Print Options

Card layout: ?

← Back to notecard set|Easy Notecards home page

Instructions for Side by Side Printing
  1. Print the notecards
  2. Fold each page in half along the solid vertical line
  3. Cut out the notecards by cutting along each horizontal dotted line
  4. Optional: Glue, tape or staple the ends of each notecard together
  1. Verify Front of pages is selected for Viewing and print the front of the notecards
  2. Select Back of pages for Viewing and print the back of the notecards
    NOTE: Since the back of the pages are printed in reverse order (last page is printed first), keep the pages in the same order as they were after Step 1. Also, be sure to feed the pages in the same direction as you did in Step 1.
  3. Cut out the notecards by cutting along each horizontal and vertical dotted line
To print: Ctrl+PPrint as a list

160 notecards = 40 pages (4 cards per page)

Viewing:

Phys 57

front 1

Which list correctly names the 3 anatomical lobes of the cerebellum?
A. Anterior, posterior, flocculonodular
B. Vermis, intermediate, lateral
C. Dentate, interposed, fastigial
D. Molecular, Purkinje, granule

back 1

A. Anterior, posterior, flocculonodular

front 2

A patient has severe truncal ataxia and vestibular-type imbalance after a cerebellar lesion. Which lobe is most likely involved?
A. Anterior lobe
B. Posterior lobe
C. Flocculonodular lobe
D. Intermediate zone

back 2

C. Flocculonodular lobe

front 3

A midline cerebellar lesion causes poor control of neck, shoulders, and hips during stance. Which region is most affected?
A. Dentate nucleus
B. Vermis
C. Lateral zone
D. Interposed nucleus

back 3

B. Vermis

front 4

Dyscoordination is most prominent in the hands, fingers, feet, and toes after a cerebellar hemispheric lesion. Which zone is involved?
A. Vermis
B. Flocculus
C. Lateral zone
D. Intermediate zone

back 4

D. Intermediate zone

front 5

A pianist can generate force normally but cannot smoothly organize multistep finger sequences. Which cerebellar region is most implicated?
A. Vermis
B. Fastigial nucleus
C. Lateral zone
D. Intermediate zone

back 5

C. Lateral zone

front 6

Each individual cerebellar fold is called a:
A. Sulcus
B. Gyrus
C. Folium
D. Fissure

back 6

C. Folium

front 7

A pontine lesion interrupts cortical input to the contralateral lateral cerebellar hemisphere. Which pathway is disrupted?
A. Olivocerebellar tract
B. Reticulocerebellar fibers
C. Corticopontocerebellar pathway
D. Vestibulocerebellar fibers

back 7

C. Corticopontocerebellar pathway

front 8

Which cortical regions give rise to the corticopontocerebellar pathway?
A. Motor, premotor, somatosensory cortices
B. Visual, auditory, limbic cortices
C. Broca, Wernicke, insular cortices
D. Cingulate, hippocampal, olfactory cortices

back 8

A. Motor, premotor, somatosensory cortices

front 9

Fibers from the right cerebral motor cortex reach which cerebellar target via the corticopontocerebellar system?
A. Right vermis
B. Left lateral hemisphere
C. Right lateral hemisphere
D. Left fastigial nucleus

back 9

B. Left lateral hemisphere

front 10

Which tract arises from the inferior olive and is driven by motor cortex, basal ganglia, reticular formation, and spinal cord inputs?
A. Vestibulocerebellar tract
B. Reticulocerebellar tract
C. Corticopontocerebellar tract
D. Olivocerebellar tract

back 10

D. Olivocerebellar tract

front 11

Vestibulocerebellar fibers terminate primarily in which combination?
A. Vermis and dentate
B. Flocculonodular lobe and fastigial
C. Intermediate zone and interposed
D. Lateral hemisphere and dentate

back 11

B. Flocculonodular lobe and fastigial

front 12

Fibers from the brainstem reticular formation project mainly to which cerebellar region?
A. Vermis
B. Dentate
C. Flocculus
D. Lateral zone

back 12

A. Vermis

front 13

The dorsal spinocerebellar tract enters the cerebellum through the:
A. Middle cerebellar peduncle
B. Superior cerebellar peduncle
C. Inferior cerebellar peduncle
D. Cerebral peduncle

back 13

C. Inferior cerebellar peduncle

front 14

The ventral spinocerebellar tract enters the cerebellum through the:
A. Inferior cerebellar peduncle
B. Superior cerebellar peduncle
C. Middle cerebellar peduncle
D. Restiform body only

back 14

B. Superior cerebellar peduncle

front 15

Dorsal spinocerebellar fibers terminate mainly in the:
A. Bilateral lateral hemispheres
B. Contralateral dentate nucleus
C. Ipsilateral vermis and intermediate
D. Flocculonodular lobe only

