Phys 57 Flashcards

Which list correctly names the 3 anatomical lobes of the cerebellum?
A. Anterior, posterior, flocculonodular
B. Vermis, intermediate, lateral
C. Dentate, interposed, fastigial
D. Molecular, Purkinje, granule

A patient has severe truncal ataxia and vestibular-type imbalance after a cerebellar lesion. Which lobe is most likely involved?
A. Anterior lobe
B. Posterior lobe
C. Flocculonodular lobe
D. Intermediate zone

A midline cerebellar lesion causes poor control of neck, shoulders, and hips during stance. Which region is most affected?
A. Dentate nucleus
B. Vermis
C. Lateral zone
D. Interposed nucleus

Dyscoordination is most prominent in the hands, fingers, feet, and toes after a cerebellar hemispheric lesion. Which zone is involved?
A. Vermis
B. Flocculus
C. Lateral zone
D. Intermediate zone

A pianist can generate force normally but cannot smoothly organize multistep finger sequences. Which cerebellar region is most implicated?
A. Vermis
B. Fastigial nucleus
C. Lateral zone
D. Intermediate zone

Each individual cerebellar fold is called a:
A. Sulcus
B. Gyrus
C. Folium
D. Fissure

A pontine lesion interrupts cortical input to the contralateral lateral cerebellar hemisphere. Which pathway is disrupted?
A. Olivocerebellar tract
B. Reticulocerebellar fibers
C. Corticopontocerebellar pathway
D. Vestibulocerebellar fibers

Which cortical regions give rise to the corticopontocerebellar pathway?
A. Motor, premotor, somatosensory cortices
B. Visual, auditory, limbic cortices
C. Broca, Wernicke, insular cortices
D. Cingulate, hippocampal, olfactory cortices

Fibers from the right cerebral motor cortex reach which cerebellar target via the corticopontocerebellar system?
A. Right vermis
B. Left lateral hemisphere
C. Right lateral hemisphere
D. Left fastigial nucleus

Which tract arises from the inferior olive and is driven by motor cortex, basal ganglia, reticular formation, and spinal cord inputs?
A. Vestibulocerebellar tract
B. Reticulocerebellar tract
C. Corticopontocerebellar tract
D. Olivocerebellar tract

Vestibulocerebellar fibers terminate primarily in which combination?
A. Vermis and dentate
B. Flocculonodular lobe and fastigial
C. Intermediate zone and interposed
D. Lateral hemisphere and dentate

Fibers from the brainstem reticular formation project mainly to which cerebellar region?
A. Vermis
B. Dentate
C. Flocculus
D. Lateral zone

The dorsal spinocerebellar tract enters the cerebellum through the:
A. Middle cerebellar peduncle
B. Superior cerebellar peduncle
C. Inferior cerebellar peduncle
D. Cerebral peduncle

The ventral spinocerebellar tract enters the cerebellum through the:
A. Inferior cerebellar peduncle
B. Superior cerebellar peduncle
C. Middle cerebellar peduncle
D. Restiform body only

Dorsal spinocerebellar fibers terminate mainly in the:
A. Bilateral lateral hemispheres
B. Contralateral dentate nucleus
C. Ipsilateral vermis and intermediate
D. Flocculonodular lobe only

Ventral spinocerebellar fibers terminate:
A. Ipsilateral vermis only
B. In both cerebellar sides
C. Only in dentate nuclei
D. Only in flocculonodular lobe

Selective loss of muscle spindle input would most directly diminish signaling in which pathway?
A. Ventral spinocerebellar
B. Reticulocerebellar
C. Dorsal spinocerebellar
D. Olivocerebellar

The dorsal spinocerebellar tract chiefly informs the cerebellum about:
A. Visual target motion
B. Planned speech output
C. Retinal error signals
D. Contraction, tension, proprioceptive status

Which source most strongly excites the ventral spinocerebellar tract?
A. Anterior horn motor signals
B. Primary visual cortex discharge
C. Cochlear nuclear output
D. Thalamocortical sensory relay

The ventral spinocerebellar tract best conveys which kind of information?
A. Nociceptive limb afference
B. Efferent copy motor drive
C. Vestibular hair-cell activity
D. Olfactory contextual input

