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Pharm 13

front 1

In heart failure pharmacology, many drugs help a weak heart by doing which overall action?

A) Increasing edema formation

B) Increasing venous return

C) Lowering cardiac stress

D) Increasing vascular resistance

back 1

C. Lowering cardiac stress

front 2

Which group from the notes mainly increases cardiac work or contractility rather than lowering workload?

A) Digoxin, dobutamine, milrinone

B) Thiazides, nitrates, SGLT2 inhibitors

C) ACE inhibitors, ARBs, beta blockers

D) Hydralazine, nitroprusside, nesiritide

back 2

A. Digoxin, dobutamine, milrinone

front 3

A patient with heart failure receives furosemide for edema. Which transporter is directly blocked?

A) Na/Cl transporter

B) SGLT2 transporter

C) Na/K/2Cl transporter

D) Na/K ATPase

back 3

C. Na/K/2Cl transporter

front 4

Furosemide acts primarily in which nephron segment?

A) Thick ascending limb

B) Proximal tubule

C) Collecting tubule

D) Distal convoluted tubule

back 4

A. Thick ascending limb

front 5

Furosemide helps heart failure edema by producing which effect?

A) Salt and water retention

B) Salt and water removal

C) Increased afterload only

D) Increased remodeling

back 5

B. Salt and water removal

front 6

By removing extra salt and water, furosemide decreases which cardiac loading variable?

A) Contractility

B) Afterload

C) Preload

D) Heart rate

back 6

C. Preload

front 7

Furosemide decreases preload because it reduces which variable?

A) Venous return

B) AV conduction

C) Cardiac calcium

D) Vascular remodeling

back 7

A. Venous return

front 8

Which heart failure symptom is directly improved by furosemide-mediated salt and water removal?

A) Edema

B) Arrhythmia

C) Bradycardia

D) Lupus

back 8

A. Edema

front 9

A weak heart benefits from furosemide because reduced preload causes which effect?

A) More ventricular stress

B) Less cardiac workload

C) More sodium reabsorption

D) More venous congestion

back 9

B. Less cardiac workload

front 10

Empagliflozin and dapagliflozin belong to which heart failure drug class?

A) Loop diuretics

B) SGLT2 inhibitors

C) ACE inhibitors

D) Cardiac glycosides

back 10

B. SGLT2 inhibitors

front 11

Which name clue helps identify empagliflozin and dapagliflozin?

A) “flozin” ending

B) “sartan” ending

C) “olol” ending

D) “one” ending

back 11

A. “flozin” ending

front 12

SGLT2 inhibitors act primarily in which nephron segment?

A) Collecting tubule

B) Distal convoluted tubule

C) Thick ascending limb

D) Proximal tubule

back 12

D. Proximal tubule

front 13

Empagliflozin decreases reabsorption of which substances?

A) Calcium and chloride

B) Sodium and glucose

C) Potassium and hydrogen

D) Urea and water

back 13

B. Sodium and glucose

front 14

Dapagliflozin helps heart failure by promoting removal of what?

A) Salt and water

B) Calcium and protein

C) Renin and ACE

D) BNP and cGMP

back 14

A. Salt and water

front 15

SGLT2 inhibitor therapy reduces preload by decreasing which variable?

A) Contractility

B) Venous return

C) AV conduction

D) Platelet count

back 15

B. Venous return

front 16

Which heart failure problem is improved by SGLT2 inhibitor-related fluid removal?

A) Edema

B) Tachyarrhythmia

C) Lupus-like syndrome

D) AV node conduction

back 16

A. Edema

front 17

A heart failure patient receives dapagliflozin. Which mechanism best explains its benefit?

A) Blocks beta receptors

B) Blocks SGLT2 transport

C) Releases nitric oxide

D) Inhibits PDE-3

back 17

B. Blocks SGLT2 transport

front 18

Hydrochlorothiazide lowers fluid burden by blocking which transporter?

A) Na/K ATPase

B) Na/Cl transporter

C) Na/K/2Cl transporter

D) SGLT2 transporter

back 18

B. Na/Cl transporter

front 19

Thiazide diuretics act mainly in which nephron segment?

A) Proximal tubule

B) Collecting tubule

C) Loop of Henle

D) Distal convoluted tubule

back 19

D. Distal convoluted tubule

front 20

Hydrochlorothiazide helps heart failure mainly by removing which substances?