back 15

C. Ipsilateral vermis and intermediate

front 16

Ventral spinocerebellar fibers terminate:
A. Ipsilateral vermis only
B. In both cerebellar sides
C. Only in dentate nuclei
D. Only in flocculonodular lobe

back 16

B. In both cerebellar sides

front 17

Selective loss of muscle spindle input would most directly diminish signaling in which pathway?
A. Ventral spinocerebellar
B. Reticulocerebellar
C. Dorsal spinocerebellar
D. Olivocerebellar

back 17

C. Dorsal spinocerebellar

front 18

The dorsal spinocerebellar tract chiefly informs the cerebellum about:
A. Visual target motion
B. Planned speech output
C. Retinal error signals
D. Contraction, tension, proprioceptive status

back 18

D. Contraction, tension, proprioceptive status

front 19

Which source most strongly excites the ventral spinocerebellar tract?
A. Anterior horn motor signals
B. Primary visual cortex discharge
C. Cochlear nuclear output
D. Thalamocortical sensory relay

back 19

A. Anterior horn motor signals

front 20

The ventral spinocerebellar tract best conveys which kind of information?
A. Nociceptive limb afference
B. Efferent copy motor drive
C. Vestibular hair-cell activity
D. Olfactory contextual input

back 20

B. Efferent copy motor drive

front 21

Spinoreticular and spino-olivary pathways relay through which structures before reaching the cerebellum?
A. Red nucleus and thalamus
B. Reticular formation and inferior olive
C. Pontine nuclei and tectum
D. Basal ganglia and hypothalamus

back 21

B. Reticular formation and inferior olive

front 22

Cerebellar afferent signals project to which two locations within the cerebellum?
A. Cortex and thalamus
B. Vermis and flocculus
C. Deep nuclei and overlying cortex
D. White matter and peduncles

back 22

C. Deep nuclei and overlying cortex

front 23

All cerebellar inputs ultimately terminate in the:
A. Deep cerebellar nuclei
B. Purkinje layer
C. Molecular layer
D. Inferior olive

back 23

A. Deep cerebellar nuclei

front 24

Which deep cerebellar nucleus corresponds to the lateral zone?
A. Fastigial
B. Interposed
C. Dentate
D. Globose

back 24

C. Dentate

front 25

Which deep nuclei together constitute the interposed nucleus?
A. Dentate and fastigial
B. Emboliform and globose
C. Fastigial and globose
D. Dentate and emboliform

back 25

B. Emboliform and globose

front 26

The vermis is most closely associated with which deep cerebellar nucleus?
A. Dentate
B. Interposed
C. Emboliform
D. Fastigial

back 26

D. Fastigial

front 27

The functional unit of cerebellar cortex is best described as:
A. Granule cell and basket cell
B. Purkinje cell and deep nucleus
C. Mossy fiber and Golgi cell
D. Climbing fiber and stellate cell

back 27

B. Purkinje cell and deep nucleus

front 28

Which sequence correctly lists the cerebellar cortical layers from superficial to deep?
A. Purkinje, molecular, granule
B. Granule, molecular, Purkinje
C. Molecular, Purkinje, granule
D. Molecular, granule, Purkinje

back 28

C. Molecular, Purkinje, granule

front 29

Which fibers provide the two major afferent inputs to the cerebellum, and what is their net effect?
A. Climbing and mossy; excitatory
B. Climbing and basket; inhibitory
C. Mossy and Purkinje; inhibitory
D. Golgi and stellate; excitatory

back 29

A. Climbing and mossy; excitatory

front 30

All climbing fibers entering the cerebellum originate from the:
A. Red nucleus
B. Pontine nuclei
C. Inferior olive
D. Vestibular nuclei

back 30

C. Inferior olive

front 31

After entering the cerebellum, a climbing fiber continues from the deep nuclear region toward the:
A. Cerebellar peduncle
B. Outer cerebellar cortex
C. Fastigial nucleus
D. Inferior medulla

back 31

B. Outer cerebellar cortex

front 32

A climbing fiber discharge in a Purkinje cell classically produces which pattern?
A. Brief repetitive simple spike
B. Single prolonged complex spike
C. Silent hyperpolarizing pause
D. Tetanic basket-cell burst

back 32

B. Single prolonged complex spike

front 33

Climbing fibers synapse directly on which cells?
A. Granule cells
B. Purkinje cells
C. Basket cells
D. Stellate cells

back 33

B. Purkinje cells

front 34

Mossy fibers synapse directly on which cells?
A. Purkinje cells
B. Basket cells
C. Granule cells
D. Golgi cells

back 34

C. Granule cells

front 35

Both mossy and climbing fibers send excitatory collaterals to the:
A. Deep cerebellar nuclei
B. Purkinje layer only
C. Molecular layer only
D. Inferior olive only

