Neuro 12 Flashcards

Which junction marks the rostral limit of the brainstem?

A. Pontomedullary junction
B. Pontomesencephalic junction
C. Midbrain-diencephalic junction
D. Cervicomedullary junction

The midbrain joins the pons at which junction?

A. Pontomesencephalic junction
B. Midbrain-diencephalic junction
C. Cervicomedullary junction
D. Obex

The pons meets the medulla at the:

A. Midbrain-diencephalic junction
B. Obex
C. Cervicomedullary junction
D. Pontomedullary junction

A lesion at the caudal brainstem near the foramen magnum is located at the:

A. Pontomedullary junction
B. Cervicomedullary junction
C. Pontomesencephalic junction
D. Interpeduncular fossa

The paired dorsal midbrain elevations are the:

A. Superior and inferior colliculi
B. Pyramids and olives
C. Gracile and cuneate nuclei
D. Facial and vagal trigones

The interpeduncular fossa lies between the:

A. Inferior olivary nuclei
B. Middle cerebellar peduncles
C. Superior colliculi
D. Cerebral peduncles

A patient develops ptosis, mydriasis, and a “down and out” eye from vascular compression of CN III. The nerve normally passes between the:

A. AICA and PICA
B. PCA and SCA
C. ACA and MCA
D. Basilar and vertebral

Which cranial nerve uniquely exits dorsally from the brainstem?

A. CN III
B. CN VI
C. CN IV
D. CN IX

The abducens nerve exits at the:

A. Ventral pontomedullary junction
B. Dorsal pontomedullary junction
C. Ventrolateral pons
D. Ventromedial pons

The cerebellopontine angle is the exit region for:

A. CN III and CN IV
B. CN V and CN VI
C. CN VII, VIII, and IX
D. CN XI and CN XII

Which set exits ventrolaterally from the pontomedullary junction and rostral medulla?

A. III, IV, V, VI
B. VII, VIII, IX, X
C. I, II, III, IV
D. XI, XII, I, II

A lesion of the facial colliculus most directly involves the:

A. Hypoglossal nucleus and XII fibers
B. Solitary nucleus and IX fibers
C. Dorsal motor X and X fibers
D. Abducens nucleus and VII fibers

The hypoglossal trigone and vagal trigone overlie the:

A. XII nucleus and X dorsal motor nucleus
B. VI nucleus and VII fibers
C. Nucleus ambiguus and solitary tract
D. Gracile and cuneate nuclei

The point where the fourth ventricle narrows into the spinal cord:

A. Aqueduct
B. Central canal
C. Obex
D. Median aperture

In adults (unlike in kids) the central canal distal to the obex is usually:

A. Widely patent
B. Closed
C. Bifurcated
D. Externally draining

In the rostral medulla, bulges lateral to the pyramids are the:

A. Inferior olivary nuclei
B. Facial colliculi
C. Posterior columns
D. Vestibular nuclei

On the dorsal surface of the caudal medulla, one expects to see:

A. Inferior olives and pyramids
B. Cerebral peduncles and fossa
C. Facial colliculi and obex
D. Posterior columns and nuclei

The spinal accessory nerve arises from multiple rootlets along the:

A. Rostral medulla
B. Caudal pons
C. Upper cervical cord
D. Lower thoracic cord

The hypoglossal nerve exits:

A. Lateral to olive
B. Between pyramid and olive
C. Dorsal to pyramid
D. At cerebellopontine angle

The oculomotor nerve emerges ventrally from the:

A. Optic canal
B. Superior orbital fissure
C. Pontomedullary junction
D. Interpeduncular fossa

The olfactory nerves traverse the:

A. Cribriform plate
B. Optic canal
C. Foramen rotundum
D. Superior orbital fissure

The optic nerve passes through the:

A. Cribriform plate
B. Jugular foramen
C. Optic canal
D. Foramen lacerum

Which set enters the orbit through the superior orbital fissure?

A. II, III, IV, V2
B. III, IV, VI, V1
C. I, II, III, IV
D. V2, V3, VII, IX

A foramen magnum mass compressing the caudal brainstem would most likely be near the:

A. Superior colliculus
B. Optic chiasm
C. Facial colliculus
D. Pyramidal decussation

The ventral surface of the midbrain is formed chiefly by the:

A. Cerebral peduncles
B. Inferior olives
C. Middle cerebellar peduncles
D. Superior cerebellar peduncles

Which foramen normally transmits CN VII out to the muscles of facial expression?