A) Salt and water

B) Calcium and protein

C) Angiotensin and renin

D) cAMP and cGMP

back 20

A. Salt and water

front 21

Thiazide-mediated fluid removal decreases which cardiac loading condition?

A) Preload

B) Contractility

C) Remodeling

D) AV conduction

back 21

A. Preload

front 22

Spironolactone and eplerenone belong to which heart failure drug class?

A) ACE inhibitors

B) Beta blockers

C) Aldosterone antagonists

D) SGLT2 inhibitors

back 22

C. Aldosterone antagonists

front 23

Which name clue helps identify spironolactone and eplerenone?

A) “flozin” ending

B) “pril” ending

C) “sartan” ending

D) “one” ending

back 23

D. “one” ending

front 24

Aldosterone antagonists block receptors in which nephron region?

A) Collecting tubules

B) Proximal tubule

C) Thick ascending limb

D) Distal convoluted tubule

back 24

A. Collecting tubules

front 25

Spironolactone helps heart failure by promoting which overall effect?

A) Sodium and water removal

B) Calcium entry increase

C) Beta-1 stimulation

D) cAMP breakdown

back 25

A. Sodium and water removal

front 26

Aldosterone antagonists reduce preload because they decrease which variable?

A) Venous return

B) Contractility

C) AV node conduction

D) cGMP signaling

back 26

A. Venous return

front 27

Which listed heart failure drugs block aldosterone receptors?

A) Captopril and losartan

B) Empagliflozin and dapagliflozin

C) Spironolactone and eplerenone

D) Dobutamine and milrinone

back 27

C. Spironolactone and eplerenone

front 28

Captopril directly inhibits which enzyme?

A) Renin

B) ACE

C) PDE-3

D) Na/K ATPase

back 28

B. ACE

front 29

ACE inhibition decreases formation of which molecule?

A) Angiotensin II

B) Dopamine

C) BNP

D) cGMP

back 29

A. Angiotensin II

front 30

Captopril helps heart failure by decreasing which two harmful effects?

A) Vasoconstriction and aldosterone

B) Contractility and perfusion

C) Diuresis and vasodilation

D) cGMP and BNP

back 30

A. Vasoconstriction and aldosterone

front 31

ACE inhibitors decrease afterload mainly by reducing which process?

A) Vasoconstriction

B) Glucose excretion

C) AV node conduction

D) Platelet breakdown

back 31

A. Vasoconstriction

front 32

ACE inhibitors decrease preload partly by reducing which hormone effect?

A) Aldosterone

B) Insulin

C) Glucagon

D) Thyroxine

back 32

A. Aldosterone

front 33

Why does reduced afterload help a weak ventricle?

A) It increases resistance strongly

B) It makes pumping easier

C) It increases edema formation

D) It worsens remodeling

back 33

B. It makes pumping easier

front 34

ACE inhibitors help heart failure partly by reducing which long-term harmful process?

A) Bronchoconstriction

B) Remodeling

C) Thrombocytopenia

D) Visual changes

back 34

B. Remodeling

front 35

Losartan belongs to which heart failure drug class?

A) ACE inhibitor

B) Beta blocker

C) Angiotensin II receptor blocker

D) Cardiac glycoside

back 35

C. Angiotensin II receptor blocker

front 36

Which name clue helps identify losartan and related ARBs?

A) “olol” ending

B) “flozin” ending

C) “sartan” ending

D) “pril” ending

back 36

C. “sartan” ending

front 37

Angiotensin receptor blockers improve heart failure by decreasing which effect?

A) Vasoconstriction

B) Diuresis

C) Calcium retention

D) Bradycardia

back 37

A. Vasoconstriction

front 38

ARBs help heart failure by decreasing which disease process?

A) Ototoxicity

B) Remodeling

C) Constipation

D) Thrombocytopenia

back 38

B. Remodeling

front 39

Compared with ACE inhibitors, ARBs are associated with less of which adverse effect?

A) Cough

B) Edema

C) Tachycardia

D) Hypotension

back 39

A. Cough

front 40

Which statement best compares losartan with captopril in heart failure?

A) Similar benefit, less cough

B) More cough, less benefit

C) Only increases contractility

D) Only treats arrhythmias

back 40

A. Similar benefit, less cough

front 41

Carvedilol, metoprolol, bisoprolol, and nebivolol belong to which class?