back 35

A. Deep cerebellar nuclei

front 36

Mossy fibers enter the cerebellum from:
A. Inferior olive
B. Multiple CNS sources
C. Vestibular nerve
D. Thalamus

back 36

B. Multiple CNS sources

front 37

Granule-cell axons ascend to which cerebellar cortical layer?
A. Granule layer
B. Purkinje layer
C. White matter
D. Molecular layer

back 37

D. Molecular layer

front 38

In the molecular layer, granule-cell axons split and run as:
A. Climbing fibers
B. Parallel fibers
C. Basket fibers
D. Olivary fibers

back 38

B. Parallel fibers

front 39

Which fibers have far more total synaptic contacts with Purkinje cells?
A. Climbing fibers
B. Parallel fibers
C. Reticulocerebellar fibers
D. Rubrospinal fibers

back 39

B. Parallel fibers

front 40

Which cell population is far more numerous in the cerebellum?
A. Purkinje cells
B. Basket cells
C. Granule cells
D. Stellate cells

back 40

C. Granule cells

front 41

Mossy-fiber influence on Purkinje cells is best described as:
A. Strong and direct
B. Weak and indirect
C. Strong and inhibitory
D. Direct and prolonged

back 41

B. Weak and indirect

front 42

Why must many mossy fibers be activated together to influence a Purkinje cell?
A. Purkinje cells lack dendrites
B. Mossy synapses are inhibitory
C. Their effect is individually weak
D. They bypass granule cells

back 42

C. Their effect is individually weak

front 43

The typical Purkinje-cell response associated with mossy-fiber activation is a:
A. Complex spike
B. Plateau potential
C. Afterdischarge burst
D. Simple spike

back 43

D. Simple spike

front 44

Purkinje-cell output to the deep cerebellar nuclei is:
A. Excitatory
B. Modulatory only
C. Inhibitory
D. Electrical coupling

back 44

C. Inhibitory

front 45

Under quiet resting conditions, the balance of cerebellar nuclear input is normally:
A. Slightly inhibitory
B. Exactly neutral
C. Slightly excitatory
D. Entirely Purkinje-driven

back 45

C. Slightly excitatory

front 46

Which statement about direct Purkinje connections is correct?
A. Mossy direct, climbing indirect
B. Both direct to Purkinje
C. Both indirect to Purkinje
D. Climbing direct, mossy indirect

back 46

D. Climbing direct, mossy indirect

front 47

Which are the 2 major inhibitory interneurons of the cerebellar cortex?
A. Granule and Golgi
B. Purkinje and granule
C. Basket and stellate
D. Climbing and mossy

back 47

C. Basket and stellate

front 48

Basket and stellate cells are located in the:
A. Purkinje layer
B. Molecular layer
C. Granule layer
D. White matter

back 48

B. Molecular layer

front 49

Basket and stellate cells are activated primarily by:
A. Climbing fibers
B. Purkinje axons
C. Vestibular fibers
D. Parallel fibers

back 49

D. Parallel fibers

front 50

Basket and stellate cells sharpen cerebellar signaling by producing:
A. Feedforward excitation
B. Lateral inhibition
C. Recurrent facilitation
D. Long-loop activation

back 50

B. Lateral inhibition

front 51

The flocculonodular lobe and adjacent vermis are components of the:
A. Spinocerebellum
B. Cerebrocerebellum
C. Vestibulocerebellum
D. Olivocerebellum

back 51

C. Vestibulocerebellum

front 52

The vestibulocerebellum is most important for controlling:
A. Speech initiation
B. Equilibrium and posture
C. Distal fine movement
D. Pain localization

back 52

B. Equilibrium and posture

front 53

Damage to the flocculonodular lobe most classically causes:
A. Aphasia and neglect
B. Equilibrium disturbance
C. Resting tremor
D. Spastic hemiparesis

back 53

B. Equilibrium disturbance

front 54

The vestibulocerebellum helps maintain balance by providing:
A. Segmental reflex gain
B. Anticipatory correction
C. Pain suppression
D. Motor initiation

back 54

B. Anticipatory correction

front 55

Most of the vermis plus intermediate zones form the:
A. Spinocerebellum
B. Vestibulocerebellum
C. Cerebrocerebellum
D. Archicerebellum only

back 55

A. Spinocerebellum

front 56

The spinocerebellum is especially important for coordination of:
A. Eye convergence only
B. Distal limb movements
C. Olfactory tracking
D. Emotional expression

back 56

B. Distal limb movements

front 57

During movement, the spinocerebellum receives intended motor plan information from:
A. Cerebral cortex and red nucleus
B. Vestibular nuclei and thalamus
C. Inferior olive and pons
D. Basal ganglia and tectum

