1. Which of the following is not one of the six antibody effector functions?
A. Neutralization
B. Complement activation
C. DNA repair
D. Opsonization
C. DNA repair
2. Which antibody isotype is most abundant in secretions and provides mucosal immunity?
A. IgE
B. IgA
C. IgG
D. IgM
B. IgA
3. Which antibody is involved in allergic reactions and defense against parasites?
A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgE
D. IgD
C. IgE
4. Which antibody is pentameric and most effective at complement activation?
A. IgA
B. IgE
C. IgM
D. IgG
C. IgM
5. Which antibody is primarily membrane-bound and acts as a B-cell receptor along with IgM?
A. IgE
B. IgG
C. IgA
D. IgD
D. IgD
6. Which antibody is the most diverse, present in several subclasses, and reflects the maturation of the immune response
A. IgA
B. IgE
C. IgG
D. IgM
C. IgG
7. Fcγ receptors (FcγRs) bind to which antibody class?
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgE
D. IgM
B. IgG
8. Which Fc receptor is primarily expressed on granulocytes and triggers degranulation?
A. FcγR
B. FcεR
C. FcαR
D. FcμR
B. FcεR
9. Which Fc receptor is involved in the regulation of cell activation and binds to IgM?
A. FcγR
B. FcμR
C. FcαR
D. FcεR
B. FcμR
10. Which Fc receptor is inhibitory and helps turn off antibody secretion by B cells?
A. FcγRI
B. FcγRIIb (CD32)
C. FcεRI
D. FcαR
B. FcγRIIb (CD32)
11. Which therapeutic antibody targets CD20 and is used for B-cell non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma?
A. Adalimumab
B. Rituximab
C. Ipilimumab
D. Infliximab
B. Rituximab
12. Adalimumab is a fully human antibody that targets:
A. CTLA-4
B. CD20
C. TNF
D. IL-2
C. TNF
13. Which therapeutic antibody targets CTLA-4 to treat metastatic melanoma?
A. Rituximab
B. Ipilimumab
C. Adalimumab
D. Nivolumab
B. Ipilimumab
14. Which phase of the CD8+ cytotoxic T cell response occurs in secondary lymphoid tissue?
A. Recognition
B. Apoptosis
C. Activation and differentiation
D. Perforin release
C. Activation and differentiation
15. What type of cell is known as a “killer cell” that eliminates infected or abnormal host cells?
A. B cell
B. NK cell
C. Helper T cell
D. Plasma cell
B. NK cell
16. IgA can fix complement and induce inflammation.
false
17. IgM has low affinity but high avidity due to its pentameric structure.
true
18. FcεR receptors are found on mast cells and basophils.
true
19. CD40/CD40L interaction is essential for dendritic cell licensing.
true
20. CTLs can induce apoptosis through Fas/FasL interaction and granzyme release.
true
21. Which of the following lists SIX major antibody effector functions?
A. Neutralization, Agglutination, Apoptosis, ADCC, Transcytosis,
Complement Activation
B. Neutralization, ADCC, Agglutination,
Opsonization, Degranulation, Complement Activation
C. ADCC,
Transcytosis, Opsonization, Neutralization, Clonal Selection,
Complement Activation
D. Neutralization, Chemotaxis,
Opsonization, ADCC, Transcytosis, Apoptosis
B. Neutralization, ADCC, Agglutination, Opsonization, Degranulation, Complement Activation
22. Which pairing correctly matches an antibody class with one of its functions or characteristics?
A. IgA – activates classical complement pathway
B. IgE – found
mainly in blood as a dimer
C. IgA – mucosal immunity; dimeric;
does NOT activate complement
D. IgE – neutralizes pathogens in
mucosal secretions
C. IgA – mucosal immunity; dimeric; does NOT activate complement
23. What is the general purpose of Fc receptors?
A. To enhance antigen presentation by binding MHC molecules
B.
To bind Fc regions of antibodies and trigger effector functions
C. To degrade circulating antibodies
D. To activate B cells
independently of antigen
B. To bind Fc regions of antibodies and trigger effector functions
24. What is the role of FcγRIIb (CD32) in immune regulation?
A. It enhances B-cell activation and promotes antibody
secretion
B. It activates NK cells to induce ADCC
C. It
serves as an inhibitory receptor that decreases B-cell
activation
D. It triggers complement-dependent cytotoxicity
C. It serves as an inhibitory receptor that decreases B-cell activation
25. What is the purpose of DC licensing, and which interaction is essential for it?
A. Allows DCs to activate B cells; requires CD28–CD80
B.
Allows DCs to activate CD8+ T cells; requires CD40–CD40L
C.
Enhances NK cell cytotoxicity; requires Fas–FasL
D. Stimulates
macrophage activation; requires IL-4 signaling
B. Allows DCs to activate CD8+ T cells; requires CD40–CD40L
26. Which of the following includes the THREE signals needed for CTL activation?
A. TCR–MHC II binding, IL-4 signaling, perforin release
B.
TCR–antigen recognition; CD28 costimulation; IL-2 signaling
C.
CD4–MHC II binding; CD40–CD40L; IFN-γ signaling
D. Antibody
binding; complement activation; IL-12 release
B. TCR–antigen recognition; CD28 costimulation; IL-2 signaling
27. Which statement best compares the missing-self model and the balanced-signals model of NK cell activation?
A. Both models require high MHC I expression for NK killing
B.
Missing-self says NK cells kill when MHC I is absent; balanced-signals
says NK cells weigh activating vs. inhibitory signals
C.
Missing-self depends on antibodies; balanced-signals does not
D.
Both models state that inhibitory signals dominate when MHC I is missing
B. Missing-self says NK cells kill when MHC I is absent; balanced-signals says NK cells weigh activating vs. inhibitory signals
28. Which best describes antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) performed by NK cells?
A. NK cells kill pathogens using complement proteins
B. NK
cells recognize antigen via TCR and directly induce apoptosis
C.
Antibodies coat a target, NK cells bind the Fc region, and induce
killing
D. NK cells phagocytose antibody-coated pathogens
C. Antibodies coat a target, NK cells bind the Fc region, and induce killing