Print Options

Card layout: ?

← Back to notecard set|Easy Notecards home page

Instructions for Side by Side Printing
  1. Print the notecards
  2. Fold each page in half along the solid vertical line
  3. Cut out the notecards by cutting along each horizontal dotted line
  4. Optional: Glue, tape or staple the ends of each notecard together
  1. Verify Front of pages is selected for Viewing and print the front of the notecards
  2. Select Back of pages for Viewing and print the back of the notecards
    NOTE: Since the back of the pages are printed in reverse order (last page is printed first), keep the pages in the same order as they were after Step 1. Also, be sure to feed the pages in the same direction as you did in Step 1.
  3. Cut out the notecards by cutting along each horizontal and vertical dotted line
To print: Ctrl+PPrint as a list

180 notecards = 45 pages (4 cards per page)

Viewing:

Neuro 12

front 1

Which junction marks the rostral limit of the brainstem?

A. Pontomedullary junction
B. Pontomesencephalic junction
C. Midbrain-diencephalic junction
D. Cervicomedullary junction

back 1

C. Midbrain-diencephalic junction

front 2

The midbrain joins the pons at which junction?

A. Pontomesencephalic junction
B. Midbrain-diencephalic junction
C. Cervicomedullary junction
D. Obex

back 2

A. Pontomesencephalic junction

front 3

The pons meets the medulla at the:

A. Midbrain-diencephalic junction
B. Obex
C. Cervicomedullary junction
D. Pontomedullary junction

back 3

D. Pontomedullary junction

front 4

A lesion at the caudal brainstem near the foramen magnum is located at the:

A. Pontomedullary junction
B. Cervicomedullary junction
C. Pontomesencephalic junction
D. Interpeduncular fossa

back 4

B. Cervicomedullary junction

front 5

The paired dorsal midbrain elevations are the:

A. Superior and inferior colliculi
B. Pyramids and olives
C. Gracile and cuneate nuclei
D. Facial and vagal trigones

back 5

A. Superior and inferior colliculi

front 6

The interpeduncular fossa lies between the:

A. Inferior olivary nuclei
B. Middle cerebellar peduncles
C. Superior colliculi
D. Cerebral peduncles

back 6

D. Cerebral peduncles

front 7

A patient develops ptosis, mydriasis, and a “down and out” eye from vascular compression of CN III. The nerve normally passes between the:

A. AICA and PICA
B. PCA and SCA
C. ACA and MCA
D. Basilar and vertebral

back 7

B. PCA and SCA

front 8

Which cranial nerve uniquely exits dorsally from the brainstem?

A. CN III
B. CN VI
C. CN IV
D. CN IX

back 8

C. CN IV

front 9

The abducens nerve exits at the:

A. Ventral pontomedullary junction
B. Dorsal pontomedullary junction
C. Ventrolateral pons
D. Ventromedial pons

back 9

A. Ventral pontomedullary junction

front 10

The cerebellopontine angle is the exit region for:

A. CN III and CN IV
B. CN V and CN VI
C. CN VII, VIII, and IX
D. CN XI and CN XII

back 10

C. CN VII, VIII, and IX

front 11

Which set exits ventrolaterally from the pontomedullary junction and rostral medulla?

A. III, IV, V, VI
B. VII, VIII, IX, X
C. I, II, III, IV
D. XI, XII, I, II

back 11

B. VII, VIII, IX, X

front 12

A lesion of the facial colliculus most directly involves the:

A. Hypoglossal nucleus and XII fibers
B. Solitary nucleus and IX fibers
C. Dorsal motor X and X fibers
D. Abducens nucleus and VII fibers

back 12

D. Abducens nucleus and VII fibers

front 13

The hypoglossal trigone and vagal trigone overlie the:

A. XII nucleus and X dorsal motor nucleus
B. VI nucleus and VII fibers
C. Nucleus ambiguus and solitary tract
D. Gracile and cuneate nuclei

back 13

A. XII nucleus and dorsal motor X

front 14

The point where the fourth ventricle narrows into the spinal cord:

A. Aqueduct
B. Central canal
C. Obex
D. Median aperture

back 14

C. Obex

front 15

In adults (unlike in kids) the central canal distal to the obex is usually:

A. Widely patent
B. Closed
C. Bifurcated
D. Externally draining

back 15

B. Closed

front 16

In the rostral medulla, bulges lateral to the pyramids are the:

A. Inferior olivary nuclei
B. Facial colliculi
C. Posterior columns
D. Vestibular nuclei

back 16

A. Inferior olivary nuclei

front 17

On the dorsal surface of the caudal medulla, one expects to see:

A. Inferior olives and pyramids
B. Cerebral peduncles and fossa
C. Facial colliculi and obex
D. Posterior columns and nuclei

back 17

D. Posterior columns and nuclei

front 18

The spinal accessory nerve arises from multiple rootlets along the:

A. Rostral medulla
B. Caudal pons
C. Upper cervical cord
D. Lower thoracic cord

back 18

C. Upper cervical cord

front 19

The hypoglossal nerve exits:

A. Lateral to olive
B. Between pyramid and olive
C. Dorsal to pyramid
D. At cerebellopontine angle

back 19

B. Between pyramid and olive

front 20

The oculomotor nerve emerges ventrally from the:

A. Optic canal
B. Superior orbital fissure
C. Pontomedullary junction
D. Interpeduncular fossa

back 20

D. Interpeduncular fossa

front 21

The olfactory nerves traverse the:

A. Cribriform plate
B. Optic canal
C. Foramen rotundum
D. Superior orbital fissure

back 21

A. Cribriform plate

front 22

The optic nerve passes through the:

A. Cribriform plate
B. Jugular foramen
C. Optic canal
D. Foramen lacerum

back 22

C. Optic canal

front 23

Which set enters the orbit through the superior orbital fissure?