back 57

A. Cerebral cortex and red nucleus

front 58

The actual movement feedback compared against intent in spinocerebellum comes especially from:
A. Auditory receptors
B. Distal limb proprioceptors
C. Retinal ganglion cells
D. Visceral afferents

back 58

B. Distal limb proprioceptors

front 59

After comparing intended with actual movement, the intermediate zone sends corrective output through the interposed nucleus to the:
A. Hypothalamus and pons
B. Cortex via thalamus
C. Basal ganglia directly
D. Vestibular ganglion only

back 59

B. Cortex via thalamus

front 60

The interposed nucleus also projects to the magnocellular red nucleus, which gives rise to the:
A. Tectospinal tract
B. Vestibulospinal tract
C. Rubrospinal tract
D. Reticulospinal tract

back 60

C. Rubrospinal tract

front 61

The large lateral cerebellar zones constitute the:
A. Spinocerebellum
B. Vestibulocerebellum
C. Cerebrocerebellum
D. Paleocerebellum

back 61

C. Cerebrocerebellum

front 62

The cerebrocerebellum primarily functions to:
A. Detect body pain
B. Plan and time movement
C. Regulate wakefulness
D. Control pupillary reflexes

back 62

B. Plan and time movement

front 63

Destruction of the lateral cerebellar zones and dentate nuclei causes marked incoordination of:
A. Complex hand-foot-speech tasks
B. Reflex withdrawal only
C. Visual fixation only
D. Breathing rhythm only

back 63

A. Complex hand-foot-speech tasks

front 64

A patient overshoots a target and the arm oscillates around it several times before stopping. This reflects failure of cerebellar:
A. Facilitation
B. Damping
C. Crossed extension
D. Sensory gating

back 64

B. Damping

front 65

The tremor produced by overshoot during a voluntary movement is called:
A. Resting tremor
B. Asterixis
C. Intention tremor
D. Fasciculation

back 65

C. Intention tremor

front 66

Movements performed too rapidly for peripheral feedback correction are called:
A. Ataxic movements
B. Ballistic movements
C. Choreiform movements
D. Spastic movements

back 66

B. Ballistic movements

front 67

Without an intact cerebellum, ballistic movements are typically:
A. Fast and excessive
B. Weak and delayed
C. Hypermetric only
D. Rigid and fixed

back 67

B. Weak and delayed

front 68

Cerebellar impairment of the normal progression of speech is called:
A. Aphonia
B. Dysarthria
C. Dysphasia
D. Apraxia

back 68

B. Dysarthria

front 69

A patient trying to gaze to one side develops oscillation of the eyes because cerebellar damping failed. This is:
A. Ophthalmoplegia
B. Cerebellar nystagmus
C. Ocular bobbing
D. Internuclear palsy

back 69

B. Cerebellar nystagmus

front 70

Cerebellar nystagmus is especially associated with damage to the:
A. Dentate nuclei
B. Lateral hemispheres
C. Flocculonodular lobes
D. Interposed nuclei

back 70

C. Flocculonodular lobes

front 71

A patient with cerebellar damage has decreased resistance to passive movement and a “floppy” limb. Loss of which structure best explains this?
A. Dentate nucleus
B. Deep cerebellar nuclei
C. Inferior olive
D. Red nucleus

back 71

B. Deep cerebellar nuclei

front 72

Which set correctly lists the 5 major basal ganglia structures from your notes?
A. Caudate, putamen, pallidum, nigra, subthalamic
B. Caudate, thalamus, pallidum, nigra, pons
C. Putamen, claustrum, pallidum, olive, amygdala
D. Caudate, putamen, dentate, nigra, thalamus

back 72

A. Caudate, putamen, pallidum, nigra, subthalamic

front 73

Almost all major motor and sensory fibers pass through which structure between the large basal ganglia masses?
A. External capsule
B. Corpus callosum
C. Internal capsule
D. Cerebral peduncle

back 73

C. Internal capsule

front 74

The principal role of the basal ganglia in motor control is best described as:
A. Primary force generation
B. Visual motion processing
C. Spinal reflex inhibition
D. Complex motor patterning

back 74

D. Complex motor patterning

front 75

Which is the best example of the motor function most associated with basal ganglia processing?
A. Detecting joint vibration
B. Initiating stretch reflex
C. Writing a signature
D. Sensing limb position

back 75

C. Writing a signature

front 76

The putamen primarily receives input from:
A. Primary motor cortex only
B. Adjacent motor association areas
C. Primary visual cortex only
D. Vestibular cortex only

back 76

B. Adjacent motor association areas

front 77

A patient develops continuous writhing movements of the hand and face after a focal lesion. Which structure is most likely damaged?
A. Globus pallidus
B. Putamen
C. Subthalamic nucleus
D. Substantia nigra