A. Jugular foramen
B. Internal auditory meatus
C. Hypoglossal canal
D. Stylomastoid foramen

CN VII and CN VIII both leave the cranial cavity together through the:

A. Jugular foramen
B. Stylomastoid foramen
C. Internal auditory meatus
D. Hypoglossal canal

A vestibular schwannoma in the auditory canal would first affect a nerve that innervates the:

A. Tongue intrinsic muscles
B. Inner ear
C. Pharyngeal constrictors
D. Muscles of mastication

CN VIII primarily innervates structures located:

A. Within temporal bone
B. In the orbit
C. In the pterygopalatine fossa
D. At the jugular bulb

Which set of cranial nerves traverses the jugular foramen?

A. VII, VIII, IX
B. IX, X, XI
C. X, XI, XII
D. V, VII, IX

A patient with dysphagia, hoarseness, and weak SCM after a skull base lesion most likely has compression at the:

A. Hypoglossal canal
B. Stylomastoid foramen
C. Jugular foramen
D. Internal auditory meatus

The hypoglossal nerve exits the skull via the:

A. Jugular foramen
B. Hypoglossal canal
C. Foramen ovale
D. Stylomastoid foramen

The hypoglossal canal lies just anterior to the:

A. Optic canal
B. Carotid canal
C. Internal auditory meatus
D. Foramen magnum

Which grouping contains only somatic motor cranial nerve nuclei?

A. III, IV, VI, XI, XII
B. V, VII, IX, X, XI
C. III, VII, IX, XI, X
D. V, VI, X, XI, XII

Which muscle group is innervated by nuclei associated embryologically with occipital somites?

A. Muscles of mastication
B. Extraocular and tongue muscles
C. Pharyngeal constrictors
D. Muscles of facial expression

Visceral motor cranial nuclei are divided into which two columns?

A. Somatic sensory, branchial motor
B. Parasympathetic, branchial motor
C. Visceral sensory, somatic motor
D. Trigeminal, solitary

Motor Nucleus of V (Trigeminal), Facial Nucleus (VII), and Nucleus Ambiguus (IX, X, XI):

A. Somatic sensory
B. Branchial motor
C. Visceral sensory
D. Solitary motor

A lesion causing weak jaw closure most directly involves which branchial motor nucleus?

A. Facial nucleus
B. Nucleus ambiguus
C. Trigeminal motor nucleus
D. Spinal accessory nucleus

The nucleus ambiguus contributes branchial motor fibers to:

A. III and VII and XI
B. IX and X and XI
C. V and VII and XI
D. X and XII and XI

Which muscle group is innervated by branchial motor nuclei?

A. Iris sphincter, ciliary muscle
B. Myocardium, bronchioles
C. Tongue intrinsic muscles
D. Pharynx and larynx

Branchial motor nuclei innervate all of the following except:

A. Middle ear muscles
B. Muscles of mastication
C. Facial expression muscles
D. Extraocular muscles

Which nucleus provides preganglionic parasympathetic fibers through CN III?

A. Superior salivatory nucleus
B. Inferior salivatory nucleus
C. Edinger-Westphal nucleus
D. Dorsal motor nucleus X

Which nuclei are parasympathetic?

A. V motor and VII
B. III, VII, IX, X
C. V, VII, IX, XII
D. III, IV, VI, XII

A lesion causing impaired salivation through CN IX most likely involves the:

A. Superior salivatory nucleus
B. Edinger-Westphal nucleus
C. Inferior salivatory nucleus
D. Trigeminal motor nucleus

Parasympathetic cranial nuclei send what type of fibers to peripheral targets?

A. Postganglionic sympathetic fibers
B. Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers
C. General sensory afferents
D. Branchial efferent fibers

Which nucleus receives primarily taste input from CN VII?