A. II, III, IV, V2
B. III, IV, VI, V1
C. I, II, III, IV
D. V2, V3, VII, IX

back 23

B. III, IV, VI, V1

front 24

A foramen magnum mass compressing the caudal brainstem would most likely be near the:

A. Superior colliculus
B. Optic chiasm
C. Facial colliculus
D. Pyramidal decussation

back 24

D. Pyramidal decussation

front 25

The ventral surface of the midbrain is formed chiefly by the:

A. Cerebral peduncles
B. Inferior olives
C. Middle cerebellar peduncles
D. Superior cerebellar peduncles

back 25

A. Cerebral peduncles

front 26

Which foramen normally transmits CN VII out to the muscles of facial expression?

A. Jugular foramen
B. Internal auditory meatus
C. Hypoglossal canal
D. Stylomastoid foramen

back 26

D. Stylomastoid foramen

front 27

CN VII and CN VIII both leave the cranial cavity together through the:

A. Jugular foramen
B. Stylomastoid foramen
C. Internal auditory meatus
D. Hypoglossal canal

back 27

C. Internal auditory meatus

front 28

A vestibular schwannoma in the auditory canal would first affect a nerve that innervates the:

A. Tongue intrinsic muscles
B. Inner ear
C. Pharyngeal constrictors
D. Muscles of mastication

back 28

B. Inner ear

front 29

CN VIII primarily innervates structures located:

A. Within temporal bone
B. In the orbit
C. In the pterygopalatine fossa
D. At the jugular bulb

back 29

A. Within temporal bone

front 30

Which set of cranial nerves traverses the jugular foramen?

A. VII, VIII, IX
B. IX, X, XI
C. X, XI, XII
D. V, VII, IX

back 30

B. IX, X, XI

front 31

A patient with dysphagia, hoarseness, and weak SCM after a skull base lesion most likely has compression at the:

A. Hypoglossal canal
B. Stylomastoid foramen
C. Jugular foramen
D. Internal auditory meatus

back 31

C. Jugular foramen

front 32

The hypoglossal nerve exits the skull via the:

A. Jugular foramen
B. Hypoglossal canal
C. Foramen ovale
D. Stylomastoid foramen

back 32

B. Hypoglossal canal

front 33

The hypoglossal canal lies just anterior to the:

A. Optic canal
B. Carotid canal
C. Internal auditory meatus
D. Foramen magnum

back 33

D. Foramen magnum

front 34

Which grouping contains only somatic motor cranial nerve nuclei?

A. III, IV, VI, XI, XII
B. V, VII, IX, X, XI
C. III, VII, IX, XI, X
D. V, VI, X, XI, XII

back 34

A. III, IV, VI, XI, XII

front 35

Which muscle group is innervated by nuclei associated embryologically with occipital somites?

A. Muscles of mastication
B. Extraocular and tongue muscles
C. Pharyngeal constrictors
D. Muscles of facial expression

back 35

B. Extraocular and tongue muscles

front 36

Visceral motor cranial nuclei are divided into which two columns?

A. Somatic sensory, branchial motor
B. Parasympathetic, branchial motor
C. Visceral sensory, somatic motor
D. Trigeminal, solitary

back 36

B. Parasympathetic, branchial motor

front 37

Motor Nucleus of V (Trigeminal), Facial Nucleus (VII), and Nucleus Ambiguus (IX, X, XI):

A. Somatic sensory
B. Branchial motor
C. Visceral sensory
D. Solitary motor

back 37

B. Branchial motor

front 38

A lesion causing weak jaw closure most directly involves which branchial motor nucleus?

A. Facial nucleus
B. Nucleus ambiguus
C. Trigeminal motor nucleus
D. Spinal accessory nucleus

back 38

C. Trigeminal motor nucleus

front 39

The nucleus ambiguus contributes branchial motor fibers to:

A. III and VII and XI
B. IX and X and XI
C. V and VII and XI
D. X and XII and XI

back 39

B. IX and X and XI

front 40

Which muscle group is innervated by branchial motor nuclei?

A. Iris sphincter, ciliary muscle
B. Myocardium, bronchioles
C. Tongue intrinsic muscles
D. Pharynx and larynx

back 40

D. Pharynx and larynx

front 41

Branchial motor nuclei innervate all of the following except:

A. Middle ear muscles
B. Muscles of mastication
C. Facial expression muscles
D. Extraocular muscles

back 41

D. Extraocular muscles

front 42

Which nucleus provides preganglionic parasympathetic fibers through CN III?

A. Superior salivatory nucleus
B. Inferior salivatory nucleus
C. Edinger-Westphal nucleus
D. Dorsal motor nucleus X

back 42

C. Edinger-Westphal nucleus

front 43

Which nuclei are parasympathetic?

A. V motor and VII
B. III, VII, IX, X
C. V, VII, IX, XII
D. III, IV, VI, XII

back 43

B. III, VII, IX, X

front 44

A lesion causing impaired salivation through CN IX most likely involves the:

A. Superior salivatory nucleus
B. Edinger-Westphal nucleus
C. Inferior salivatory nucleus
D. Trigeminal motor nucleus

back 44

C. Inferior salivatory nucleus

front 45

Parasympathetic cranial nuclei send what type of fibers to peripheral targets?