back 77

A. Globus pallidus

front 78

Sudden violent flinging of the right arm and leg most strongly suggests a lesion of the left:
A. Globus pallidus
B. Caudate nucleus
C. Subthalamic nucleus
D. Putamen

back 78

C. Subthalamic nucleus

front 79

Chorea develops, what is the probelm?
A. Globus pallidus
B. Caudate nucleus
C. Subthalamic nucleus
D. Putamen

back 79

D. Putamen

front 80

A patient has rigidity, akinesia, and tremor after degeneration of a basal ganglia structure. Which structure is most likely involved?
A. Putamen
B. Globus pallidus
C. Subthalamic nucleus
D. Substantia nigra

back 80

D. Substantia nigra

front 81

The caudate circuit is most important for:
A. Vestibular balance control
B. Cognitive motor control
C. Pain discrimination
D. Auditory localization

back 81

B. Cognitive motor control

front 82

The caudate nucleus has major connections extending to:
A. Brainstem nuclei only
B. Frontal lobe only
C. All cerebral lobes
D. Cerebellar hemispheres only

back 82

C. All cerebral lobes

front 83

Which type of cortical regions provides especially large input to the caudate nucleus?
A. Primary sensory areas
B. Visual relay nuclei
C. Association areas
D. Olfactory bulbs

back 83

C. Association areas

front 84

Output from the caudate circuit returns mainly to:
A. Primary motor cortex
B. Accessory motor regions
C. Spinal anterior horn
D. Cerebellar cortex

back 84

B. Accessory motor regions

front 85

Dopaminergic basal ganglia fibers originate in the:
A. Subthalamic nucleus
B. Putamen
C. Globus pallidus
D. Substantia nigra

back 85

D. Substantia nigra

front 86

Dopamine from the substantia nigra projects primarily to the:
A. Caudate and putamen
B. Globus pallidus only
C. Thalamus and cortex
D. Subthalamic nucleus only

back 86

A. Caudate and putamen

front 87

In the basal ganglia circuitry from your notes, dopamine acts mainly as a(n):
A. Excitatory transmitter
B. Inhibitory transmitter
C. Modulator without effect
D. Peripheral neurotransmitter

back 87

B. Inhibitory transmitter

front 88

GABAergic pathways in the basal ganglia project from the:
A. Cortex to putamen
B. Nigra to thalamus
C. Caudate/putamen to GP/nigra
D. Thalamus to caudate

back 88

C. Caudate/putamen to GP/nigra

front 89

The principal effect of GABA in the basal ganglia is:
A. Excitatory
B. Inhibitory
C. Neuromuscular
D. Hormonal

back 89

B. Inhibitory

front 90

Cholinergic pathways in these notes project from the:
A. Cortex to caudate/putamen
B. Nigra to caudate/putamen
C. Pons to pallidum
D. Thalamus to cortex

back 90

A. Cortex to caudate/putamen

front 91

Which neurotransmitter provides much of the major excitatory balance within basal ganglia circuits?
A. Serotonin
B. GABA
C. Dopamine
D. Glutamate

back 91

D. Glutamate

front 92

Which pair represents the 2 major clinical syndromes emphasized for basal ganglia damage?
A. Parkinson disease and Huntington disease
B. Myasthenia and ALS
C. Wilson disease and dystonia
D. Ataxia and dysmetria

back 92

A. Parkinson disease and Huntington disease

front 93

Parkinson disease in your notes results from degeneration of the substantia nigra neurons that normally:
A. Release GABA to cortex
B. Release dopamine to striatum
C. Release acetylcholine to thalamus
D. Release glutamate to pallidum

back 93

B. Release dopamine to striatum

front 94

The striatal target structures of the degenerating substantia nigra neurons in Parkinson disease are the:
A. Dentate and fastigial
B. Caudate and putamen
C. Globus pallidus and thalamus
D. Red nucleus and pons

back 94

B. Caudate and putamen

front 95

Which clinical combination is most typical of Parkinson disease?
A. Chorea, aphasia, neglect
B. Ballismus, weakness, sensory loss
C. Tremor, rigidity, akinesia
D. Athetosis, nystagmus, dysmetria

back 95

C. Tremor, rigidity, akinesia

front 96

Postural instability in Parkinson disease is attributed mainly to impaired:
A. Visual acuity
B. Postural reflexes
C. Cortical language output
D. Peripheral nerve conduction

back 96

B. Postural reflexes

front 97

Dysphagia, speech difficulty, gait disturbance, and fatigue in Parkinson disease are best categorized as:
A. Pure sensory deficits
B. Nonmotor endocrine signs
C. Associated motor symptoms
D. Cerebellar reflex losses