A. Caudal nucleus solitarius
B. Trigeminal sensory nucleus
C. Rostral nucleus solitarius
D. Nucleus ambiguus

The gustatory nucleus is another name for the:

A. Rostral nucleus solitarius
B. Dorsal motor nucleus X
C. Inferior salivatory nucleus
D. Trigeminal ganglion

Taste afferents to the rostral nucleus solitarius arise mainly from:

A. CN V
B. CN VII
C. CN IX
D. CN X

The caudal nucleus solitarius is chiefly concerned with:

A. Tongue proprioception
B. Facial pain transmission
C. Cardiorespiratory regulation
D. Extraocular coordination

Visceral afferents to the caudal nucleus solitarius travel primarily in:

A. CN V and VII
B. CN III and IX
C. CN IX and X
D. CN XI and XII

Which sensory modality is mediated by trigeminal sensory nuclei?

A. Taste from epiglottis
B. Vision from retina
C. Hearing from cochlea
D. Facial pain and temperature

Which set includes only mixed cranial nerves?

A. I, II, VIII
B. III, IV, VI
C. V, VII, IX, X
D. VIII, IX, X, XI

A patient has isolated parasympathetic loss to the iris and ciliary muscle. Which peripheral ganglion is implicated?

A. Geniculate ganglion
B. Trigeminal ganglion
C. Ciliary ganglion
D. Submandibular ganglion

The ciliary ganglion is associated with which cranial nerve?

A. CN II
B. CN III
C. CN V
D. CN VII

Which structure contains primary sensory neuron cell bodies for the face, mouth, sinuses, and meninges?

A. Geniculate ganglion
B. Ciliary ganglion
C. Trigeminal ganglion
D. Sphenopalatine ganglion

The trigeminal ganglion is the peripheral ganglion of:

A. CN III
B. CN V
C. CN VII
D. CN IX

Which set contains only peripheral ganglia of CN VII?

A. Ciliary, trigeminal, geniculate
B. Geniculate, submandibular, sphenopalatine
C. Otic, ciliary, submandibular
D. Geniculate, otic, trigeminal

A lesion in the internal auditory meatus could affect both facial expression and hearing because it transmits:

A. CN VII and VIII
B. CN IX and X
C. CN X and XI
D. CN V and VII

A patient has dry eyes and dry nasal mucosa after a facial nerve parasympathetic lesion. Which ganglion is most directly involved?

A. Otic ganglion
B. Geniculate ganglion
C. Sphenopalatine ganglion
D. Submandibular ganglion

A lesion affecting facial parasympathetics causes reduced secretion from the submandibular and sublingual glands. Which ganglion is affected?

A. Otic ganglion
B. Submandibular ganglion
C. Geniculate ganglion
D. Sphenopalatine ganglion

A patient loses taste from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue and also has decreased sensation near the outer ear. Which ganglion is most likely involved?

A. Spiral ganglion
B. Geniculate ganglion
C. Superior vagal ganglion
D. Inferior glossopharyngeal ganglion

Which pair are the peripheral ganglia of CN VIII?

A. Spiral and otic
B. Scarpa's and geniculate
C. Spiral and Scarpa's
D. Superior and inferior vagal

A patient with isolated sensorineural hearing loss has damage to primary sensory neuron cell bodies in the:

A. Spiral ganglion
B. Scarpa's ganglion
C. Geniculate ganglion
D. Trigeminal ganglion

A patient with severe vertigo has damage to the peripheral ganglion containing primary vestibular sensory neurons. Which ganglion is this?

A. Spiral ganglion
B. Inferior vagal ganglion
C. Scarpa's ganglion
D. Geniculate ganglion

Which structure is a peripheral ganglion of the glossopharyngeal nerve?

A. Ciliary ganglion
B. Otic ganglion
C. Scarpa's ganglion
D. Sphenopalatine ganglion

Which list includes all peripheral ganglia associated with CN IX?

A. Otic, superior, inferior glossopharyngeal
B. Otic, geniculate, trigeminal
C. Superior, inferior, vagal
D. Ciliary, superior, inferior glossopharyngeal

Parasympathetic fibers to the parotid gland synapse in the:

A. Submandibular ganglion
B. Otic ganglion
C. Geniculate ganglion
D. Superior vagal ganglion

A patient with diminished parotid secretion has a lesion involving which ganglion?

A. Sphenopalatine ganglion
B. Otic ganglion
C. Inferior vagal ganglion
D. Spiral ganglion

Primary sensory neuron cell bodies for sensation from the middle ear, external auditory meatus, pharynx, and posterior one-third of the tongue are found in the:

A. Inferior glossopharyngeal ganglion
B. Superior glossopharyngeal ganglion
C. Superior vagal ganglion
D. Geniculate ganglion

Which ganglion contains sensory neurons for the posterior one-third of the tongue but not taste or carotid body input?