A. Postganglionic sympathetic fibers
B. Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers
C. General sensory afferents
D. Branchial efferent fibers

back 45

B. Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers

front 46

Which nucleus receives primarily taste input from CN VII?

A. Caudal nucleus solitarius
B. Trigeminal sensory nucleus
C. Rostral nucleus solitarius
D. Nucleus ambiguus

back 46

C. Rostral nucleus solitarius

front 47

The gustatory nucleus is another name for the:

A. Rostral nucleus solitarius
B. Dorsal motor nucleus X
C. Inferior salivatory nucleus
D. Trigeminal ganglion

back 47

A. Rostral nucleus solitarius

front 48

Taste afferents to the rostral nucleus solitarius arise mainly from:

A. CN V
B. CN VII
C. CN IX
D. CN X

back 48

B. CN VII

front 49

The caudal nucleus solitarius is chiefly concerned with:

A. Tongue proprioception
B. Facial pain transmission
C. Cardiorespiratory regulation
D. Extraocular coordination

back 49

C. Cardiorespiratory regulation

front 50

Visceral afferents to the caudal nucleus solitarius travel primarily in:

A. CN V and VII
B. CN III and IX
C. CN IX and X
D. CN XI and XII

back 50

C. CN IX and X

front 51

Which sensory modality is mediated by trigeminal sensory nuclei?

A. Taste from epiglottis
B. Vision from retina
C. Hearing from cochlea
D. Facial pain and temperature

back 51

D. Facial pain and temperature

front 52

Which set includes only mixed cranial nerves?

A. I, II, VIII
B. III, IV, VI
C. V, VII, IX, X
D. VIII, IX, X, XI

back 52

C. V, VII, IX, X

front 53

A patient has isolated parasympathetic loss to the iris and ciliary muscle. Which peripheral ganglion is implicated?

A. Geniculate ganglion
B. Trigeminal ganglion
C. Ciliary ganglion
D. Submandibular ganglion

back 53

C. Ciliary ganglion

front 54

The ciliary ganglion is associated with which cranial nerve?

A. CN II
B. CN III
C. CN V
D. CN VII

back 54

B. CN III

front 55

Which structure contains primary sensory neuron cell bodies for the face, mouth, sinuses, and meninges?

A. Geniculate ganglion
B. Ciliary ganglion
C. Trigeminal ganglion
D. Sphenopalatine ganglion

back 55

C. Trigeminal ganglion

front 56

The trigeminal ganglion is the peripheral ganglion of:

A. CN III
B. CN V
C. CN VII
D. CN IX

back 56

B. CN V

front 57

Which set contains only peripheral ganglia of CN VII?

A. Ciliary, trigeminal, geniculate
B. Geniculate, submandibular, sphenopalatine
C. Otic, ciliary, submandibular
D. Geniculate, otic, trigeminal

back 57

B. Geniculate, submandibular, sphenopalatine

front 58

A lesion in the internal auditory meatus could affect both facial expression and hearing because it transmits:

A. CN VII and VIII
B. CN IX and X
C. CN X and XI
D. CN V and VII

back 58

A. CN VII and VIII

front 59

A patient has dry eyes and dry nasal mucosa after a facial nerve parasympathetic lesion. Which ganglion is most directly involved?

A. Otic ganglion
B. Geniculate ganglion
C. Sphenopalatine ganglion
D. Submandibular ganglion

back 59

C. Sphenopalatine ganglion

front 60

A lesion affecting facial parasympathetics causes reduced secretion from the submandibular and sublingual glands. Which ganglion is affected?

A. Otic ganglion
B. Submandibular ganglion
C. Geniculate ganglion
D. Sphenopalatine ganglion

back 60

B. Submandibular ganglion

front 61

A patient loses taste from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue and also has decreased sensation near the outer ear. Which ganglion is most likely involved?

A. Spiral ganglion
B. Geniculate ganglion
C. Superior vagal ganglion
D. Inferior glossopharyngeal ganglion

back 61

B. Geniculate ganglion

front 62

Which pair are the peripheral ganglia of CN VIII?

A. Spiral and otic
B. Scarpa's and geniculate
C. Spiral and Scarpa's
D. Superior and inferior vagal

back 62

C. Spiral and Scarpa's

front 63

A patient with isolated sensorineural hearing loss has damage to primary sensory neuron cell bodies in the:

A. Spiral ganglion
B. Scarpa's ganglion
C. Geniculate ganglion
D. Trigeminal ganglion

back 63

A. Spiral ganglion

front 64

A patient with severe vertigo has damage to the peripheral ganglion containing primary vestibular sensory neurons. Which ganglion is this?

A. Spiral ganglion
B. Inferior vagal ganglion
C. Scarpa's ganglion
D. Geniculate ganglion

back 64

C. Scarpa's ganglion

front 65

Which structure is a peripheral ganglion of the glossopharyngeal nerve?

A. Ciliary ganglion
B. Otic ganglion
C. Scarpa's ganglion
D. Sphenopalatine ganglion

back 65

B. Otic ganglion

front 66

Which list includes all peripheral ganglia associated with CN IX?

A. Otic, superior, inferior glossopharyngeal
B. Otic, geniculate, trigeminal
C. Superior, inferior, vagal
D. Ciliary, superior, inferior glossopharyngeal

back 66

A. Otic, superior, inferior glossopharyngeal

front 67

Parasympathetic fibers to the parotid gland synapse in the:

A. Submandibular ganglion
B. Otic ganglion
C. Geniculate ganglion
D. Superior vagal ganglion

back 67

B. Otic ganglion

front 68

A patient with diminished parotid secretion has a lesion involving which ganglion?