back 97

C. Associated motor symptoms

front 98

Loss of dopaminergic substantia nigra neurons causes rigidity because it leads to:
A. Striatal underactivity
B. Putaminal overactivity
C. Pallidal silence
D. Cerebellar denervation

back 98

B. Putaminal overactivity

front 99

In Parkinson disease, excessive excitatory drive ultimately reaches which descending control system?
A. Spinocerebellar system
B. Vestibulo-ocular system
C. Corticospinal control system
D. Dorsal column system

back 99

C. Corticospinal control system

front 100

Why is dopamine itself not given effectively as primary replacement therapy for Parkinson disease?
A. It is rapidly nephrotoxic
B. It triggers hemiballismus
C. It cannot cross BBB
D. It blocks acetylcholine release

back 100

C. It cannot cross BBB

front 101

Which drug is given because it can cross the blood-brain barrier and serve as a dopamine precursor?
A. Haloperidol
B. L-dopa
C. GABA
D. Bromocriptine

back 101

B. L-dopa

front 102

L-dopa improves Parkinson symptoms mainly by:
A. Blocking glutamate release
B. Restoring inhibitory-excitatory balance
C. Destroying overactive putamen
D. Inhibiting motor cortex directly

back 102

B. Restoring inhibitory-excitatory balance

front 103

Which Parkinson symptom is especially improved by L-dopa according to your notes?
A. Aphasia and neglect
B. Rigidity and akinesia
C. Ballismus and chorea
D. Vision loss and ataxia

back 103

B. Rigidity and akinesia

front 104

L-deprenyl is useful in Parkinson disease because it:
A. Stimulates acetylcholine release
B. Blocks GABA receptors
C. Inhibits monoamine oxidase
D. Replaces dopamine directly

back 104

C. Inhibits monoamine oxidase

front 105

By inhibiting monoamine oxidase, L-deprenyl helps:
A. Increase dopamine availability
B. Block thalamic output
C. Decrease acetylcholine synthesis
D. Enhance cerebellar damping

back 105

A. Increase dopamine availability

front 106

Huntington disease is inherited in which pattern?
A. Autosomal recessive
B. X-linked dominant
C. Autosomal dominant
D. Mitochondrial

back 106

C. Autosomal dominant

front 107

The major early motor manifestation of Huntington disease is:
A. Chorea
B. Rigidity
C. Ataxia
D. Athetosis

back 107

A. Chorea

front 108

Dementia in Huntington disease typically appears:
A. Before birth
B. Later in course
C. Only in children
D. Only with treatment

back 108

B. Later in course

front 109

Huntington disease is caused by loss of GABA-secreting neurons primarily in the:
A. Thalamus and cortex
B. Globus pallidus and nigra
C. Red nucleus and pons
D. Caudate and putamen

back 109

D. Caudate and putamen

front 110

Loss of which neuronal population is most associated with dementia in Huntington disease?
A. Dopaminergic neurons
B. Serotonergic neurons
C. Cholinergic neurons
D. Glutamatergic neurons

back 110

C. Cholinergic neurons

front 111

In Huntington disease, loss of GABA inhibition leads to spontaneous outbursts of activity in the:
A. Globus pallidus and nigra
B. Caudate and putamen
C. Thalamus and cortex
D. Cerebellum and pons

back 111

A. Globus pallidus and nigra

front 112

A patient with progressive chorea and later dementia has a mutation involving:
A. Expanded CTG repeats
B. Expanded CCG repeats
C. Expanded CAG repeats
D. Expanded CGG repeats

back 112

B. Expanded CCG repeats

front 113

The mutant huntingtin gene contains excess repeats encoding:
A. Glycine residues
B. Alanine residues
C. Lysine residues
D. Glutamine residues

back 113

D. Glutamine residues

front 114

The corticopontocerebellar pathway projects mainly to which cerebellar region?
A. Vermis
B. Fastigial nucleus
C. Intermediate zone
D. Lateral hemisphere

back 114

D. Lateral hemisphere

front 115

Corticopontocerebellar fibers ultimately reach the cerebellum on the:
A. Same side
B. Opposite side
C. Midline
D. Inferior surface

back 115

B. Opposite side

front 116

Which set includes the 3 major brainstem-origin cerebellar afferents from your notes?
A. Rubro, tecto, spinothalamic
B. Dorsal, ventral, corticospinal
C. Olivo, vestibulo, reticulo
D. Pallido, striato, nigral

back 116

C. Olivo, vestibulo, reticulo

front 117

Which spinocerebellar tract enters through the inferior cerebellar peduncle?
A. Ventral
B. Dorsal
C. Rostral
D. Anterior

back 117

B. Dorsal

front 118

The dorsal spinocerebellar tract terminates mainly in the:
A. Contralateral lateral zone
B. Bilateral dentate nuclei
C. Vermis and intermediate
D. Flocculonodular lobe only