Spinoreticular and spino-olivary pathways relay through which structures before reaching the cerebellum?
A. Red nucleus and thalamus
B. Reticular formation and inferior olive
C. Pontine nuclei and tectum
D. Basal ganglia and hypothalamus

Cerebellar afferent signals project to which two locations within the cerebellum?
A. Cortex and thalamus
B. Vermis and flocculus
C. Deep nuclei and overlying cortex
D. White matter and peduncles

All cerebellar inputs ultimately terminate in the:
A. Deep cerebellar nuclei
B. Purkinje layer
C. Molecular layer
D. Inferior olive

Which deep cerebellar nucleus corresponds to the lateral zone?
A. Fastigial
B. Interposed
C. Dentate
D. Globose

Which deep nuclei together constitute the interposed nucleus?
A. Dentate and fastigial
B. Emboliform and globose
C. Fastigial and globose
D. Dentate and emboliform

The vermis is most closely associated with which deep cerebellar nucleus?
A. Dentate
B. Interposed
C. Emboliform
D. Fastigial

The functional unit of cerebellar cortex is best described as:
A. Granule cell and basket cell
B. Purkinje cell and deep nucleus
C. Mossy fiber and Golgi cell
D. Climbing fiber and stellate cell

Which sequence correctly lists the cerebellar cortical layers from superficial to deep?
A. Purkinje, molecular, granule
B. Granule, molecular, Purkinje
C. Molecular, Purkinje, granule
D. Molecular, granule, Purkinje

Which fibers provide the two major afferent inputs to the cerebellum, and what is their net effect?
A. Climbing and mossy; excitatory
B. Climbing and basket; inhibitory
C. Mossy and Purkinje; inhibitory
D. Golgi and stellate; excitatory

All climbing fibers entering the cerebellum originate from the:
A. Red nucleus
B. Pontine nuclei
C. Inferior olive
D. Vestibular nuclei

After entering the cerebellum, a climbing fiber continues from the deep nuclear region toward the:
A. Cerebellar peduncle
B. Outer cerebellar cortex
C. Fastigial nucleus
D. Inferior medulla

A climbing fiber discharge in a Purkinje cell classically produces which pattern?
A. Brief repetitive simple spike
B. Single prolonged complex spike
C. Silent hyperpolarizing pause
D. Tetanic basket-cell burst

Climbing fibers synapse directly on which cells?
A. Granule cells
B. Purkinje cells
C. Basket cells
D. Stellate cells

Mossy fibers synapse directly on which cells?
A. Purkinje cells
B. Basket cells
C. Granule cells
D. Golgi cells

Both mossy and climbing fibers send excitatory collaterals to the:
A. Deep cerebellar nuclei
B. Purkinje layer only
C. Molecular layer only
D. Inferior olive only

Mossy fibers enter the cerebellum from:
A. Inferior olive
B. Multiple CNS sources
C. Vestibular nerve
D. Thalamus

Granule-cell axons ascend to which cerebellar cortical layer?
A. Granule layer
B. Purkinje layer
C. White matter
D. Molecular layer

In the molecular layer, granule-cell axons split and run as:
A. Climbing fibers
B. Parallel fibers
C. Basket fibers
D. Olivary fibers

Which fibers have far more total synaptic contacts with Purkinje cells?
A. Climbing fibers
B. Parallel fibers
C. Reticulocerebellar fibers
D. Rubrospinal fibers

Which cell population is far more numerous in the cerebellum?
A. Purkinje cells
B. Basket cells
C. Granule cells
D. Stellate cells

Mossy-fiber influence on Purkinje cells is best described as:
A. Strong and direct
B. Weak and indirect
C. Strong and inhibitory
D. Direct and prolonged

Why must many mossy fibers be activated together to influence a Purkinje cell?
A. Purkinje cells lack dendrites
B. Mossy synapses are inhibitory
C. Their effect is individually weak
D. They bypass granule cells

The typical Purkinje-cell response associated with mossy-fiber activation is a:
A. Complex spike
B. Plateau potential
C. Afterdischarge burst
D. Simple spike

Purkinje-cell output to the deep cerebellar nuclei is:
A. Excitatory
B. Modulatory only
C. Inhibitory
D. Electrical coupling