A. Sphenopalatine ganglion
B. Otic ganglion
C. Inferior vagal ganglion
D. Spiral ganglion

back 68

B. Otic ganglion

front 69

Primary sensory neuron cell bodies for sensation from the middle ear, external auditory meatus, pharynx, and posterior one-third of the tongue are found in the:

A. Inferior glossopharyngeal ganglion
B. Superior glossopharyngeal ganglion
C. Superior vagal ganglion
D. Geniculate ganglion

back 69

B. Superior glossopharyngeal ganglion

front 70

Which ganglion contains sensory neurons for the posterior one-third of the tongue but not taste or carotid body input?

A. Superior glossopharyngeal ganglion
B. Inferior glossopharyngeal ganglion
C. Inferior vagal ganglion
D. Geniculate ganglion

back 70

A. Superior glossopharyngeal ganglion

front 71

Which glossopharyngeal ganglion carries taste from the posterior tongue and carotid body input?

A. Otic ganglion
B. Superior glossopharyngeal ganglion
C. Inferior glossopharyngeal ganglion
D. Superior vagal ganglion

back 71

C. Inferior glossopharyngeal ganglion

front 72

A lesion interrupting afferents from the carotid body would most likely involve the:

A. Superior glossopharyngeal ganglion
B. Inferior glossopharyngeal ganglion
C. Inferior vagal ganglion
D. Otic ganglion

back 72

B. Inferior glossopharyngeal ganglion

front 73

Which structures are peripheral ganglia of the vagus nerve?

A. Otic and geniculate
B. Spiral and Scarpa's
C. Superior and inferior vagal
D. Superior and inferior glossopharyngeal

back 73

C. Superior and inferior vagal

front 74

In addition to its sensory ganglia, the vagus has parasympathetic ganglia located:

A. In branchial arches
B. In end organs
C. In the cavernous sinus
D. In the middle ear

back 74

B. In end organs

front 75

Parasympathetic ganglia in vagal end organs supply the:

A. Head, lungs, digestive tract
B. Pelvic viscera, lungs, foregut
C. Heart, lungs, foregut
D. Heart, lungs, digestive tract

back 75

D. Heart, lungs, digestive tract

front 76

Vagal parasympathetic supply extends through the digestive tract to the level of the:

A. Duodenum
B. Ileocecal valve
C. Splenic flexure
D. Rectosigmoid junction

back 76

C. Splenic flexure

front 77

Which ganglion contains primary sensory neurons for sensation from the pharynx, outer ear, and infratentorial meninges?

A. Superior vagal ganglion
B. Inferior vagal ganglion
C. Superior glossopharyngeal ganglion
D. Geniculate ganglion

back 77

A. Superior vagal ganglion

front 78

Which ganglion contains sensory neuron cell bodies for laryngeal sensation, taste from the epiglottis, and reflex inputs from the aortic arch?

A. Superior vagal ganglion
B. Inferior glossopharyngeal ganglion
C. Inferior vagal ganglion
D. Geniculate ganglion

back 78

C. Inferior vagal ganglion

front 79

Olfactory stimuli reach the olfactory bulbs by nerves traversing the:

A. Optic canal
B. Jugular foramen
C. Cribriform plate
D. Superior orbital fissure

back 79

C. Cribriform plate

front 80

Short olfactory nerves synapse in the:

A. Optic chiasm
B. Olfactory bulbs
C. Mammillary bodies
D. Lateral geniculate nucleus

back 80

B. Olfactory bulbs

front 81

The optic nerve carries visual information from the retina primarily to the:

A. Medial geniculate nucleus
B. Superior colliculus
C. Lateral geniculate nucleus
D. Olfactory bulb

back 81

C. Lateral geniculate nucleus

front 82

In addition to the lateral geniculate nucleus, the optic nerve also projects to:

A. Extrageniculate pathways
B. Solitary nuclei
C. Trigeminal nuclei
D. Cochlear nuclei

back 82

A. Extrageniculate pathways

front 83

Which functional categories apply to CN III?

A. Somatic sensory, parasympathetic
B. Branchial motor, sensory
C. Somatic motor, parasympathetic
D. Somatic motor, special sensory

back 83

C. Somatic motor, parasympathetic

front 84

A patient cannot elevate the eyelid and has impaired adduction, elevation, and depression of one eye. Which CN III functional component is affected?

A. General sensory
B. Somatic motor
C. Branchial motor
D. Visceral sensory

back 84

B. Somatic motor

front 85

CN III somatic motor fibers innervate levator palpebrae superioris and all extraocular muscles except:

A. Superior oblique and lateral rectus
B. Inferior oblique and lateral rectus
C. Superior oblique and medial rectus
D. Lateral rectus and superior rectus

back 85

A. Superior oblique and lateral rectus

front 86

A patient has mydriasis and poor accommodation for near vision after a CN III lesion. Which component is impaired?

A. Somatic sensory
B. Parasympathetic
C. Branchial motor
D. Special sensory

back 86

B. Parasympathetic

front 87

CN III parasympathetic fibers innervate the:

A. Dilator pupillae and ciliary muscles
B. Superior tarsal and ciliary muscles
C. Pupil constrictor and ciliary muscles
D. Lateral rectus and and ciliary muscles

back 87

C. Pupil constrictor and ciliary muscles

front 88

Which cranial nerves traverse the cavernous sinus and then exit via the superior orbital fissure?