back 118

C. Vermis and intermediate

front 119

The dorsal spinocerebellar tract terminates on the:
A. Opposite side
B. Same side
C. Midline only
D. Superior surface only

back 119

B. Same side

front 120

Which tract enters through the superior cerebellar peduncle and terminates bilaterally?
A. Dorsal spinocerebellar
B. Olivocerebellar
C. Reticulocerebellar
D. Ventral spinocerebellar

back 120

D. Ventral spinocerebellar

front 121

Signals in the dorsal spinocerebellar tract come mainly from:
A. Golgi tendon organs
B. Muscle spindles
C. Basal ganglia
D. Visual cortex

back 121

B. Muscle spindles

front 122

The ventral spinocerebellar pathway provides what type of motor feedback?
A. Rebound discharge
B. Lateral inhibition
C. Efference copy
D. Reciprocal inhibition

back 122

C. Efference copy

front 123

All deep cerebellar nuclei receive input from the cerebellar cortex and:
A. Deep afferent tracts
B. Basal ganglia loops
C. Corticospinal collaterals
D. Vestibular ganglia only

back 123

A. Deep afferent tracts

front 124

One characteristic of both Purkinje cells and deep nuclear cells is that they normally fire:
A. Intermittently
B. Phasically
C. Continuously
D. Randomly

back 124

C. Continuously

front 125

After a movement begins, cerebellar circuitry helps prevent overshoot by generating:
A. Positive feedback
B. Negative feedback
C. Feedforward silence
D. Tonic facilitation

back 125

B. Negative feedback

front 126

Basket and stellate cells are best described as:
A. Excitatory long-axon cells
B. Inhibitory short-axon cells
C. Dopaminergic projection cells
D. Cholinergic relay cells

back 126

B. Inhibitory short-axon cells

front 127

Which cerebellar functional division consists of the flocculonodular lobes and adjacent vermis and is most responsible for equilibrium?
A. Spinocerebellum
B. Cerebrocerebellum
C. Vestibulocerebellum
D. Neocerebellum

back 127

C. Vestibulocerebellum

front 128

Which cerebellar division includes most of the vermis plus the adjacent intermediate zones and coordinates mainly distal limb movement?
A. Vestibulocerebellum
B. Spinocerebellum
C. Cerebrocerebellum
D. Flocculocerebellum

back 128

B. Spinocerebellum

front 129

Which cerebellar division is formed by the large lateral hemispheric zones and helps plan sequential voluntary movements in advance?
A. Spinocerebellum
B. Vestibulocerebellum
C. Archicerebellum
D. Cerebrocerebellum

back 129

D. Cerebrocerebellum

front 130

The cerebrocerebellum receives virtually all of its input from the:
A. Cerebral motor-related cortex
B. Vestibular ganglia only
C. Inferior olivary nucleus
D. Spinal dorsal horn

back 130

A. Cerebral motor-related cortex

front 131

The cerebrocerebellum sends output back upward to the brain mainly to:
A. Generate reflexes
B. Plan movement sequences
C. Maintain consciousness
D. Detect pain location

back 131

B. Plan movement sequences

front 132

Advance planning of movement by the cerebrocerebellum is called:
A. Efference copy
B. Lateral inhibition
C. Motor imagery
D. Reciprocal innervation

back 132

C. Motor imagery

front 133

In vestibulocerebellar dysfunction, equilibrium is especially impaired during:
A. Sleep
B. Rapid directional movements
C. Quiet standing only
D. Slow repetitive tapping

back 133

B. Rapid directional movements

front 134

The vestibulocerebellum helps maintain balance by calculating in advance:
A. Muscle ATP stores
B. Future body position
C. Visual cortex output
D. Basal ganglia firing

back 134

B. Future body position

front 135

In cerebellar destruction, when overshoot occurs, the cerebrum eventually initiates a corrective movement in the:
A. Same direction
B. Upward direction
C. Reverse direction
D. Ipsilateral limb only

back 135

C. Reverse direction

front 136

Which term describes a movement that is fully preplanned to travel a set distance and then stop?
A. Ballistic
B. Ataxic
C. Dysmetric
D. Choreiform

back 136

A. Ballistic

front 137

Cerebellar nystagmus occurs especially with damage to the:
A. Dentate nucleus
B. Flocculonodular lobes
C. Globus pallidus
D. Caudate nucleus

back 137

B. Flocculonodular lobes

front 138

Loss of which deep cerebellar nuclei particularly causes decreased tone on the side of the lesion?
A. Fastigial and vestibular
B. Dentate and interposed
C. Red and olivary
D. Caudate and putamen

back 138

B. Dentate and interposed

front 139

A lesion affecting the basal ganglia circuit that receives input mainly from areas adjacent to primary motor cortex most directly involves the:
A. Caudate
B. Putamen
C. Thalamus
D. Substantia nigra