A. Superior glossopharyngeal ganglion
B. Inferior glossopharyngeal ganglion
C. Inferior vagal ganglion
D. Geniculate ganglion

Which glossopharyngeal ganglion carries taste from the posterior tongue and carotid body input?

A. Otic ganglion
B. Superior glossopharyngeal ganglion
C. Inferior glossopharyngeal ganglion
D. Superior vagal ganglion

A lesion interrupting afferents from the carotid body would most likely involve the:

A. Superior glossopharyngeal ganglion
B. Inferior glossopharyngeal ganglion
C. Inferior vagal ganglion
D. Otic ganglion

Which structures are peripheral ganglia of the vagus nerve?

A. Otic and geniculate
B. Spiral and Scarpa's
C. Superior and inferior vagal
D. Superior and inferior glossopharyngeal

In addition to its sensory ganglia, the vagus has parasympathetic ganglia located:

A. In branchial arches
B. In end organs
C. In the cavernous sinus
D. In the middle ear

Parasympathetic ganglia in vagal end organs supply the:

A. Head, lungs, digestive tract
B. Pelvic viscera, lungs, foregut
C. Heart, lungs, foregut
D. Heart, lungs, digestive tract

Vagal parasympathetic supply extends through the digestive tract to the level of the:

A. Duodenum
B. Ileocecal valve
C. Splenic flexure
D. Rectosigmoid junction

Which ganglion contains primary sensory neurons for sensation from the pharynx, outer ear, and infratentorial meninges?

A. Superior vagal ganglion
B. Inferior vagal ganglion
C. Superior glossopharyngeal ganglion
D. Geniculate ganglion

Which ganglion contains sensory neuron cell bodies for laryngeal sensation, taste from the epiglottis, and reflex inputs from the aortic arch?

A. Superior vagal ganglion
B. Inferior glossopharyngeal ganglion
C. Inferior vagal ganglion
D. Geniculate ganglion

Olfactory stimuli reach the olfactory bulbs by nerves traversing the:

A. Optic canal
B. Jugular foramen
C. Cribriform plate
D. Superior orbital fissure

Short olfactory nerves synapse in the:

A. Optic chiasm
B. Olfactory bulbs
C. Mammillary bodies
D. Lateral geniculate nucleus

The optic nerve carries visual information from the retina primarily to the:

A. Medial geniculate nucleus
B. Superior colliculus
C. Lateral geniculate nucleus
D. Olfactory bulb

In addition to the lateral geniculate nucleus, the optic nerve also projects to:

A. Extrageniculate pathways
B. Solitary nuclei
C. Trigeminal nuclei
D. Cochlear nuclei

Which functional categories apply to CN III?

A. Somatic sensory, parasympathetic
B. Branchial motor, sensory
C. Somatic motor, parasympathetic
D. Somatic motor, special sensory

A patient cannot elevate the eyelid and has impaired adduction, elevation, and depression of one eye. Which CN III functional component is affected?

A. General sensory
B. Somatic motor
C. Branchial motor
D. Visceral sensory

CN III somatic motor fibers innervate levator palpebrae superioris and all extraocular muscles except:

A. Superior oblique and lateral rectus
B. Inferior oblique and lateral rectus
C. Superior oblique and medial rectus
D. Lateral rectus and superior rectus

A patient has mydriasis and poor accommodation for near vision after a CN III lesion. Which component is impaired?

A. Somatic sensory
B. Parasympathetic
C. Branchial motor
D. Special sensory

CN III parasympathetic fibers innervate the:

A. Dilator pupillae and ciliary muscles
B. Superior tarsal and ciliary muscles
C. Pupil constrictor and ciliary muscles
D. Lateral rectus and and ciliary muscles

Which cranial nerves traverse the cavernous sinus and then exit via the superior orbital fissure?

A. II, III, IV
B. III, IV, VI
C. III, V2, VI
D. II, IV, VI

The trigeminal nerve has which functional categories?