A) Beta blockers

B) ACE inhibitors

C) Cardiac glycosides

D) Bipyridines

back 41

A. Beta blockers

front 42

Beta blockers help chronic heart failure by reducing which harmful drive?

A) Sympathetic overstimulation

B) Proximal glucose uptake

C) BNP receptor activation

D) Nitric oxide signaling

back 42

A. Sympathetic overstimulation

front 43

Beta blockers improve chronic heart failure by causing which heart rate effect?

A) Slows heart rate

B) Speeds heart rate

C) Stops AV conduction completely

D) Has no heart effect

back 43

A. Slows heart rate

front 44

Beta blockers improve survival in chronic heart failure partly by decreasing what?

A) Remodeling

B) Diuresis

C) Cyanide toxicity

D) Sodium current

back 44

A. Remodeling

front 45

Which beta blocker listed for heart failure also blocks alpha receptors?

A) Carvedilol

B) Metoprolol

C) Bisoprolol

D) Nebivolol

back 45

A. Carvedilol

front 46

Which listed heart failure beta blocker is beta-1 selective?

A) Hydralazine

B) Metoprolol

C) Losartan

D) Nesiritide

back 46

B. Metoprolol

front 47

Beta blockers are especially useful in which heart failure setting from the notes?

A) Chronic heart failure

B) Acute cyanide toxicity

C) Immediate inotrope rescue

D) Severe thrombocytopenia

back 47

A. Chronic heart failure

front 48

Digoxin belongs to which drug class?

A) Cardiac glycoside

B) SGLT2 inhibitor

C) Bipyridine

D) ARB

back 48

A. Cardiac glycoside

front 49

Digoxin directly inhibits which membrane pump?

A) Na/K ATPase

B) Na/Cl transporter

C) SGLT2 transporter

D) Na/K/2Cl transporter

back 49

A. Na/K ATPase

front 50

Inhibition of Na/K ATPase by digoxin increases which intracellular ion?

A) Sodium only

B) Calcium

C) Chloride

D) Magnesium

back 50

B. Calcium

front 51

Digoxin helps heart failure mainly by increasing which cardiac property?

A) Contractility

B) Preload

C) Afterload

D) Remodeling

back 51

A. Contractility

front 52

Digoxin is also useful in atrial fibrillation because it slows which conduction pathway?

A) AV node conduction

B) SA node automaticity

C) His-Purkinje conduction

D) Ventricular repolarization

back 52

A. AV node conduction

front 53

Which adverse effect is most associated with digoxin toxicity in the notes?

A) Arrhythmias

B) Cyanide toxicity

C) Lupus-like syndrome

D) Thrombocytopenia

back 53

A. Arrhythmias

front 54

A heart failure patient with atrial fibrillation receives digoxin. Which combined benefit is expected?

A) More contractility, slower AV conduction

B) Less contractility, faster AV conduction

C) More preload, less contractility

D) Less cAMP, more congestion

back 54

A. More contractility, slower AV conduction

front 55

Which drug increases intracellular Ca2+ by inhibiting Na/K ATPase?

A) Dobutamine

B) Digoxin

C) Milrinone

D) Nesiritide

back 55

B. Digoxin

front 56

Hydralazine belongs to which heart failure drug category in the notes?

A) Arteriolar dilator

B) Cardiac glycoside

C) Natriuretic peptide

D) SGLT2 inhibitor

back 56

A. Arteriolar dilator

front 57

Hydralazine increases which signaling pathway?

A) Nitric oxide signaling

B) Beta-1 signaling

C) BNP signaling

D) Sodium-glucose signaling

back 57

A. Nitric oxide signaling

front 58

Hydralazine helps heart failure by decreasing which loading variable?

A) Afterload

B) Preload

C) Contractility

D) AV conduction

back 58

A. Afterload

front 59

Why does decreased afterload help a weak ventricle pump?

A) Less resistance opposes ejection

B) More edema reaches ventricles

C) Less calcium enters cells

D) More sodium is retained

back 59

A. Less resistance opposes ejection

front 60

Which side effect is associated with hydralazine?

A) Reflex tachycardia

B) Cyanide toxicity

C) Thrombocytopenia

D) Visual brightness

back 60

A. Reflex tachycardia

front 61

A patient taking hydralazine develops facial warmth and head pain. Which side effect pair best fits?

