reduced afterload help a weak ventricle?

A) It increases resistance strongly

B) It makes pumping easier

C) It increases edema formation

D) It worsens remodeling

B. It makes pumping easier

34

ACE inhibitors help heart failure partly by reducing which long-term harmful process?

A) Bronchoconstriction

B) Remodeling

C) Thrombocytopenia

D) Visual changes

B. Remodeling

35

Losartan belongs to which heart failure drug class?

A) ACE inhibitor

B) Beta blocker

C) Angiotensin II receptor blocker

D) Cardiac glycoside

C. Angiotensin II receptor blocker

36

Which name clue helps identify losartan and related ARBs?

A) “olol” ending

B) “flozin” ending

C) “sartan” ending

D) “pril” ending

C. “sartan” ending

37

Angiotensin receptor blockers improve heart failure by decreasing which effect?

A) Vasoconstriction

B) Diuresis

C) Calcium retention

D) Bradycardia

A. Vasoconstriction

38

ARBs help heart failure by decreasing which disease process?

A) Ototoxicity

B) Remodeling

C) Constipation

D) Thrombocytopenia

B. Remodeling

39

Compared with ACE inhibitors, ARBs are associated with less of which adverse effect?

A) Cough

B) Edema

C) Tachycardia

D) Hypotension

A. Cough

40

Which statement best compares losartan with captopril in heart failure?

A) Similar benefit, less cough

B) More cough, less benefit

C) Only increases contractility

D) Only treats arrhythmias

A. Similar benefit, less cough

41

Carvedilol, metoprolol, bisoprolol, and nebivolol belong to which class?

A) Beta blockers

B) ACE inhibitors

C) Cardiac glycosides

D) Bipyridines

A. Beta blockers

42

Beta blockers help chronic heart failure by reducing which harmful drive?

A) Sympathetic overstimulation

B) Proximal glucose uptake

C) BNP receptor activation

D) Nitric oxide signaling

A. Sympathetic overstimulation

43

Beta blockers improve chronic heart failure by causing which heart rate effect?

A) Slows heart rate

B) Speeds heart rate

C) Stops AV conduction completely

D) Has no heart effect

A. Slows heart rate

44

Beta blockers improve survival in chronic heart failure partly by decreasing what?

A) Remodeling

B) Diuresis

C) Cyanide toxicity

D) Sodium current

A. Remodeling

45

Which beta blocker listed for heart failure also blocks alpha receptors?

A) Carvedilol

B) Metoprolol

C) Bisoprolol

D) Nebivolol

A. Carvedilol

46

Which listed heart failure beta blocker is beta-1 selective?

A) Hydralazine

B) Metoprolol

C) Losartan

D) Nesiritide

B. Metoprolol

47

Beta blockers are especially useful in which heart failure setting from the notes?

A) Chronic heart failure

B) Acute cyanide toxicity

C) Immediate inotrope rescue

D) Severe thrombocytopenia

A. Chronic heart failure

48

Digoxin belongs to which drug class?

A) Cardiac glycoside

B) SGLT2 inhibitor

C) Bipyridine

D) ARB

A. Cardiac glycoside

49

Digoxin directly inhibits which membrane pump?

A) Na/K ATPase

B) Na/Cl transporter

C) SGLT2 transporter

D) Na/K/2Cl transporter

A. Na/K ATPase

50

Inhibition of Na/K ATPase by digoxin increases which intracellular ion?

A) Sodium only

B) Calcium

C) Chloride

D) Magnesium

B. Calcium

51

Digoxin helps heart failure mainly by increasing which cardiac property?

A) Contractility

B) Preload

C) Afterload

D) Remodeling

A. Contractility

52

Digoxin is also useful in atrial fibrillation because it slows which conduction pathway?

A) AV node conduction

B) SA node automaticity

C) His-Purkinje conduction

D) Ventricular repolarization

A. AV node conduction

53

Which adverse effect is most associated with digoxin toxicity in the notes?

A) Arrhythmias

B) Cyanide toxicity

C) Lupus-like syndrome

D) Thrombocytopenia

A. Arrhythmias

54

A heart failure patient with atrial fibrillation receives digoxin. Which combined benefit is expected?

A) More contractility, slower AV conduction

B) Less contractility, faster AV conduction

C) More preload, less contractility

D) Less cAMP, more congestion

A. More contractility, slower AV conduction

55

Which drug increases intracellular Ca2+ by inhibiting Na/K ATPase?