A. Somatic motor, parasympathetic
B. General sensory, parasympathetic
C. General sensory, branchial motor
D. Special sensory, branchial motor

Trigeminal general somatic sensory function includes all of the following except:

A. Touch
B. Pain
C. Taste
D. Vibration

The trigeminal nerve carries general sensation from the face, mouth, meninges, and the anterior two-thirds of the tongue for:

A. Taste
B. Smell
C. Hearing
D. Touch

Which area receives general somatic sensory innervation from the trigeminal nerve?

A. Posterior tongue taste buds
B. Nasal sinuses
C. Carotid body
D. Epiglottic mucosa

A patient loses facial pain, temperature, vibration, and joint position sense after a trigeminal lesion. Which functional component is impaired?

A. General somatic sensory
B. Parasympathetic
C. Branchial motor
D. Visceral sensory

The branchial motor component of CN V innervates the:

A. Muscles of facial expression
B. Stylopharyngeus only
C. Muscles of mastication
D. Extraocular muscles

Which additional muscle is supplied by trigeminal branchial motor fibers?

A. Stapedius
B. Tensor tympani
C. Cricothyroid
D. Levator veli palatini

A patient has weak jaw closure and sound dampening abnormalities due to trigeminal motor dysfunction. Which muscle pair best matches this lesion?

A. Masseter and tensor tympani
B. Buccinator and stapedius
C. Digastric and platysma
D. Mylohyoid and stylopharyngeus

A patient has isolated loss of facial sensation but intact muscles of facial expression. Which nerve is most likely affected?

A. Facial nerve
B. Trigeminal nerve
C. Hypoglossal nerve
D. Accessory nerve

The trigeminal nerve exits the brainstem from the:

A. Dorsal midbrain
B. Pontomedullary junction
C. Rostral medulla
D. Ventrolateral pons

After leaving the brainstem, the trigeminal nerve enters which space?

A. Meckel’s cave
B. Cavernous sinus
C. Jugular foramen
D. Internal auditory meatus

Meckel’s cave lies where with respect to the cavernous sinus?

A. Medial to cavernous sinus
B. Anterior to sella turcica
C. Posterior and inferolateral
D. Superior to optic canal

The trigeminal ganglion is also called the:

A. Ciliary ganglion
B. Otic ganglion
C. Geniculate ganglion
D. Semilunar ganglion

The trigeminal ganglion is the:

A. Sensory ganglion of CN V
B. Motor ganglion of CN V
C. Parasympathetic ganglion of CN V
D. Gustatory ganglion of CN V

Which trigeminal division traverses the inferior part of the cavernous sinus?

A. V2
B. V1
C. V3
D. None of them

The ophthalmic division exits the skull through the:

A. Foramen rotundum
B. Foramen ovale
C. Superior orbital fissure
D. Internal auditory meatus

The maxillary division exits through the:

A. Foramen rotundum
B. Foramen ovale
C. Superior orbital fissure
D. Jugular foramen

The mandibular division exits through the:

A. Foramen spinosum
B. Foramen lacerum
C. Foramen rotundum
D. Foramen ovale

Pain from the supratentorial dura is carried primarily by:

A. CN X
B. C1-C2 roots
C. Facial nerve
D. Trigeminal nerve

Pain from the infratentorial dura is carried primarily by:

A. CN X and upper cervical roots
B. Trigeminal nerve
C. Facial and glossopharyngeal nerves
D. Optic nerve and C8 roots

The trigeminal nuclear complex extends from the:

A. Midbrain to lower cervical cord
B. Midbrain to upper cervical cord
C. Medulla to upper cervical cord
D. Midbrain to lower cervical cord

Which is part of the trigeminal nuclear complex?

A. Mesencephalic nucleus
B. Nucleus ambiguus
C. Solitary nucleus
D. Inferior olivary nucleus

Which is not part of the trigeminal nuclear complex?

A. Mesencephalic nucleus
B. Chief sensory nucleus
C. Spinal trigeminal nucleus
D. Dorsal column nucleus

The chief trigeminal sensory nucleus is most analogous to the:

A. Anterolateral system
B. Posterior column system
C. Spinocerebellar system
D. Vestibulospinal system

The spinal trigeminal nucleus is most analogous to the:

A. Posterior column nuclei
B. Medial longitudinal fasciculus
C. Anterolateral system
D. Corticobulbar tract

The mesencephalic trigeminal nucleus mediates primarily:

A. Proprioception
B. Fine touch
C. Temperature
D. Taste

A patient loses jaw position sense but preserves facial pain and temperature. Which trigeminal nucleus is most likely affected?