A. II, III, IV
B. III, IV, VI
C. III, V2, VI
D. II, IV, VI

back 88

B. III, IV, VI

front 89

The trigeminal nerve has which functional categories?

A. Somatic motor, parasympathetic
B. General sensory, parasympathetic
C. General sensory, branchial motor
D. Special sensory, branchial motor

back 89

C. General sensory, branchial motor

front 90

Trigeminal general somatic sensory function includes all of the following except:

A. Touch
B. Pain
C. Taste
D. Vibration

back 90

C. Taste

front 91

The trigeminal nerve carries general sensation from the face, mouth, meninges, and the anterior two-thirds of the tongue for:

A. Taste
B. Smell
C. Hearing
D. Touch

back 91

D. Touch

front 92

Which area receives general somatic sensory innervation from the trigeminal nerve?

A. Posterior tongue taste buds
B. Nasal sinuses
C. Carotid body
D. Epiglottic mucosa

back 92

B. Nasal sinuses

front 93

A patient loses facial pain, temperature, vibration, and joint position sense after a trigeminal lesion. Which functional component is impaired?

A. General somatic sensory
B. Parasympathetic
C. Branchial motor
D. Visceral sensory

back 93

A. General somatic sensory

front 94

The branchial motor component of CN V innervates the:

A. Muscles of facial expression
B. Stylopharyngeus only
C. Muscles of mastication
D. Extraocular muscles

back 94

C. Muscles of mastication

front 95

Which additional muscle is supplied by trigeminal branchial motor fibers?

A. Stapedius
B. Tensor tympani
C. Cricothyroid
D. Levator veli palatini

back 95

B. Tensor tympani

front 96

A patient has weak jaw closure and sound dampening abnormalities due to trigeminal motor dysfunction. Which muscle pair best matches this lesion?

A. Masseter and tensor tympani
B. Buccinator and stapedius
C. Digastric and platysma
D. Mylohyoid and stylopharyngeus

back 96

A. Masseter and tensor tympani

front 97

A patient has isolated loss of facial sensation but intact muscles of facial expression. Which nerve is most likely affected?

A. Facial nerve
B. Trigeminal nerve
C. Hypoglossal nerve
D. Accessory nerve

back 97

B. Trigeminal nerve

front 98

The trigeminal nerve exits the brainstem from the:

A. Dorsal midbrain
B. Pontomedullary junction
C. Rostral medulla
D. Ventrolateral pons

back 98

D. Ventrolateral pons

front 99

After leaving the brainstem, the trigeminal nerve enters which space?

A. Meckel’s cave
B. Cavernous sinus
C. Jugular foramen
D. Internal auditory meatus

back 99

A. Meckel’s cave

front 100

Meckel’s cave lies where with respect to the cavernous sinus?

A. Medial to cavernous sinus
B. Anterior to sella turcica
C. Posterior and inferolateral
D. Superior to optic canal

back 100

C. Posterior and inferolateral

front 101

The trigeminal ganglion is also called the:

A. Ciliary ganglion
B. Otic ganglion
C. Geniculate ganglion
D. Semilunar ganglion

back 101

D. Semilunar ganglion

front 102

The trigeminal ganglion is the:

A. Sensory ganglion of CN V
B. Motor ganglion of CN V
C. Parasympathetic ganglion of CN V
D. Gustatory ganglion of CN V

back 102

A. Sensory ganglion of CN V

front 103

Which trigeminal division traverses the inferior part of the cavernous sinus?

A. V2
B. V1
C. V3
D. None of them

back 103

B. V1

front 104

The ophthalmic division exits the skull through the:

A. Foramen rotundum
B. Foramen ovale
C. Superior orbital fissure
D. Internal auditory meatus

back 104

C. Superior orbital fissure

front 105

The maxillary division exits through the:

A. Foramen rotundum
B. Foramen ovale
C. Superior orbital fissure
D. Jugular foramen

back 105

A. Foramen rotundum

front 106

The mandibular division exits through the:

A. Foramen spinosum
B. Foramen lacerum
C. Foramen rotundum
D. Foramen ovale

back 106

D. Foramen ovale

front 107

Pain from the supratentorial dura is carried primarily by:

A. CN X
B. C1-C2 roots
C. Facial nerve
D. Trigeminal nerve

back 107

D. Trigeminal nerve

front 108

Pain from the infratentorial dura is carried primarily by:

A. CN X and upper cervical roots
B. Trigeminal nerve
C. Facial and glossopharyngeal nerves
D. Optic nerve and C8 roots

back 108

A. CN X and upper cervical roots

front 109

The trigeminal nuclear complex extends from the:

A. Midbrain to lower cervical cord
B. Midbrain to upper cervical cord
C. Medulla to upper cervical cord
D. Midbrain to lower cervical cord

back 109

B. Midbrain to upper cervical cord

front 110

Which is part of the trigeminal nuclear complex?

A. Mesencephalic nucleus
B. Nucleus ambiguus
C. Solitary nucleus
D. Inferior olivary nucleus

back 110

A. Mesencephalic nucleus

front 111

Which is not part of the trigeminal nuclear complex?

A. Mesencephalic nucleus
B. Chief sensory nucleus
C. Spinal trigeminal nucleus
D. Dorsal column nucleus

back 111

D. Dorsal column nucleus

front 112

The chief trigeminal sensory nucleus is most analogous to the:

A. Anterolateral system
B. Posterior column system
C. Spinocerebellar system
D. Vestibulospinal system

back 112

B. Posterior column system

front 113

The spinal trigeminal nucleus is most analogous to the:

A. Posterior column nuclei
B. Medial longitudinal fasciculus
C. Anterolateral system
D. Corticobulbar tract

back 113

C. Anterolateral system

front 114

The mesencephalic trigeminal nucleus mediates primarily:

A. Proprioception
B. Fine touch
C. Temperature
D. Taste

back 114

A. Proprioception

front 115

A patient loses jaw position sense but preserves facial pain and temperature. Which trigeminal nucleus is most likely affected?