Under quiet resting conditions, the balance of cerebellar nuclear input is normally:
A. Slightly inhibitory
B. Exactly neutral
C. Slightly excitatory
D. Entirely Purkinje-driven

Which statement about direct Purkinje connections is correct?
A. Mossy direct, climbing indirect
B. Both direct to Purkinje
C. Both indirect to Purkinje
D. Climbing direct, mossy indirect

Which are the 2 major inhibitory interneurons of the cerebellar cortex?
A. Granule and Golgi
B. Purkinje and granule
C. Basket and stellate
D. Climbing and mossy

Basket and stellate cells are located in the:
A. Purkinje layer
B. Molecular layer
C. Granule layer
D. White matter

Basket and stellate cells are activated primarily by:
A. Climbing fibers
B. Purkinje axons
C. Vestibular fibers
D. Parallel fibers

Basket and stellate cells sharpen cerebellar signaling by producing:
A. Feedforward excitation
B. Lateral inhibition
C. Recurrent facilitation
D. Long-loop activation

The flocculonodular lobe and adjacent vermis are components of the:
A. Spinocerebellum
B. Cerebrocerebellum
C. Vestibulocerebellum
D. Olivocerebellum

The vestibulocerebellum is most important for controlling:
A. Speech initiation
B. Equilibrium and posture
C. Distal fine movement
D. Pain localization

Damage to the flocculonodular lobe most classically causes:
A. Aphasia and neglect
B. Equilibrium disturbance
C. Resting tremor
D. Spastic hemiparesis

The vestibulocerebellum helps maintain balance by providing:
A. Segmental reflex gain
B. Anticipatory correction
C. Pain suppression
D. Motor initiation

Most of the vermis plus intermediate zones form the:
A. Spinocerebellum
B. Vestibulocerebellum
C. Cerebrocerebellum
D. Archicerebellum only

The spinocerebellum is especially important for coordination of:
A. Eye convergence only
B. Distal limb movements
C. Olfactory tracking
D. Emotional expression

During movement, the spinocerebellum receives intended motor plan information from:
A. Cerebral cortex and red nucleus
B. Vestibular nuclei and thalamus
C. Inferior olive and pons
D. Basal ganglia and tectum

The actual movement feedback compared against intent in spinocerebellum comes especially from:
A. Auditory receptors
B. Distal limb proprioceptors
C. Retinal ganglion cells
D. Visceral afferents

After comparing intended with actual movement, the intermediate zone sends corrective output through the interposed nucleus to the:
A. Hypothalamus and pons
B. Cortex via thalamus
C. Basal ganglia directly
D. Vestibular ganglion only

The interposed nucleus also projects to the magnocellular red nucleus, which gives rise to the:
A. Tectospinal tract
B. Vestibulospinal tract
C. Rubrospinal tract
D. Reticulospinal tract

The large lateral cerebellar zones constitute the:
A. Spinocerebellum
B. Vestibulocerebellum
C. Cerebrocerebellum
D. Paleocerebellum

The cerebrocerebellum primarily functions to:
A. Detect body pain
B. Plan and time movement
C. Regulate wakefulness
D. Control pupillary reflexes

Destruction of the lateral cerebellar zones and dentate nuclei causes marked incoordination of:
A. Complex hand-foot-speech tasks
B. Reflex withdrawal only
C. Visual fixation only
D. Breathing rhythm only

A patient overshoots a target and the arm oscillates around it several times before stopping. This reflects failure of cerebellar:
A. Facilitation
B. Damping
C. Crossed extension
D. Sensory gating

The tremor produced by overshoot during a voluntary movement is called:
A. Resting tremor
B. Asterixis
C. Intention tremor
D. Fasciculation

Movements performed too rapidly for peripheral feedback correction are called:
A. Ataxic movements
B. Ballistic movements
C. Choreiform movements
D. Spastic movements

Without an intact cerebellum, ballistic movements are typically:
A. Fast and excessive
B. Weak and delayed
C. Hypermetric only
D. Rigid and fixed

Cerebellar impairment of the normal progression of speech is called:
A. Aphonia
B. Dysarthria
C. Dysphasia
D. Apraxia