A) Headache and flushing

B) Cough and angioedema

C) Bradycardia and vision

D) Edema and cyanosis

back 61

A. Headache and flushing

front 62

Hydralazine can cause which autoimmune-like adverse effect?

A) Lupus-like syndrome

B) Guillain-Barré syndrome

C) Myasthenic syndrome

D) Nephrotic syndrome

back 62

A. Lupus-like syndrome

front 63

Nitroprusside is best described as which type of heart failure vasodilator?

A) Pure arteriolar dilator

B) Pure venous dilator

C) Combined arterial and venous dilator

D) Pure renal tubule dilator

back 63

C. Combined arterial and venous dilator

front 64

Nitroprusside directly releases which mediator?

A) Nitric oxide

B) Angiotensin II

C) Aldosterone

D) Dopamine

back 64

A. Nitric oxide

front 65

Nitroprusside helps acute heart failure by rapidly decreasing which loading variables?

A) Preload and afterload

B) Contractility and calcium

C) Heart rate and rhythm

D) AV conduction and remodeling

back 65

A. Preload and afterload

front 66

Nitroprusside decreases congestion mainly by reducing which variable?

A) Preload

B) Contractility

C) Platelet count

D) AV conduction

back 66

A. Preload

front 67

Nitroprusside improves forward pumping by reducing which variable?

A) Afterload

B) Calcium

C) cAMP

D) AV conduction

back 67

A. Afterload

front 68

Which heart failure setting best matches nitroprusside use in these notes?

A) Acute heart failure

B) Chronic remodeling prevention

C) Stable outpatient edema only

D) Atrial fibrillation rate control

back 68

A. Acute heart failure

front 69

Which toxicity is associated with nitroprusside?

A) Cyanide toxicity

B) Lupus-like syndrome

C) Bronchoconstriction

D) Gynecomastia

back 69

A. Cyanide toxicity

front 70

Which additional toxicity is associated with nitroprusside?

A) Thiocyanate toxicity

B) Ototoxicity

C) Visual brightness

D) Constipation

back 70

A. Thiocyanate toxicity

front 71

A patient on nitroprusside develops a dangerous BP drop. Which adverse effect is this?

A) Severe hypotension

B) Bradycardia only

C) Hyperkalemia only

D) Reflex hypertension

back 71

A. Severe hypotension

front 72

Which side effect set best matches nitroprusside?

A) Cyanide toxicity, thiocyanate toxicity, severe hypotension

B) Bradycardia, bronchoconstriction, survival benefit

C) Arrhythmias, AV slowing, constipation

D) Lupus-like syndrome, flushing, thrombocytopenia

back 72

A. Cyanide toxicity, thiocyanate toxicity, severe hypotension

front 73

Dobutamine belongs to which drug category?

A) Beta-adrenoceptor agonist

B) ACE inhibitor

C) Natriuretic peptide

D) Cardiac glycoside

back 73

A. Beta-adrenoceptor agonist

front 74

Dobutamine primarily activates which receptor?

A) Beta-1 receptor

B) Alpha-1 receptor

C) D1 receptor

D) BNP receptor

back 74

A. Beta-1 receptor

front 75

Beta-1 agonism by dobutamine increases which second messenger?

A) cAMP

B) cGMP

C) IP3

D) DAG

back 75

A. cAMP

front 76

Dobutamine helps acute decompensated heart failure by increasing which cardiac property?

A) Contractility

B) Preload

C) Afterload

D) Remodeling

back 76

A. Contractility

front 77

Dobutamine temporarily improves which hemodynamic outcome?

A) Cardiac output

B) Venous congestion

C) Aldosterone release

D) Sodium retention

back 77

A. Cardiac output

front 78

Which heart failure setting best matches dobutamine use in the notes?

A) Acute decompensated heart failure

B) Chronic outpatient remodeling prevention

C) Isolated edema without low output

D) Stable hypertension without symptoms

back 78

A. Acute decompensated heart failure

front 79

Which adverse effect is associated with dobutamine?

A) Tachycardia

B) Lupus-like syndrome

C) Cyanide toxicity

D) Thrombocytopenia

back 79

A. Tachycardia

front 80

Dobutamine can trigger which rhythm-related adverse effect?