A. Chief sensory nucleus
B. Spinal trigeminal nucleus
C. Nucleus ambiguus
D. Mesencephalic nucleus

back 115

D. Mesencephalic nucleus

front 116

Fine touch and dental pressure are processed mainly in the:

A. Mesencephalic nucleus
B. Chief sensory nucleus
C. Spinal trigeminal nucleus
D. Solitary nucleus

back 116

B. Chief sensory nucleus

front 117

The chief trigeminal sensory nucleus projects to the thalamus via the:

A. Medial lemniscus
B. Spinothalamic tract
C. Trigeminothalamic tract
D. Trigeminal lemniscus

back 117

D. Trigeminal lemniscus

front 118

Crude touch, pain, and temperature from the face are processed mainly in the:

A. Mesencephalic nucleus
B. Chief sensory nucleus
C. Ventral posterior nucleus
D. Spinal trigeminal nucleus

back 118

D. Spinal trigeminal nucleus

front 119

The main ascending pathway from the spinal trigeminal nucleus is the:

A. Trigeminothalamic tract
B. Dorsal spinocerebellar tract
C. Medial lemniscus
D. Trigeminal lemniscus

back 119

A. Trigeminothalamic tract

front 120

Both the chief sensory and spinal trigeminal systems relay chiefly in which thalamic nucleus?

A. VPL
B. LGN
C. VPM
D. Pulvinar

back 120

C. VPM

front 121

Posterior column nuclei relay to the thalamus through the:

A. Spinothalamic tract
B. Medial lemniscus
C. Trigeminothalamic tract
D. Trigeminal lemniscus

back 121

B. Medial lemniscus

front 122

The principal thalamic target of the posterior column nuclei is the:

A. VPM
B. LGN
C. Pulvinar
D. VPL

back 122

D. VPL

front 123

The dorsal horn sends crude touch, pain, and temperature to the thalamus through the:

A. Medial lemniscus
B. Trigeminal lemniscus
C. Spinothalamic tract
D. Corticospinal tract

back 123

C. Spinothalamic tract

front 124

The major thalamic relay for dorsal horn somatosensory pathways is the:

A. VPL
B. VPM
C. LGN
D. MGN

back 124

A. VPL

front 125

The trigeminothalamic and spinothalamic tracts:

A. Decussate in cortex
B. End in cerebellum
C. Travel together to thalamus
D. Carry only proprioception

back 125

C. Travel together to thalamus

front 126

The pain is most often confined to which trigeminal distribution in classic trigeminal neuralgia?

A. V1 and V2
B. V1 only
C. V2 or V3
D. V1 or V3

back 126

C. V2 or V3

front 127

Initial treatment of classic trigeminal neuralgia is:

A. Carbamazepine
B. Pimozide
C. Baclofen
D. Lamotrigine

back 127

A. Carbamazepine

front 128

A small unilateral brainstem lesion damages the spinal trigeminal nucleus. Which sensory deficit is most expected?

A. Contralateral facial vibration loss
B. Bilateral facial pain loss
C. Contralateral facial pain loss
D. Ipsilateral facial pain loss

back 128

D. Ipsilateral facial pain loss

front 129

The facial nerve carries branchial motor and parasympathetic fibers. Which additional sensory components does it also carry?

A. Special somatic and visceral
B. General visceral and proprioceptive
C. Proprioceptive and general somatic
D. Visceral sensory and general somatic

back 129

D. Visceral sensory and general somatic

front 130

Which set is supplied by the branchial motor component of CN VII?

A. Masseter, temporalis, tensor tympani
B. Facial expression, stapedius, digastric
C. Orbicularis oculi, levator, recti
D. Stylopharyngeus, palate, pharynx

back 130

B. Facial expression, stapedius, digastric

front 131

Which pairing best matches the facial nerve’s visceral sensory and general somatic sensory functions?

A. Posterior tongue; middle ear
B. Anterior tongue taste; outer ear
C. Epiglottic taste; external nose
D. Soft palate; auricle cartilage

back 131

B. Anterior tongue taste; outer ear

front 132

The facial nucleus lies in which functional column, and how is it positioned relative to the trigeminal motor nucleus?

A. Somatic motor; more rostral
B. Parasympathetic; more lateral
C. Visceral sensory; more dorsal
D. Branchial motor; more caudal

back 132

D. Branchial motor; more caudal

front 133

The facial colliculus is produced by facial fascicles looping around the:

A. Hypoglossal nucleus
B. Abducens nucleus
C. Vestibular nuclei
D. Solitary nucleus

back 133

B. Abducens nucleus

front 134

A patient has a cortical stroke affecting corticobulbar fibers to the facial nucleus. Which weakness pattern is most likely?

A. Contralateral lower face weakness
B. Ipsilateral whole face weakness
C. Bilateral forehead paralysis
D. Ipsilateral lower face weakness

back 134

A. Contralateral lower face weakness

front 135

A lesion of the facial nucleus, intrapontine fascicles, or peripheral facial nerve most likely causes:

A. Contralateral forehead sparing
B. Ipsilateral whole face weakness
C. Contralateral whole face weakness
D. Bilateral lower face weakness

back 135

B. Ipsilateral whole face weakness

front 136

At the genu, the facial nerve turns in what direction to enter the facial canal within the temporal bone?