A patient trying to gaze to one side develops oscillation of the eyes because cerebellar damping failed. This is:
A. Ophthalmoplegia
B. Cerebellar nystagmus
C. Ocular bobbing
D. Internuclear palsy

Cerebellar nystagmus is especially associated with damage to the:
A. Dentate nuclei
B. Lateral hemispheres
C. Flocculonodular lobes
D. Interposed nuclei

A patient with cerebellar damage has decreased resistance to passive movement and a “floppy” limb. Loss of which structure best explains this?
A. Dentate nucleus
B. Deep cerebellar nuclei
C. Inferior olive
D. Red nucleus

Which set correctly lists the 5 major basal ganglia structures from your notes?
A. Caudate, putamen, pallidum, nigra, subthalamic
B. Caudate, thalamus, pallidum, nigra, pons
C. Putamen, claustrum, pallidum, olive, amygdala
D. Caudate, putamen, dentate, nigra, thalamus

Almost all major motor and sensory fibers pass through which structure between the large basal ganglia masses?
A. External capsule
B. Corpus callosum
C. Internal capsule
D. Cerebral peduncle

The principal role of the basal ganglia in motor control is best described as:
A. Primary force generation
B. Visual motion processing
C. Spinal reflex inhibition
D. Complex motor patterning

Which is the best example of the motor function most associated with basal ganglia processing?
A. Detecting joint vibration
B. Initiating stretch reflex
C. Writing a signature
D. Sensing limb position

The putamen primarily receives input from:
A. Primary motor cortex only
B. Adjacent motor association areas
C. Primary visual cortex only
D. Vestibular cortex only

A patient develops continuous writhing movements of the hand and face after a focal lesion. Which structure is most likely damaged?
A. Globus pallidus
B. Putamen
C. Subthalamic nucleus
D. Substantia nigra

Sudden violent flinging of the right arm and leg most strongly suggests a lesion of the left:
A. Globus pallidus
B. Caudate nucleus
C. Subthalamic nucleus
D. Putamen

Chorea develops, what is the probelm?
A. Globus pallidus
B. Caudate nucleus
C. Subthalamic nucleus
D. Putamen

A patient has rigidity, akinesia, and tremor after degeneration of a basal ganglia structure. Which structure is most likely involved?
A. Putamen
B. Globus pallidus
C. Subthalamic nucleus
D. Substantia nigra

The caudate circuit is most important for:
A. Vestibular balance control
B. Cognitive motor control
C. Pain discrimination
D. Auditory localization

The caudate nucleus has major connections extending to:
A. Brainstem nuclei only
B. Frontal lobe only
C. All cerebral lobes
D. Cerebellar hemispheres only

Which type of cortical regions provides especially large input to the caudate nucleus?
A. Primary sensory areas
B. Visual relay nuclei
C. Association areas
D. Olfactory bulbs

Output from the caudate circuit returns mainly to:
A. Primary motor cortex
B. Accessory motor regions
C. Spinal anterior horn
D. Cerebellar cortex

Dopaminergic basal ganglia fibers originate in the:
A. Subthalamic nucleus
B. Putamen
C. Globus pallidus
D. Substantia nigra

Dopamine from the substantia nigra projects primarily to the:
A. Caudate and putamen
B. Globus pallidus only
C. Thalamus and cortex
D. Subthalamic nucleus only

In the basal ganglia circuitry from your notes, dopamine acts mainly as a(n):
A. Excitatory transmitter
B. Inhibitory transmitter
C. Modulator without effect
D. Peripheral neurotransmitter

GABAergic pathways in the basal ganglia project from the:
A. Cortex to putamen
B. Nigra to thalamus
C. Caudate/putamen to GP/nigra
D. Thalamus to caudate

The principal effect of GABA in the basal ganglia is:
A. Excitatory
B. Inhibitory
C. Neuromuscular
D. Hormonal

Cholinergic pathways in these notes project from the:
A. Cortex to caudate/putamen
B. Nigra to caudate/putamen
C. Pons to pallidum
D. Thalamus to cortex

Which neurotransmitter provides much of the major excitatory balance within basal ganglia circuits?
A. Serotonin
B. GABA
C. Dopamine
D. Glutamate