A) Dobutamine

B) Digoxin

C) Milrinone

D) Nesiritide

B. Digoxin

56

Hydralazine belongs to which heart failure drug category in the notes?

A) Arteriolar dilator

B) Cardiac glycoside

C) Natriuretic peptide

D) SGLT2 inhibitor

A. Arteriolar dilator

57

Hydralazine increases which signaling pathway?

A) Nitric oxide signaling

B) Beta-1 signaling

C) BNP signaling

D) Sodium-glucose signaling

A. Nitric oxide signaling

58

Hydralazine helps heart failure by decreasing which loading variable?

A) Afterload

B) Preload

C) Contractility

D) AV conduction

A. Afterload

59

Why does decreased afterload help a weak ventricle pump?

A) Less resistance opposes ejection

B) More edema reaches ventricles

C) Less calcium enters cells

D) More sodium is retained

A. Less resistance opposes ejection

60

Which side effect is associated with hydralazine?

A) Reflex tachycardia

B) Cyanide toxicity

C) Thrombocytopenia

D) Visual brightness

A. Reflex tachycardia

61

A patient taking hydralazine develops facial warmth and head pain. Which side effect pair best fits?

A) Headache and flushing

B) Cough and angioedema

C) Bradycardia and vision

D) Edema and cyanosis

A. Headache and flushing

62

Hydralazine can cause which autoimmune-like adverse effect?

A) Lupus-like syndrome

B) Guillain-Barré syndrome

C) Myasthenic syndrome

D) Nephrotic syndrome

A. Lupus-like syndrome

63

Nitroprusside is best described as which type of heart failure vasodilator?

A) Pure arteriolar dilator

B) Pure venous dilator

C) Combined arterial and venous dilator

D) Pure renal tubule dilator

C. Combined arterial and venous dilator

64

Nitroprusside directly releases which mediator?

A) Nitric oxide

B) Angiotensin II

C) Aldosterone

D) Dopamine

A. Nitric oxide

65

Nitroprusside helps acute heart failure by rapidly decreasing which loading variables?

A) Preload and afterload

B) Contractility and calcium

C) Heart rate and rhythm

D) AV conduction and remodeling

A. Preload and afterload

66

Nitroprusside decreases congestion mainly by reducing which variable?

A) Preload

B) Contractility

C) Platelet count

D) AV conduction

A. Preload

67

Nitroprusside improves forward pumping by reducing which variable?

A) Afterload

B) Calcium

C) cAMP

D) AV conduction

A. Afterload

68

Which heart failure setting best matches nitroprusside use in these notes?

A) Acute heart failure

B) Chronic remodeling prevention

C) Stable outpatient edema only

D) Atrial fibrillation rate control

A. Acute heart failure

69

Which toxicity is associated with nitroprusside?

A) Cyanide toxicity

B) Lupus-like syndrome

C) Bronchoconstriction

D) Gynecomastia

A. Cyanide toxicity

70

Which additional toxicity is associated with nitroprusside?

A) Thiocyanate toxicity

B) Ototoxicity

C) Visual brightness

D) Constipation

A. Thiocyanate toxicity

71

A patient on nitroprusside develops a dangerous BP drop. Which adverse effect is this?

A) Severe hypotension

B) Bradycardia only

C) Hyperkalemia only

D) Reflex hypertension

A. Severe hypotension

72

Which side effect set best matches nitroprusside?

A) Cyanide toxicity, thiocyanate toxicity, severe hypotension

B) Bradycardia, bronchoconstriction, survival benefit

C) Arrhythmias, AV slowing, constipation

D) Lupus-like syndrome, flushing, thrombocytopenia

A. Cyanide toxicity, thiocyanate toxicity, severe hypotension

73

Dobutamine belongs to which drug category?

A) Beta-adrenoceptor agonist

B) ACE inhibitor

C) Natriuretic peptide

D) Cardiac glycoside

A. Beta-adrenoceptor agonist

74

Dobutamine primarily activates which receptor?

A) Beta-1 receptor

B) Alpha-1 receptor

C) D1 receptor

D) BNP receptor

A. Beta-1 receptor

75

Beta-1 agonism by dobutamine increases which second messenger?

A) cAMP

B) cGMP

C) IP3

D) DAG

A. cAMP

76

Dobutamine helps acute decompensated heart failure by increasing which cardiac property?

A) Contractility

B) Preload

C) Afterload

D) Remodeling

A. Contractility

77

Dobutamine temporarily improves which hemodynamic outcome?