A. Anteriorly and superiorly
B. Medially and rostrally
C. Laterally and caudally
D. Posteriorly and inferiorly

back 136

D. Posteriorly and inferiorly

front 137

Which statement about the geniculate ganglion is correct?

A. It contains taste and meatal sensory neurons
B. It contains parasympathetic postganglionics
C. It lies in Meckel’s cave
D. It contains cochlear afferents

back 137

A. It contains taste and meatal sensory neurons

front 138

The greater petrosal nerve leaves CN VII at the genu to reach which ganglion?

A. Otic ganglion
B. Sphenopalatine ganglion
C. Ciliary ganglion
D. Submandibular ganglion

back 138

B. Sphenopalatine ganglion

front 139

The chorda tympani leaves the facial nerve just before the stylomastoid foramen and exits the skull through the:

A. Foramen ovale
B. Stylomastoid foramen
C. Petrotympanic fissure
D. Internal auditory meatus

back 139

C. Petrotympanic fissure

front 140

After leaving the skull, the chorda tympani joins which nerve to reach the submandibular ganglion?

A. Lingual nerve
B. Inferior alveolar nerve
C. Auriculotemporal nerve
D. Buccal nerve

back 140

A. Lingual nerve

front 141

The most common facial nerve disorder, characterized by rapid involvement of all facial divisions with later gradual recovery, is:

A. Ramsay Hunt syndrome
B. Trigeminal neuralgia
C. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia
D. Bell’s palsy

back 141

D. Bell’s palsy

front 142

In Bell’s palsy, incomplete eye closure and reduced tearing most directly increase the risk of:

A. Retinal detachment
B. Corneal ulceration
C. Lens dislocation
D. Acute glaucoma

back 142

B. Corneal ulceration

front 143

Appropriate supportive management for the ocular complication of Bell’s palsy includes:

A. Lubricating drops and nighttime taping
B. Acetazolamide and eye patching
C. Topical atropine and shield
D. Immediate tarsorrhaphy only

back 143

A. Lubricating drops and nighttime taping

front 144

The afferent limb of the corneal reflex is carried primarily by:

A. Maxillary nerve
B. Mandibular nerve
C. Facial nerve
D. Ophthalmic nerve

back 144

D. Ophthalmic nerve

front 145

Corneal reflex afferents project to which nuclei?

A. Mesencephalic and chief sensory
B. Chief sensory and vestibular
C. Chief sensory and spinal trigeminal
D. Spinal trigeminal and solitary

back 145

C. Chief sensory and spinal trigeminal

front 146

The efferent limb of the corneal reflex travels in CN VII to contract the:

A. Frontalis muscle
B. Orbicularis oculi
C. Levator palpebrae
D. Orbicularis oris

back 146

B. Orbicularis oculi

front 147

Which functional category best describes CN VIII?

A. Special somatic sensory
B. General somatic sensory
C. Special visceral sensory
D. Branchial motor

back 147

A. Special somatic sensory

front 148

Sound transmission to the oval window is amplified primarily by the:

A. Cochlear duct
B. Tympanic membrane
C. Semicircular canals
D. Middle ear ossicles

back 148

D. Middle ear ossicles

front 149

The inner ear labyrinth consists of the cochlea, vestibule, and:

A. Ampullae
B. Semicircular canals
C. Auditory tube
D. Middle ear cavity

back 149

B. Semicircular canals

front 150

Why do central lesions proximal to the cochlear nuclei usually not cause unilateral hearing loss?

A. Auditory cortex is monaural
B. Cochlear nuclei are bilateral
C. Vestibular fibers compensate
D. Auditory pathways ascend bilaterally

back 150

D. Auditory pathways ascend bilaterally

front 151

Fibers from the dorsal cochlear nucleus cross the pontine tegmentum and ascend in the contralateral:

A. Lateral lemniscus
B. Medial lemniscus
C. Trigeminal lemniscus
D. Medial longitudinal fasciculus

back 151

A. Lateral lemniscus

front 152

The primary auditory cortex is Brodmann area 41 on Heschl’s gyri, while vestibular hair cells for angular acceleration sit on the ridge within each ampulla called the:

A. Macula
B. Organ of Corti
C. Stria vascularis
D. Crista ampullaris

back 152

D. Crista ampullaris

front 153

The mesencephalic trigeminal nucleus is unique because its primary sensory neuron cell bodies lie in the:

A. Central nervous system
B. Trigeminal ganglion
C. Geniculate ganglion
D. Dorsal root ganglion

back 153

A. Central nervous system

front 154

A unilateral corticobulbar lesion affecting upper motor neuron input to the trigeminal motor nucleus usually causes which deficit?