Which pair represents the 2 major clinical syndromes emphasized for basal ganglia damage?
A. Parkinson disease and Huntington disease
B. Myasthenia and ALS
C. Wilson disease and dystonia
D. Ataxia and dysmetria

Parkinson disease in your notes results from degeneration of the substantia nigra neurons that normally:
A. Release GABA to cortex
B. Release dopamine to striatum
C. Release acetylcholine to thalamus
D. Release glutamate to pallidum

The striatal target structures of the degenerating substantia nigra neurons in Parkinson disease are the:
A. Dentate and fastigial
B. Caudate and putamen
C. Globus pallidus and thalamus
D. Red nucleus and pons

Which clinical combination is most typical of Parkinson disease?
A. Chorea, aphasia, neglect
B. Ballismus, weakness, sensory loss
C. Tremor, rigidity, akinesia
D. Athetosis, nystagmus, dysmetria

Postural instability in Parkinson disease is attributed mainly to impaired:
A. Visual acuity
B. Postural reflexes
C. Cortical language output
D. Peripheral nerve conduction

Dysphagia, speech difficulty, gait disturbance, and fatigue in Parkinson disease are best categorized as:
A. Pure sensory deficits
B. Nonmotor endocrine signs
C. Associated motor symptoms
D. Cerebellar reflex losses

Loss of dopaminergic substantia nigra neurons causes rigidity because it leads to:
A. Striatal underactivity
B. Putaminal overactivity
C. Pallidal silence
D. Cerebellar denervation

In Parkinson disease, excessive excitatory drive ultimately reaches which descending control system?
A. Spinocerebellar system
B. Vestibulo-ocular system
C. Corticospinal control system
D. Dorsal column system

Why is dopamine itself not given effectively as primary replacement therapy for Parkinson disease?
A. It is rapidly nephrotoxic
B. It triggers hemiballismus
C. It cannot cross BBB
D. It blocks acetylcholine release

Which drug is given because it can cross the blood-brain barrier and serve as a dopamine precursor?
A. Haloperidol
B. L-dopa
C. GABA
D. Bromocriptine

L-dopa improves Parkinson symptoms mainly by:
A. Blocking glutamate release
B. Restoring inhibitory-excitatory balance
C. Destroying overactive putamen
D. Inhibiting motor cortex directly

Which Parkinson symptom is especially improved by L-dopa according to your notes?
A. Aphasia and neglect
B. Rigidity and akinesia
C. Ballismus and chorea
D. Vision loss and ataxia

L-deprenyl is useful in Parkinson disease because it:
A. Stimulates acetylcholine release
B. Blocks GABA receptors
C. Inhibits monoamine oxidase
D. Replaces dopamine directly

By inhibiting monoamine oxidase, L-deprenyl helps:
A. Increase dopamine availability
B. Block thalamic output
C. Decrease acetylcholine synthesis
D. Enhance cerebellar damping

Huntington disease is inherited in which pattern?
A. Autosomal recessive
B. X-linked dominant
C. Autosomal dominant
D. Mitochondrial

The major early motor manifestation of Huntington disease is:
A. Chorea
B. Rigidity
C. Ataxia
D. Athetosis

Dementia in Huntington disease typically appears:
A. Before birth
B. Later in course
C. Only in children
D. Only with treatment

Huntington disease is caused by loss of GABA-secreting neurons primarily in the:
A. Thalamus and cortex
B. Globus pallidus and nigra
C. Red nucleus and pons
D. Caudate and putamen

Loss of which neuronal population is most associated with dementia in Huntington disease?
A. Dopaminergic neurons
B. Serotonergic neurons
C. Cholinergic neurons
D. Glutamatergic neurons

In Huntington disease, loss of GABA inhibition leads to spontaneous outbursts of activity in the:
A. Globus pallidus and nigra
B. Caudate and putamen
C. Thalamus and cortex
D. Cerebellum and pons

A patient with progressive chorea and later dementia has a mutation involving:
A. Expanded CTG repeats
B. Expanded CCG repeats
C. Expanded CAG repeats
D. Expanded CGG repeats

The mutant huntingtin gene contains excess repeats encoding:
A. Glycine residues
B. Alanine residues
C. Lysine residues
D. Glutamine residues