A) Cardiac output

B) Venous congestion

C) Aldosterone release

D) Sodium retention

A. Cardiac output

78

Which heart failure setting best matches dobutamine use in the notes?

A) Acute decompensated heart failure

B) Chronic outpatient remodeling prevention

C) Isolated edema without low output

D) Stable hypertension without symptoms

A. Acute decompensated heart failure

79

Which adverse effect is associated with dobutamine?

A) Tachycardia

B) Lupus-like syndrome

C) Cyanide toxicity

D) Thrombocytopenia

A. Tachycardia

80

Dobutamine can trigger which rhythm-related adverse effect?

A) Arrhythmias

B) AV slowing

C) Bradycardia

D) QT shortening

A. Arrhythmias

81

Why can dobutamine be risky in ischemic patients?

A) Increases myocardial oxygen demand

B) Decreases contractility too much

C) Blocks coronary vasodilation

D) Causes severe sodium retention

A. Increases myocardial oxygen demand

82

Milrinone belongs to which drug category?

A) Bipyridine

B) Cardiac glycoside

C) ARB

D) Loop diuretic

A. Bipyridine

83

Milrinone directly inhibits which enzyme?

A) PDE-3

B) ACE

C) Renin

D) Na/K ATPase

A. PDE-3

84

PDE-3 inhibition by milrinone causes which intracellular effect?

A) Decreased cAMP breakdown

B) Increased cAMP breakdown

C) Decreased cGMP formation

D) Increased Na/K ATPase activity

A. Decreased cAMP breakdown

85

Milrinone helps acute heart failure by increasing contractility and causing what else?

A) Vasodilation

B) Sodium retention

C) AV node slowing

D) Glucose reabsorption

A. Vasodilation

86

Milrinone improves output partly by increasing which cardiac property?

A) Contractility

B) Preload

C) Edema

D) Remodeling

A. Contractility

87

Milrinone decreases afterload through which effect?

A) Vasodilation

B) Venoconstriction

C) Aldosterone release

D) Beta blockade

A. Vasodilation

88

Which adverse effect is associated with milrinone?

A) Arrhythmias

B) Cyanide toxicity

C) Lupus-like syndrome

D) Cough

A. Arrhythmias

89

Milrinone can cause which blood pressure adverse effect?

A) Hypotension

B) Hypertension

C) Reflex hypertension

D) No BP change

A. Hypotension

90

Which hematologic adverse effect is associated with milrinone?

A) Thrombocytopenia

B) Polycythemia

C) Neutrophilia

D) Eosinophilia

A. Thrombocytopenia

91

Nesiritide belongs to which drug category?

A) Natriuretic peptide

B) Beta blocker

C) Bipyridine

D) Cardiac glycoside

A. Natriuretic peptide

92

Nesiritide activates which receptor pathway?

A) BNP receptors

B) Beta-1 receptors

C) Angiotensin II receptors

D) Aldosterone receptors

A. BNP receptors

93

BNP receptor activation by nesiritide increases which second messenger?

A) cGMP

B) cAMP

C) IP3

D) DAG

A. cGMP

94

Nesiritide helps acute heart failure by causing vasodilation and what else?

A) Diuresis

B) Bronchoconstriction

C) AV slowing

D) Calcium retention

A. Diuresis

95

Nesiritide decreases which loading variables in acute heart failure?

A) Preload and afterload

B) Contractility and output

C) cAMP and calcium

D) Sodium and glucose reabsorption

A. Preload and afterload

96

Which adverse effect is associated with nesiritide?

A) Hypotension

B) Arrhythmias

C) Lupus-like syndrome

D) Cyanide toxicity

A. Hypotension

97

Which heart failure drug directly increases contractility by increasing intracellular calcium?

A) Digoxin

B) Furosemide

C) Losartan

D) Nesiritide

A. Digoxin

98

Which heart failure drug directly increases contractility by increasing cAMP through beta-1 activation? A) Dobutamine B) Captopril C) Dapagliflozin D) Hydralazine

A. Dobutamine

99

Which heart failure drug increases contractility by preventing cAMP breakdown?

A) Milrinone

B) Metoprolol

C) Losartan

D) Hydrochlorothiazide

A. Milrinone

100

Which heart failure drug decreases edema by blocking SGLT2 in the proximal tubule?