A) Arrhythmias

B) AV slowing

C) Bradycardia

D) QT shortening

back 80

A. Arrhythmias

front 81

Why can dobutamine be risky in ischemic patients?

A) Increases myocardial oxygen demand

B) Decreases contractility too much

C) Blocks coronary vasodilation

D) Causes severe sodium retention

back 81

A. Increases myocardial oxygen demand

front 82

Milrinone belongs to which drug category?

A) Bipyridine

B) Cardiac glycoside

C) ARB

D) Loop diuretic

back 82

A. Bipyridine

front 83

Milrinone directly inhibits which enzyme?

A) PDE-3

B) ACE

C) Renin

D) Na/K ATPase

back 83

A. PDE-3

front 84

PDE-3 inhibition by milrinone causes which intracellular effect?

A) Decreased cAMP breakdown

B) Increased cAMP breakdown

C) Decreased cGMP formation

D) Increased Na/K ATPase activity

back 84

A. Decreased cAMP breakdown

front 85

Milrinone helps acute heart failure by increasing contractility and causing what else?

A) Vasodilation

B) Sodium retention

C) AV node slowing

D) Glucose reabsorption

back 85

A. Vasodilation

front 86

Milrinone improves output partly by increasing which cardiac property?

A) Contractility

B) Preload

C) Edema

D) Remodeling

back 86

A. Contractility

front 87

Milrinone decreases afterload through which effect?

A) Vasodilation

B) Venoconstriction

C) Aldosterone release

D) Beta blockade

back 87

A. Vasodilation

front 88

Which adverse effect is associated with milrinone?

A) Arrhythmias

B) Cyanide toxicity

C) Lupus-like syndrome

D) Cough

back 88

A. Arrhythmias

front 89

Milrinone can cause which blood pressure adverse effect?

A) Hypotension

B) Hypertension

C) Reflex hypertension

D) No BP change

back 89

A. Hypotension

front 90

Which hematologic adverse effect is associated with milrinone?

A) Thrombocytopenia

B) Polycythemia

C) Neutrophilia

D) Eosinophilia

back 90

A. Thrombocytopenia

front 91

Nesiritide belongs to which drug category?

A) Natriuretic peptide

B) Beta blocker

C) Bipyridine

D) Cardiac glycoside

back 91

A. Natriuretic peptide

front 92

Nesiritide activates which receptor pathway?

A) BNP receptors

B) Beta-1 receptors

C) Angiotensin II receptors

D) Aldosterone receptors

back 92

A. BNP receptors

front 93

BNP receptor activation by nesiritide increases which second messenger?

A) cGMP

B) cAMP

C) IP3

D) DAG

back 93

A. cGMP

front 94

Nesiritide helps acute heart failure by causing vasodilation and what else?

A) Diuresis

B) Bronchoconstriction

C) AV slowing

D) Calcium retention

back 94

A. Diuresis

front 95

Nesiritide decreases which loading variables in acute heart failure?

A) Preload and afterload

B) Contractility and output

C) cAMP and calcium

D) Sodium and glucose reabsorption

back 95

A. Preload and afterload

front 96

Which adverse effect is associated with nesiritide?

A) Hypotension

B) Arrhythmias

C) Lupus-like syndrome

D) Cyanide toxicity

back 96

A. Hypotension

front 97

Which heart failure drug directly increases contractility by increasing intracellular calcium?

A) Digoxin

B) Furosemide

C) Losartan

D) Nesiritide

back 97

A. Digoxin

front 98

Which heart failure drug directly increases contractility by increasing cAMP through beta-1 activation? A) Dobutamine B) Captopril C) Dapagliflozin D) Hydralazine

back 98

A. Dobutamine

front 99

Which heart failure drug increases contractility by preventing cAMP breakdown?

A) Milrinone

B) Metoprolol

C) Losartan

D) Hydrochlorothiazide

back 99

A. Milrinone

front 100

Which heart failure drug decreases edema by blocking SGLT2 in the proximal tubule?

A) Empagliflozin

B) Spironolactone

C) Captopril

D) Carvedilol

back 100

A. Empagliflozin

front 101

Which heart failure drug has tachycardia, arrhythmias, and increased myocardial oxygen demand as listed side effects?

A) Dobutamine

B) Digoxin

C) Milrinone

D) Losartan

back 101

A. Dobutamine

front 102

Which heart failure drug has arrhythmias, hypotension, and thrombocytopenia as listed side effects?