A. Chief sensory nucleus
B. Spinal trigeminal nucleus
C. Nucleus ambiguus
D. Mesencephalic nucleus

Fine touch and dental pressure are processed mainly in the:

A. Mesencephalic nucleus
B. Chief sensory nucleus
C. Spinal trigeminal nucleus
D. Solitary nucleus

The chief trigeminal sensory nucleus projects to the thalamus via the:

A. Medial lemniscus
B. Spinothalamic tract
C. Trigeminothalamic tract
D. Trigeminal lemniscus

Crude touch, pain, and temperature from the face are processed mainly in the:

A. Mesencephalic nucleus
B. Chief sensory nucleus
C. Ventral posterior nucleus
D. Spinal trigeminal nucleus

The main ascending pathway from the spinal trigeminal nucleus is the:

A. Trigeminothalamic tract
B. Dorsal spinocerebellar tract
C. Medial lemniscus
D. Trigeminal lemniscus

Both the chief sensory and spinal trigeminal systems relay chiefly in which thalamic nucleus?

A. VPL
B. LGN
C. VPM
D. Pulvinar

Posterior column nuclei relay to the thalamus through the:

A. Spinothalamic tract
B. Medial lemniscus
C. Trigeminothalamic tract
D. Trigeminal lemniscus

The principal thalamic target of the posterior column nuclei is the:

A. VPM
B. LGN
C. Pulvinar
D. VPL

The dorsal horn sends crude touch, pain, and temperature to the thalamus through the:

A. Medial lemniscus
B. Trigeminal lemniscus
C. Spinothalamic tract
D. Corticospinal tract

The major thalamic relay for dorsal horn somatosensory pathways is the:

A. VPL
B. VPM
C. LGN
D. MGN

The trigeminothalamic and spinothalamic tracts:

A. Decussate in cortex
B. End in cerebellum
C. Travel together to thalamus
D. Carry only proprioception

The pain is most often confined to which trigeminal distribution in classic trigeminal neuralgia?

A. V1 and V2
B. V1 only
C. V2 or V3
D. V1 or V3

Initial treatment of classic trigeminal neuralgia is:

A. Carbamazepine
B. Pimozide
C. Baclofen
D. Lamotrigine

A small unilateral brainstem lesion damages the spinal trigeminal nucleus. Which sensory deficit is most expected?

A. Contralateral facial vibration loss
B. Bilateral facial pain loss
C. Contralateral facial pain loss
D. Ipsilateral facial pain loss

The facial nerve carries branchial motor and parasympathetic fibers. Which additional sensory components does it also carry?

A. Special somatic and visceral
B. General visceral and proprioceptive
C. Proprioceptive and general somatic
D. Visceral sensory and general somatic

Which set is supplied by the branchial motor component of CN VII?

A. Masseter, temporalis, tensor tympani
B. Facial expression, stapedius, digastric
C. Orbicularis oculi, levator, recti
D. Stylopharyngeus, palate, pharynx

Which pairing best matches the facial nerve’s visceral sensory and general somatic sensory functions?

A. Posterior tongue; middle ear
B. Anterior tongue taste; outer ear
C. Epiglottic taste; external nose
D. Soft palate; auricle cartilage

The facial nucleus lies in which functional column, and how is it positioned relative to the trigeminal motor nucleus?

A. Somatic motor; more rostral
B. Parasympathetic; more lateral
C. Visceral sensory; more dorsal
D. Branchial motor; more caudal

The facial colliculus is produced by facial fascicles looping around the:

A. Hypoglossal nucleus
B. Abducens nucleus
C. Vestibular nuclei
D. Solitary nucleus

A patient has a cortical stroke affecting corticobulbar fibers to the facial nucleus. Which weakness pattern is most likely?

A. Contralateral lower face weakness
B. Ipsilateral whole face weakness
C. Bilateral forehead paralysis
D. Ipsilateral lower face weakness

A lesion of the facial nucleus, intrapontine fascicles, or peripheral facial nerve most likely causes:

A. Contralateral forehead sparing
B. Ipsilateral whole face weakness
C. Contralateral whole face weakness
D. Bilateral lower face weakness

At the genu, the facial nerve turns in what direction to enter the facial canal within the temporal bone?