back 139

B. Putamen

front 140

Lesions of the globus pallidus classically produce spontaneous continuous writhing movements called:
A. Chorea
B. Tremor
C. Athetosis
D. Ballismus

back 140

C. Athetosis

front 141

A lesion of the subthalamus most classically causes:
A. Hemiballismus
B. Dysarthria
C. Dysmetria
D. Rigidity

back 141

A. Hemiballismus

front 142

Multiple small lesions in the putamen produce flicking movements of the face and hands called:
A. Athetosis
B. Intention tremor
C. Chorea
D. Dystonia

back 142

C. Chorea

front 143

Which basal ganglia structure plays a major role in the cognitive control of motor activity?
A. Putamen
B. Caudate nucleus
C. Subthalamic nucleus
D. Globus pallidus

back 143

B. Caudate nucleus

front 144

In the caudate motor-control loop, signals from the caudate nucleus next pass primarily to the:
A. Internal globus pallidus
B. Dentate nucleus
C. Red nucleus
D. Subthalamus only

back 144

A. Internal globus pallidus

front 145

After the internal globus pallidus, caudate-circuit output relays through which thalamic nuclei?
A. Anterior and medial
B. Geniculate nuclei
C. Ventroanterior and ventrolateral
D. Pulvinar and intralaminar

back 145

C. Ventroanterior and ventrolateral

front 146

Caudate-circuit output returns mainly to which cortical regions?
A. Primary sensory cortex only
B. Prefrontal, premotor, supplementary motor
C. Visual, auditory, olfactory
D. Primary motor cortex only

back 146

B. Prefrontal, premotor, supplementary motor

front 147

A patient can feel an object in the hand but cannot identify it despite intact sensation. A lesion of which cortex best explains this?
A. Primary motor cortex
B. Occipital association cortex
C. Posterior parietal cortex
D. Prefrontal cortex

back 147

C. Posterior parietal cortex

front 148

Inability to accurately perceive objects through otherwise normal sensory mechanisms is called:
A. Apraxia
B. Agnosia
C. Ataxia
D. Aphasia

back 148

B. Agnosia

front 149

Severe damage to the right posterior parietal cortex most classically causes:
A. Neglect syndrome
B. Broca aphasia
C. Hemiballismus
D. Resting tremor

back 149

A. Neglect syndrome

front 150

GABA neurons in cortical-basal ganglia-cortical loops make these loops function mainly as:
A. Positive feedback loops
B. Negative feedback loops
C. Feedforward loops
D. Vestibular loops

back 150

B. Negative feedback loops

front 151

The main effect of these GABA-mediated negative feedback loops is to:
A. Increase oscillation
B. Destabilize posture
C. Lend motor stability
D. Trigger ballistic output

back 151

C. Lend motor stability

front 152

By inhibiting monoamine oxidase, L-deprenyl helps reduce destruction of:
A. Acetylcholine
B. Dopamine
C. GABA
D. Glutamate

back 152

B. Dopamine

front 153

The earliest motor abnormality in Huntington disease is classically:
A. Flicking movements
B. Cogwheel rigidity
C. Resting tremor
D. Decerebrate posturing

back 153

A. Flicking movements

front 154

As Huntington disease progresses, patients develop severe body distortional movements and:
A. Hemianopia
B. Dementia
C. Hemiballismus
D. Dysarthria only

back 154

B. Dementia

front 155

The abnormal movements of Huntington disease are believed to result primarily from loss of GABA-secreting neurons in the:
A. Red nucleus and pons
B. Caudate and putamen
C. Cerebellum and olive
D. Pallidum and thalamus

back 155

B. Caudate and putamen

front 156

Huntington disease also involves loss of which other neuronal type in many parts of the brain?
A. Dopamine-secreting neurons
B. Serotonin-secreting neurons
C. Acetylcholine-secreting neurons
D. Norepinephrine-secreting neurons

back 156

C. Acetylcholine-secreting neurons

front 157

At the brainstem level, which structure smooths rapid postural movements and prevents abnormal oscillations?
A. Basal ganglia
B. Thalamus
C. Cerebellum
D. Hippocampus

back 157

C. Cerebellum

front 158

The cerebellum functions mainly when what type of muscle movements are required?
A. Painful
B. Rapid
C. Passive
D. Isometric only

back 158

B. Rapid

front 159

One major function of the basal ganglia is to help the cortex execute subconscious but:
A. Random
B. Learned
C. Reflexive
D. Sensory

back 159

B. Learned

front 160

Another major function of the basal ganglia is to help plan multiple parallel and sequential movement:
A. Patterns
B. Reflexes
C. Lesions
D. Peduncles

back 160

A. Patterns