A) Milrinone

B) Captopril

C) Furosemide

D) Carvedilol

back 102

A. Milrinone

front 103

Which heart failure drug has cyanide toxicity, thiocyanate toxicity, and severe hypotension as listed side effects?

A) Nitroprusside

B) Hydralazine

C) Nesiritide

D) Dobutamine

back 103

A. Nitroprusside

front 104

Which heart failure drug has hypotension as the main listed side effect?

A) Nesiritide

B) Digoxin

C) Spironolactone

D) Hydrochlorothiazide

back 104

A. Nesiritide

front 105

Which of the following is the best-documented mechanism
of beneficial action of cardiac glycosides?
(A) A decrease in calcium uptake by the sarcoplasmic reticulum
(B) An increase in a late transmembrane sodium current
(C) A modification of the actin molecule
(D) An increase in systolic cytoplasmic calcium levels
(E) A block of cardiac β adrenoceptors

back 105

(D) An increase in systolic cytoplasmic calcium levels

front 106

After your patient has been receiving digoxin for 3 weeks, he
presents to the emergency department with an arrhythmia.
Which one of the following is most likely to contribute to
the arrhythmogenic effect of digoxin?
(A) Increased parasympathetic discharge
(B) Increased intracellular calcium
(C) Decreased sympathetic discharge
(D) Decreased intracellular ATP
(E) Increased extracellular potassium

back 106

(B) Increased intracellular calcium

front 107

A patient who has been taking digoxin for several years for
atrial fibrillation and chronic heart failure is about to receive
atropine for another condition. A common effect of digoxin
(at therapeutic blood levels) that can be almost entirely
blocked by atropine is
(A) Decreased appetite
(B) Headaches
(C) Increased atrial contractility
(D) Increased PR interval on ECG
(E) Tachycardia

back 107

(D) Increased PR interval on ECG

The parasympathomimetic effects of digitalis can be blocked
by muscarinic blockers such as atropine. The only parasympathomimetic effect in the list provided is increased PR interval, a manifestation of slowed AV conduction.

front 108

A 65-year-old woman has been admitted to the coronary
care unit with a left ventricular myocardial infarction. She
develops acute severe heart failure with marked pulmonary
edema, but no evidence of peripheral edema. Which one of
the following drugs would be most useful?
(A) Digoxin
(B) Furosemide
(C) Minoxidil
(D) Propranolol
(E) Spironolactone

back 108

(B) Furosemide

front 109

A 72-year-old woman has long-standing heart failure. Which
one of the following drugs has been shown to reduce mortality in chronic heart failure?
(A) Atenolol
(B) Digoxin
(C) Furosemide
(D) Nitroprusside
(E) Spironolactone

back 109

(E) Spironolactone

front 110

Which of the following drugs increases the plasma levels of
endogenous BNP and also blocks angiotensin receptors?
(A) Furosemide
(B) Losartan
(C) Nesiritide
(D) Valsartan
(E) Spironolactone

back 110

(D) Valsartan

front 111

Which one of the following drugs is associated with clinically
useful or physiologically important positive inotropic effect?
(A) Captopril
(B) Dobutamine
(C) Enalapril
(D) Losartan
(E) Nesiritide

back 111

(B) Dobutamine

front 112

The first-line drug of choice in most cases of acute decompensation in patients with chronic heart failure is:
(A) Atenolol
(B) Captopril
(C) Carvedilol
(D) Digoxin
(E) Diltiazem
(F) Dobutamine
(G) Enalapril
(H) Furosemide

back 112

(H) Furosemide

In both acute and chronic failure and systolic (HFrEF) and
diastolic heart failure (HFpEF), the initial treatment of
choice is usually furosemide.

front 113

Which of the following has been shown to prolong life in
patients with chronic congestive failure in spite of having a
negative inotropic effect on cardiac contractility?
(A) Carvedilol
(B) Digoxin
(C) Dobutamine
(D) Enalapril
(E) Furosemide

back 113

(A) Carvedilol

front 114

Which of the following is the drug of
choice in treating a severe overdose of digoxin?
(A) Digoxin antibodies
(B) Lidocaine infusion
(C) Magnesium infusion
(D) Phenytoin by mouth
(E) Potassium by mouth

back 114

(A) Digoxin antibodies