A. Anteriorly and superiorly
B. Medially and rostrally
C. Laterally and caudally
D. Posteriorly and inferiorly

Which statement about the geniculate ganglion is correct?

A. It contains taste and meatal sensory neurons
B. It contains parasympathetic postganglionics
C. It lies in Meckel’s cave
D. It contains cochlear afferents

The greater petrosal nerve leaves CN VII at the genu to reach which ganglion?

A. Otic ganglion
B. Sphenopalatine ganglion
C. Ciliary ganglion
D. Submandibular ganglion

The chorda tympani leaves the facial nerve just before the stylomastoid foramen and exits the skull through the:

A. Foramen ovale
B. Stylomastoid foramen
C. Petrotympanic fissure
D. Internal auditory meatus

After leaving the skull, the chorda tympani joins which nerve to reach the submandibular ganglion?

A. Lingual nerve
B. Inferior alveolar nerve
C. Auriculotemporal nerve
D. Buccal nerve

The most common facial nerve disorder, characterized by rapid involvement of all facial divisions with later gradual recovery, is:

A. Ramsay Hunt syndrome
B. Trigeminal neuralgia
C. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia
D. Bell’s palsy

In Bell’s palsy, incomplete eye closure and reduced tearing most directly increase the risk of:

A. Retinal detachment
B. Corneal ulceration
C. Lens dislocation
D. Acute glaucoma

Appropriate supportive management for the ocular complication of Bell’s palsy includes:

A. Lubricating drops and nighttime taping
B. Acetazolamide and eye patching
C. Topical atropine and shield
D. Immediate tarsorrhaphy only

The afferent limb of the corneal reflex is carried primarily by:

A. Maxillary nerve
B. Mandibular nerve
C. Facial nerve
D. Ophthalmic nerve

Corneal reflex afferents project to which nuclei?

A. Mesencephalic and chief sensory
B. Chief sensory and vestibular
C. Chief sensory and spinal trigeminal
D. Spinal trigeminal and solitary

The efferent limb of the corneal reflex travels in CN VII to contract the:

A. Frontalis muscle
B. Orbicularis oculi
C. Levator palpebrae
D. Orbicularis oris

Which functional category best describes CN VIII?

A. Special somatic sensory
B. General somatic sensory
C. Special visceral sensory
D. Branchial motor

Sound transmission to the oval window is amplified primarily by the:

A. Cochlear duct
B. Tympanic membrane
C. Semicircular canals
D. Middle ear ossicles

The inner ear labyrinth consists of the cochlea, vestibule, and:

A. Ampullae
B. Semicircular canals
C. Auditory tube
D. Middle ear cavity

Why do central lesions proximal to the cochlear nuclei usually not cause unilateral hearing loss?

A. Auditory cortex is monaural
B. Cochlear nuclei are bilateral
C. Vestibular fibers compensate
D. Auditory pathways ascend bilaterally

Fibers from the dorsal cochlear nucleus cross the pontine tegmentum and ascend in the contralateral:

A. Lateral lemniscus
B. Medial lemniscus
C. Trigeminal lemniscus
D. Medial longitudinal fasciculus

The primary auditory cortex is Brodmann area 41 on Heschl’s gyri, while vestibular hair cells for angular acceleration sit on the ridge within each ampulla called the:

A. Macula
B. Organ of Corti
C. Stria vascularis
D. Crista ampullaris

The mesencephalic trigeminal nucleus is unique because its primary sensory neuron cell bodies lie in the:

A. Central nervous system
B. Trigeminal ganglion
C. Geniculate ganglion
D. Dorsal root ganglion

A unilateral corticobulbar lesion affecting upper motor neuron input to the trigeminal motor nucleus usually causes which deficit?

A. Contralateral jaw paralysis
B. Ipsilateral jaw paralysis
C. Bilateral chewing weakness
D. No major jaw deficit

The medial vestibulospinal tract descends mainly to the:

A. Lumbar cord
B. Cervical cord
C. Sacral cord
D. Entire spinal cord

The lateral vestibulospinal tract is important for maintaining:

A. Balance and extensor tone
B. Facial tone and chewing
C. Hearing and equilibrium
D. Jaw tone and posture

The medial longitudinal fasciculus primarily connects nuclei involved in:

A. Swallowing and speech
B. Hearing and taste
C. Eye movements and vestibular function
D. Facial movement and gag

Conductive hearing loss is caused mainly by abnormalities of the:

