The four basic management functions are planning, organizing,
influencing, and controlling.
A. True
B. False
A
Planning is concerned with setting objectives for organizational
success, while controlling is concerned with monitoring the actual
performance of the organization's success.
A. True
B. False
A
_______ refers to all the organizational assets available for
activation during the production process.
A. Strategies
B.
Technologies
C. Resources
D. Plans
E. Information
C
A manager is considered efficient and effective if the manager
_______.
A. does not reach goals and wastes resources
B.
does not reach goals and does not waste resources
C. reaches
goals and wastes resources
D. wastes resources on unattainable
goals
E. reaches goals and does not waste resources
E
If a manager reaches goals but wastes resources doing so, the manager
is considered to be _______.
A. inefficient and
ineffective
B. effective and inefficient
C. efficient and
effective
D. neither effective nor ineffective
E.
ineffective and efficient
B
Management principles are considered to be universal because
_______.
A. the principles of planning, organizing, influencing,
and controlling are the same across organizations
B. all
organizations have the same organizational hierarchy
C. employees
in all organizations have the same skill sets
D. organizational
goals and methods do not change from organization to
organization
E. production processes and strategies remain the
same across organizations
A
According to Robert Katz, applying specialized knowledge and
expertise to work-related techniques is a characteristic of
_______.
A. strategic skills
B. human skills
C.
technical skills
D. interpersonal skills
E. conceptual skills
C
As a manager's career advances from lower-level management to
upper-level management, conceptual skills become more important and
technical skills less important while at the same time their time
spent planning increases and daily leading of operational employees
decreases.
A. True
B. False
A
In building a career, an individual should be focused on _______ to
qualify for the next planned job and not simply taking a job with the
highest salary.
A. the application process
B. making the
most money
C. interviews
D. unit performance
E.
developing skills necessary
E
Which career stage is characterized by self-analysis and the
exploration of the different types of available jobs?
A.
exploration stage
B. career plateauing stage
C.
establishment stage
D. decline stage
E. maintenance stage
A
Which of the following demonstrates the correct sequence in the
stages of entrepreneurship?
A) opportunity identification,
opportunity evaluation, opportunity exploitation
B) opportunity
identification, opportunity exploitation, opportunity
evaluation
C) opportunity evaluation, opportunity identification,
opportunity exploitation
D) opportunity evaluation, opportunity
exploitation, opportunity identification
E) opportunity
exploitation, opportunity evaluation, opportunity identification
A
Which of the following is an example of an opportunity that has
arisen from new uses for raw materials?
A) the invention of the
heart stent
B) an American bank providing services in
Canada
C) raising chickens without using any antibiotics
D)
using the Internet to sell a product
E) using corn to produce ethanol
E
Although an opportunity may exist, it needs to be recognized first.
This is ________.
A) opportunity feedback
B) opportunity
evaluation
C) opportunity exploitation
D) opportunity
identification
E) opportunity cost
D
Entrepreneurial alertness refers to an individual's ability to notice
and be sensitive to new information about objects, incidents, and
patterns of behavior in the environment.
A) True
B) False
A
What will entrepreneurs study in a feasibility analysis?
A)
customer demands, structure of the industry, ability to provide the
new product or service
B) ways to increase production and cut
corners on costs
C) strategic planning
D) the likelihood of
a product or service affecting the generation gap
E)
entrepreneurial alertness
A
Research suggests that organizations started by entrepreneurial teams
tend to perform better than those started by individual entrepreneurs
working by themselves. What is this attributed to?
A) The new,
fresh mindset of entrepreneurs.
B) Organizations started by teams
have more money.
C) Individual organizations do not have the
manpower to help.
D) The combination of diverse skills,
experiences, and relationships of the entrepreneurial team
members.
E) Entrepreneurial teams use more research for start-up decisions.
D
Entrepreneurs are most likely to exploit an opportunity when
________.
A) customers are likely to continue using an existing
product
B) there is no market demand, but an opportunity to
create market demand
C) they perceive that they have the support
of important stakeholders
D) they want to enhance the prospects
of the opportunity by training an incapable management team
E)
they feel they do not have access to the resources needed to ensure
high levels of organizational performance
C
Which of the following is an example of an opportunity that arose
from the use of a new method of organizing?
A) using corn to
produce ethanol
B) using the Internet to sell a product
C)
raising chickens without antibiotics
D) an American bank
providing services in Australia
E) the invention of the heart stent
B
When Nintendo Crescendo, an electronics company, develops and markets
the Wii gaming system, it is an opportunity that has arisen from a
________.
A) new product or service
B) new geographical
market
C) new method of production
D) new raw
material
E) new method of organizing
A
The ability of entrepreneurs to understand how to turn a new
technology into a product or service that will be valued by consumers
refers to the ability to assess ________.
A) information
symmetry
B) market research
C) means-end
relationships
D) social networks
E) entrepreneurial risk
C
Social responsibility is the managerial obligation to take action
that protects and improves both the welfare of society and the
interests of the organization.
A) True
B) False
A
Any individual or group that is directly or indirectly affected by an
organization's decisions is called a stakeholder.
A) True
B) False
A
Measuring the present socially responsible activities of an
organization to assess performance in those areas is known as a/an
________.
A) social check
B) social audit
C) social
benchmark
D) social target reading
E) social responsive mark
B
When Apple donates computers for educational purposes, the company is
said to be working towards enhancing its ________ efforts.
A)
redundant
B) philanthropic
C) obligation
D)
educational
E) philosophical
B
______ is the degree to which a person or an entity can meet its
present needs without compromising the ability of other people or
entities to meet their needs in the future.