The corticopontocerebellar pathway projects mainly to which cerebellar region?
A. Vermis
B. Fastigial nucleus
C. Intermediate zone
D. Lateral hemisphere

Corticopontocerebellar fibers ultimately reach the cerebellum on the:
A. Same side
B. Opposite side
C. Midline
D. Inferior surface

Which set includes the 3 major brainstem-origin cerebellar afferents from your notes?
A. Rubro, tecto, spinothalamic
B. Dorsal, ventral, corticospinal
C. Olivo, vestibulo, reticulo
D. Pallido, striato, nigral

Which spinocerebellar tract enters through the inferior cerebellar peduncle?
A. Ventral
B. Dorsal
C. Rostral
D. Anterior

The dorsal spinocerebellar tract terminates mainly in the:
A. Contralateral lateral zone
B. Bilateral dentate nuclei
C. Vermis and intermediate
D. Flocculonodular lobe only

The dorsal spinocerebellar tract terminates on the:
A. Opposite side
B. Same side
C. Midline only
D. Superior surface only

Which tract enters through the superior cerebellar peduncle and terminates bilaterally?
A. Dorsal spinocerebellar
B. Olivocerebellar
C. Reticulocerebellar
D. Ventral spinocerebellar

Signals in the dorsal spinocerebellar tract come mainly from:
A. Golgi tendon organs
B. Muscle spindles
C. Basal ganglia
D. Visual cortex

The ventral spinocerebellar pathway provides what type of motor feedback?
A. Rebound discharge
B. Lateral inhibition
C. Efference copy
D. Reciprocal inhibition

All deep cerebellar nuclei receive input from the cerebellar cortex and:
A. Deep afferent tracts
B. Basal ganglia loops
C. Corticospinal collaterals
D. Vestibular ganglia only

One characteristic of both Purkinje cells and deep nuclear cells is that they normally fire:
A. Intermittently
B. Phasically
C. Continuously
D. Randomly

After a movement begins, cerebellar circuitry helps prevent overshoot by generating:
A. Positive feedback
B. Negative feedback
C. Feedforward silence
D. Tonic facilitation

Basket and stellate cells are best described as:
A. Excitatory long-axon cells
B. Inhibitory short-axon cells
C. Dopaminergic projection cells
D. Cholinergic relay cells

Which cerebellar functional division consists of the flocculonodular lobes and adjacent vermis and is most responsible for equilibrium?
A. Spinocerebellum
B. Cerebrocerebellum
C. Vestibulocerebellum
D. Neocerebellum

Which cerebellar division includes most of the vermis plus the adjacent intermediate zones and coordinates mainly distal limb movement?
A. Vestibulocerebellum
B. Spinocerebellum
C. Cerebrocerebellum
D. Flocculocerebellum

Which cerebellar division is formed by the large lateral hemispheric zones and helps plan sequential voluntary movements in advance?
A. Spinocerebellum
B. Vestibulocerebellum
C. Archicerebellum
D. Cerebrocerebellum

The cerebrocerebellum receives virtually all of its input from the:
A. Cerebral motor-related cortex
B. Vestibular ganglia only
C. Inferior olivary nucleus
D. Spinal dorsal horn

The cerebrocerebellum sends output back upward to the brain mainly to:
A. Generate reflexes
B. Plan movement sequences
C. Maintain consciousness
D. Detect pain location

Advance planning of movement by the cerebrocerebellum is called:
A. Efference copy
B. Lateral inhibition
C. Motor imagery
D. Reciprocal innervation

In vestibulocerebellar dysfunction, equilibrium is especially impaired during:
A. Sleep
B. Rapid directional movements
C. Quiet standing only
D. Slow repetitive tapping

The vestibulocerebellum helps maintain balance by calculating in advance:
A. Muscle ATP stores
B. Future body position
C. Visual cortex output
D. Basal ganglia firing

In cerebellar destruction, when overshoot occurs, the cerebrum eventually initiates a corrective movement in the:
A. Same direction
B. Upward direction
C. Reverse direction
D. Ipsilateral limb only

Which term describes a movement that is fully preplanned to travel a set distance and then stop?
A. Ballistic
B. Ataxic
C. Dysmetric
D. Choreiform