A. Contralateral jaw paralysis
B. Ipsilateral jaw paralysis
C. Bilateral chewing weakness
D. No major jaw deficit

back 154

D. No major jaw deficit

front 155

The medial vestibulospinal tract descends mainly to the:

A. Lumbar cord
B. Cervical cord
C. Sacral cord
D. Entire spinal cord

back 155

B. Cervical cord

front 156

The lateral vestibulospinal tract is important for maintaining:

A. Balance and extensor tone
B. Facial tone and chewing
C. Hearing and equilibrium
D. Jaw tone and posture

back 156

A. Balance and extensor tone

front 157

The medial longitudinal fasciculus primarily connects nuclei involved in:

A. Swallowing and speech
B. Hearing and taste
C. Eye movements and vestibular function
D. Facial movement and gag

back 157

C. Eye movements and vestibular function

front 158

Conductive hearing loss is caused mainly by abnormalities of the:

A. Cochlea or eighth nerve
B. Brainstem auditory nuclei
C. Auditory cortex
D. External canal or middle ear

back 158

D. External canal or middle ear

front 159

The most common cerebellopontine angle tumor is:

A. Meningioma
B. Acoustic neuroma
C. Ependymoma
D. Medulloblastoma

back 159

B. Acoustic neuroma

front 160

Most cases of vertigo are caused by disorders of the:

A. Inner ear
B. Brainstem
C. Cerebellum
D. Cerebral cortex

back 160

A. Inner ear

front 161

A patient has brief vertigo lasting seconds when rolling over in bed. The most likely diagnosis is:

A. Vestibular neuritis
B. Acoustic neuroma
C. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
D. Meniere disease

back 161

C. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo

front 162

Recurrent vertigo with fluctuating progressive hearing loss and tinnitus is most characteristic of:

A. Bell palsy
B. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia
C. Benign positional vertigo
D. Meniere disease

back 162

D. Meniere disease

front 163

Which disorder can produce symptoms resembling Meniere disease?

A. Autoimmune inner ear disease
B. Acoustic neuroma
C. Central pontine lesion
D. Trigeminal neuropathy

back 163

A. Autoimmune inner ear disease

front 164

The only muscle supplied by the branchial motor component of CN IX is the:

A. Cricothyroid
B. Stylopharyngeus
C. Tensor veli palatini
D. Palatoglossus

back 164

B. Stylopharyngeus

front 165

The branchial motor component of CN IX arises from the:

A. Hypoglossal nucleus
B. Dorsal motor nucleus
C. Nucleus ambiguus
D. Solitary nucleus

back 165

C. Nucleus ambiguus

front 166

Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers of CN IX arise from the:

A. Superior salivatory nucleus
B. Edinger-Westphal nucleus
C. Dorsal motor nucleus
D. Inferior salivatory nucleus

back 166

D. Inferior salivatory nucleus

front 167

The general visceral sensory portion of CN IX conveys input from carotid body:

A. Pain fibers and touch
B. Baroreceptors and chemoreceptors
C. Taste fibers only
D. Auditory receptors only

back 167

B. Baroreceptors and chemoreceptors

front 168

Taste from the posterior one-third of the tongue is carried by CN IX to the:

A. Spinal trigeminal nucleus
B. Inferior salivatory nucleus
C. Rostral nucleus solitarius
D. Chief sensory nucleus

back 168

C. Rostral nucleus solitarius

front 169

The vagal trigone is formed by the:

A. Nucleus ambiguus
B. Inferior salivatory nucleus
C. Hypoglossal nucleus
D. Dorsal motor nucleus X

back 169

D. Dorsal motor nucleus X

front 170

The branchial motor component of the vagus controls nearly all pharyngeal muscles, upper esophageal muscles, and the muscles of the:

A. Larynx
B. Tongue
C. Orbit
D. Middle ear

back 170

A. Larynx

front 171

Unconscious visceral sensation from the aortic arch, thoracoabdominal viscera, and cardiorespiratory system is carried mainly by:

A. Glossopharyngeal nerve
B. Vagus nerve
C. Trigeminal nerve
D. Facial nerve

back 171

B. Vagus nerve

front 172

A lower motor neuron lesion of CN XI most likely causes:

A. Contralateral shoulder weakness and head-turn weakness
B. Bilateral shoulder weakness and head-turn weakness
C. Ipsilateral shrug and head-turn weakness
D. Contralateral shrug and head-turn weakness

back 172

C. Ipsilateral shrug and head-turn weakness

front 173

A lesion in the primary motor cortex affecting hypoglossal control causes:

A. Ipsilateral tongue weakness
B. Bilateral tongue weakness
C. No tongue deficit
D. Contralateral tongue weakness

back 173

D. Contralateral tongue weakness

front 174

A lesion of the hypoglossal nucleus or exiting nerve causes:

A. Ipsilateral tongue weakness
B. Contralateral tongue weakness
C. Bilateral tongue weakness
D. Palatal weakness only

back 174

A. Ipsilateral tongue weakness

front 175

With unilateral tongue weakness, the tongue deviates on protrusion toward the:

A. Normal side
B. Weak side
C. Midline only
D. Opposite shoulder

back 175

B. Weak side

front 176

A glomus jugulare tumor most often impairs which cranial nerves?

A. VII, VIII, IX
B. VIII, IX, X
C. IX, X, XI
D. X, XI, XII

back 176

C. IX, X, XI

front 177

Hoarseness is often caused by:

A. Trigeminal motor weakness
B. Carotid body dysfunction
C. Acoustic neuroma
D. Mechanical vocal cord lesions

back 177

D. Mechanical vocal cord lesions

front 178

Breathiness of the voice is caused by:

A. Incomplete vocal cord adduction
B. Excess vocal cord tension
C. Tongue fasciculations
D. Reduced palatal elevation

back 178

A. Incomplete vocal cord adduction

front 179

In a unilateral lesion of CN X or nucleus ambiguus, the uvula deviates toward the:

A. Weak side
B. Normal side
C. Midline
D. Lesion side first

back 179

B. Normal side

front 180

In the stage curtain sign from a unilateral vagal lesion, the soft palate on the affected side:

A. Elevates excessively
B. Twitches rhythmically
C. Hangs abnormally low
D. Deviates upward only

back 180

C. Hangs abnormally low