A. Cochlea or eighth nerve
B. Brainstem auditory nuclei
C. Auditory cortex
D. External canal or middle ear

The most common cerebellopontine angle tumor is:

A. Meningioma
B. Acoustic neuroma
C. Ependymoma
D. Medulloblastoma

Most cases of vertigo are caused by disorders of the:

A. Inner ear
B. Brainstem
C. Cerebellum
D. Cerebral cortex

A patient has brief vertigo lasting seconds when rolling over in bed. The most likely diagnosis is:

A. Vestibular neuritis
B. Acoustic neuroma
C. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
D. Meniere disease

Recurrent vertigo with fluctuating progressive hearing loss and tinnitus is most characteristic of:

A. Bell palsy
B. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia
C. Benign positional vertigo
D. Meniere disease

Which disorder can produce symptoms resembling Meniere disease?

A. Autoimmune inner ear disease
B. Acoustic neuroma
C. Central pontine lesion
D. Trigeminal neuropathy

The only muscle supplied by the branchial motor component of CN IX is the:

A. Cricothyroid
B. Stylopharyngeus
C. Tensor veli palatini
D. Palatoglossus

The branchial motor component of CN IX arises from the:

A. Hypoglossal nucleus
B. Dorsal motor nucleus
C. Nucleus ambiguus
D. Solitary nucleus

Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers of CN IX arise from the:

A. Superior salivatory nucleus
B. Edinger-Westphal nucleus
C. Dorsal motor nucleus
D. Inferior salivatory nucleus

The general visceral sensory portion of CN IX conveys input from carotid body:

A. Pain fibers and touch
B. Baroreceptors and chemoreceptors
C. Taste fibers only
D. Auditory receptors only

Taste from the posterior one-third of the tongue is carried by CN IX to the:

A. Spinal trigeminal nucleus
B. Inferior salivatory nucleus
C. Rostral nucleus solitarius
D. Chief sensory nucleus

The vagal trigone is formed by the:

A. Nucleus ambiguus
B. Inferior salivatory nucleus
C. Hypoglossal nucleus
D. Dorsal motor nucleus X

The branchial motor component of the vagus controls nearly all pharyngeal muscles, upper esophageal muscles, and the muscles of the:

A. Larynx
B. Tongue
C. Orbit
D. Middle ear

Unconscious visceral sensation from the aortic arch, thoracoabdominal viscera, and cardiorespiratory system is carried mainly by:

A. Glossopharyngeal nerve
B. Vagus nerve
C. Trigeminal nerve
D. Facial nerve

A lower motor neuron lesion of CN XI most likely causes:

A. Contralateral shoulder weakness and head-turn weakness
B. Bilateral shoulder weakness and head-turn weakness
C. Ipsilateral shrug and head-turn weakness
D. Contralateral shrug and head-turn weakness

A lesion in the primary motor cortex affecting hypoglossal control causes:

A. Ipsilateral tongue weakness
B. Bilateral tongue weakness
C. No tongue deficit
D. Contralateral tongue weakness

A lesion of the hypoglossal nucleus or exiting nerve causes:

A. Ipsilateral tongue weakness
B. Contralateral tongue weakness
C. Bilateral tongue weakness
D. Palatal weakness only

With unilateral tongue weakness, the tongue deviates on protrusion toward the:

A. Normal side
B. Weak side
C. Midline only
D. Opposite shoulder

A glomus jugulare tumor most often impairs which cranial nerves?

A. VII, VIII, IX
B. VIII, IX, X
C. IX, X, XI
D. X, XI, XII

Hoarseness is often caused by:

A. Trigeminal motor weakness
B. Carotid body dysfunction
C. Acoustic neuroma
D. Mechanical vocal cord lesions

Breathiness of the voice is caused by:

A. Incomplete vocal cord adduction
B. Excess vocal cord tension
C. Tongue fasciculations
D. Reduced palatal elevation

In a unilateral lesion of CN X or nucleus ambiguus, the uvula deviates toward the:

A. Weak side
B. Normal side
C. Midline
D. Lesion side first

In the stage curtain sign from a unilateral vagal lesion, the soft palate on the affected side:

A. Elevates excessively
B. Twitches rhythmically
C. Hangs abnormally low
D. Deviates upward only