Cerebellar nystagmus occurs especially with damage to the:
A. Dentate nucleus
B. Flocculonodular lobes
C. Globus pallidus
D. Caudate nucleus

Loss of which deep cerebellar nuclei particularly causes decreased tone on the side of the lesion?
A. Fastigial and vestibular
B. Dentate and interposed
C. Red and olivary
D. Caudate and putamen

A lesion affecting the basal ganglia circuit that receives input mainly from areas adjacent to primary motor cortex most directly involves the:
A. Caudate
B. Putamen
C. Thalamus
D. Substantia nigra

Lesions of the globus pallidus classically produce spontaneous continuous writhing movements called:
A. Chorea
B. Tremor
C. Athetosis
D. Ballismus

A lesion of the subthalamus most classically causes:
A. Hemiballismus
B. Dysarthria
C. Dysmetria
D. Rigidity

Multiple small lesions in the putamen produce flicking movements of the face and hands called:
A. Athetosis
B. Intention tremor
C. Chorea
D. Dystonia

Which basal ganglia structure plays a major role in the cognitive control of motor activity?
A. Putamen
B. Caudate nucleus
C. Subthalamic nucleus
D. Globus pallidus

In the caudate motor-control loop, signals from the caudate nucleus next pass primarily to the:
A. Internal globus pallidus
B. Dentate nucleus
C. Red nucleus
D. Subthalamus only

After the internal globus pallidus, caudate-circuit output relays through which thalamic nuclei?
A. Anterior and medial
B. Geniculate nuclei
C. Ventroanterior and ventrolateral
D. Pulvinar and intralaminar

Caudate-circuit output returns mainly to which cortical regions?
A. Primary sensory cortex only
B. Prefrontal, premotor, supplementary motor
C. Visual, auditory, olfactory
D. Primary motor cortex only

A patient can feel an object in the hand but cannot identify it despite intact sensation. A lesion of which cortex best explains this?
A. Primary motor cortex
B. Occipital association cortex
C. Posterior parietal cortex
D. Prefrontal cortex

Inability to accurately perceive objects through otherwise normal sensory mechanisms is called:
A. Apraxia
B. Agnosia
C. Ataxia
D. Aphasia

Severe damage to the right posterior parietal cortex most classically causes:
A. Neglect syndrome
B. Broca aphasia
C. Hemiballismus
D. Resting tremor

GABA neurons in cortical-basal ganglia-cortical loops make these loops function mainly as:
A. Positive feedback loops
B. Negative feedback loops
C. Feedforward loops
D. Vestibular loops

The main effect of these GABA-mediated negative feedback loops is to:
A. Increase oscillation
B. Destabilize posture
C. Lend motor stability
D. Trigger ballistic output

By inhibiting monoamine oxidase, L-deprenyl helps reduce destruction of:
A. Acetylcholine
B. Dopamine
C. GABA
D. Glutamate

The earliest motor abnormality in Huntington disease is classically:
A. Flicking movements
B. Cogwheel rigidity
C. Resting tremor
D. Decerebrate posturing

As Huntington disease progresses, patients develop severe body distortional movements and:
A. Hemianopia
B. Dementia
C. Hemiballismus
D. Dysarthria only

The abnormal movements of Huntington disease are believed to result primarily from loss of GABA-secreting neurons in the:
A. Red nucleus and pons
B. Caudate and putamen
C. Cerebellum and olive
D. Pallidum and thalamus

Huntington disease also involves loss of which other neuronal type in many parts of the brain?
A. Dopamine-secreting neurons
B. Serotonin-secreting neurons
C. Acetylcholine-secreting neurons
D. Norepinephrine-secreting neurons

At the brainstem level, which structure smooths rapid postural movements and prevents abnormal oscillations?
A. Basal ganglia
B. Thalamus
C. Cerebellum
D. Hippocampus

The cerebellum functions mainly when what type of muscle movements are required?
A. Painful
B. Rapid
C. Passive
D. Isometric only

One major function of the basal ganglia is to help the cortex execute subconscious but:
A. Random
B. Learned
C. Reflexive
D. Sensory

Another major function of the basal ganglia is to help plan multiple parallel and sequential movement:
A. Patterns
B. Reflexes
C. Lesions
D. Peduncles