A) Empagliflozin

B) Spironolactone

C) Captopril

D) Carvedilol

A. Empagliflozin

101

Which heart failure drug has tachycardia, arrhythmias, and increased myocardial oxygen demand as listed side effects?

A) Dobutamine

B) Digoxin

C) Milrinone

D) Losartan

A. Dobutamine

102

Which heart failure drug has arrhythmias, hypotension, and thrombocytopenia as listed side effects?

A) Milrinone

B) Captopril

C) Furosemide

D) Carvedilol

A. Milrinone

103

Which heart failure drug has cyanide toxicity, thiocyanate toxicity, and severe hypotension as listed side effects?

A) Nitroprusside

B) Hydralazine

C) Nesiritide

D) Dobutamine

A. Nitroprusside

104

Which heart failure drug has hypotension as the main listed side effect?

A) Nesiritide

B) Digoxin

C) Spironolactone

D) Hydrochlorothiazide

A. Nesiritide

105

Which of the following is the best-documented mechanism
of beneficial action of cardiac glycosides?
(A) A decrease in calcium uptake by the sarcoplasmic reticulum
(B) An increase in a late transmembrane sodium current
(C) A modification of the actin molecule
(D) An increase in systolic cytoplasmic calcium levels
(E) A block of cardiac β adrenoceptors

(D) An increase in systolic cytoplasmic calcium levels

106

After your patient has been receiving digoxin for 3 weeks, he
presents to the emergency department with an arrhythmia.
Which one of the following is most likely to contribute to
the arrhythmogenic effect of digoxin?
(A) Increased parasympathetic discharge
(B) Increased intracellular calcium
(C) Decreased sympathetic discharge
(D) Decreased intracellular ATP
(E) Increased extracellular potassium

(B) Increased intracellular calcium

107

A patient who has been taking digoxin for several years for
atrial fibrillation and chronic heart failure is about to receive
atropine for another condition. A common effect of digoxin
(at therapeutic blood levels) that can be almost entirely
blocked by atropine is
(A) Decreased appetite
(B) Headaches
(C) Increased atrial contractility
(D) Increased PR interval on ECG
(E) Tachycardia

(D) Increased PR interval on ECG

The parasympathomimetic effects of digitalis can be blocked
by muscarinic blockers such as atropine. The only parasympathomimetic effect in the list provided is increased PR interval, a manifestation of slowed AV conduction.

108

A 65-year-old woman has been admitted to the coronary
care unit with a left ventricular myocardial infarction. She
develops acute severe heart failure with marked pulmonary
edema, but no evidence of peripheral edema. Which one of
the following drugs would be most useful?
(A) Digoxin
(B) Furosemide
(C) Minoxidil
(D) Propranolol
(E) Spironolactone

(B) Furosemide

109

A 72-year-old woman has long-standing heart failure. Which
one of the following drugs has been shown to reduce mortality in chronic heart failure?
(A) Atenolol
(B) Digoxin
(C) Furosemide
(D) Nitroprusside
(E) Spironolactone

(E) Spironolactone

110

Which of the following drugs increases the plasma levels of
endogenous BNP and also blocks angiotensin receptors?
(A) Furosemide
(B) Losartan
(C) Nesiritide
(D) Valsartan
(E) Spironolactone

(D) Valsartan

111

Which one of the following drugs is associated with clinically
useful or physiologically important positive inotropic effect?
(A) Captopril
(B) Dobutamine
(C) Enalapril
(D) Losartan
(E) Nesiritide

(B) Dobutamine

112

The first-line drug of choice in most cases of acute decompensation in patients with chronic heart failure is:
(A) Atenolol
(B) Captopril
(C) Carvedilol
(D) Digoxin
(E) Diltiazem
(F) Dobutamine
(G) Enalapril
(H) Furosemide

(H) Furosemide

In both acute and chronic failure and systolic (HFrEF) and
diastolic heart failure (HFpEF), the initial treatment of
choice is usually furosemide.

113

Which of the following has been shown to prolong life in
patients with chronic congestive failure in spite of having a
negative inotropic effect on cardiac contractility?
(A) Carvedilol
(B) Digoxin
(C) Dobutamine
(D) Enalapril
(E) Furosemide

(A) Carvedilol

114

Which of the following is the drug of
choice in treating a severe overdose of digoxin?
(A) Digoxin antibodies
(B) Lidocaine infusion
(C) Magnesium infusion
(D) Phenytoin by mouth
(E) Potassium by mouth

(A) Digoxin antibodies