A)
Accountability
B) Reliability
C) Sustainability
D)
Maintainability
E) Scalability
C
The three sustainability gauges for organizational development —
economy, environment, and society — considered collectively are
commonly referred to as the ________.
A) triple
bottom-line
B) triple threat
C) long-term tests
D)
global best practices
E) protection areas
A
Which of the following suggests that an organization is acting
unethically?
A) The customers are unhappy with one of the
products manufactured by the organization.
B) The public
pressures legislators and other government officials to enforce
existing regulations.
C) The organization loses its customers to
competitors due to lack of after-sale services for its
products.
D) The public pressures the organization to conduct
social responsibility activities.
E) The union members of the
organization declare a strike to demand a hike in salaries.
B
______ is a formal statement that acts as a guide for the ethics of
how people within a particular organization should act and make
decisions.
A) A social audit
B) A whistle blower's
policy
C) Corporate governance
D) A code of ethics
E) A
mission statement
D
______ indicates that behavior can be considered ethical if it
provides the most good for the greatest number of people.
A) The
golden rule
B) The deontological principle
C) The
utilitarian standard
D) The virtue standard
E) The Kantian principle
C
A whistle-blower is ________.
A) the employee who reports the
alleged activities of the firm
B) the customer who files a
product liability suit against the firm
C) the business lawyer
who protects the firm against lawsuits
D) the employee who
performs the unethical or illegal activity in the firm
E) the
manager who protects the employee who reports the alleged activities
of the firm
A
The process of determining how an organization can get where it wants
to go and what it will do to accomplish its objectives is known as
________.
A) organizing
B) influencing
C)
planning
D) controlling
E) analyzing
C
A potential disadvantage of planning is that it can take up too much
managerial time.
A) True
B) False
A
A single-use financial plan that covers a specified length of time is
known as a(n) ________.
A) offshoot
B) microsystem
C)
spinoff
D) subsystem
E) budget
E
Alisa is trying to determine how to get her employees more involved
in the company's plans and goals. Which one of the following actions
could she take as she begins identifying the goals for her department
for the upcoming year?
A) Tell employees which goals they will be
working on.
B) Have employees vote on the goals for the
organization.
C) Assign goals randomly to employees.
D) Let
the people responsible for attaining the objectives have a voice in
setting them.
E) Let upper management set all departmental goals.
D
Which one of the following steps in the planning process should
precede the others?
A) develop premises upon which each
alternative is based
B) develop plans to pursue the chosen
alternative
C) list alternative ways of reaching
objectives
D) choose the best alternative for reaching
objectives
E) put plans into action
C
Premises are the assumptions upon which alternatives to reaching
organizational objectives are based.
A) True
B) False
A
It is important for an organization to ensure that the objectives set
for its employees are ________.
A) unrealistically high
B)
within easy reach
C) low
D) within reach, but not easy
reach
E) out of reach
D
According to Drucker, which one of the following key areas for
organizational objectives is more personal and subjective in nature,
and hence likely to arouse managerial opposition?
A)
productivity
B) innovation
C) worker performance and
attitude
D) physical and financial resources
E) market standing
C
When using PERT, the sequence of events requiring the longest period
of time is considered to be critical because one delay in the
activities results in delays in the completion of a project.
A)
True
B) False
A
______ is a standing plan that designates specific required
action.
A) A resource
B) A rule
C) A budget
D) A
strategy
E) A responsibility
B
Long-range planning that focuses on the organization as a whole is
________.
A) operational planning
B) organizational
planning
C) strategic planning
D) tactical planning
E)
managerial planning
C
The first step of strategic management is designed to
________.
A) establish an organizational direction
B)
formulate strategy
C) study the organizational
environment
D) advise managers to commit funds for
planning
E) control the environment
C
The lobbying of government by interest groups is an example of the
________ component of the general environment.
A) social
B)
political
C) legal
D) technological
E) international
B
According to Porter, threat of new entrants refers to
________.
A) the power that customers have over the firms
B)
the power that suppliers have over the firms
C) the extent to
which customers may use services from another industry instead of the
focal industry
D) the ability of new firms to enter an
industry
E) the intensity of the rules of an organization
D
A summer storm just passed through the town of Chester Oaks and
caused much roofing and siding damage to homes. This storm offers a(n)
________ to those offering roofing and siding services.
A)
strength
B) weakness
C) opportunity
D) threat
E)
force fulfillment
C
The document that is written by management and describes and explains
what the purpose for which the organization exists is the
________.
A) mission statement
B) strategic plan
C)
operating plan
D) annual budget
E) vision statement
A
Jewel Delight is planning to compete using a differentiation
strategy. Doing this means they will have what kind of products in
their jewelry stores?
A) basic, no frills jewelry
offerings
B) highly unique jewelry offerings
C) one line of
jewelry
D) comparable jewelry their competitors offer
E)
easily imitable jewelry offerings
B
An SBU with a large market share of a low-growth market is a
________.
A) star
B) dog
C) cash cow
D) question
mark
E) low-cost leader
C
______ is a strategy adopted by management to increase the amount of
business that an SBU is currently generating.
A)
Differentiation
B) Divestiture
C) Retrenchment
D)
Growth
E) Focus
D
Because strategic planning focuses on the long term and tactical
planning on the short term, strategic plans cover a relatively long
period of time whereas tactical plans cover a relatively short period
of time.
A) True
B) False
A
______ is the process of establishing orderly uses for resources
within the management system.
A) Organizing
B)
Communication
C) Planning
D) Controlling
E) Motivation
A
Which one of the following is the first step in the organizing
process?
A) establish major tasks
B) reflect on plans and
objectives
C) allocate resources and directives for
subtasks
D) evaluate results of organizing strategy
E)
divide major tasks into subtasks
B
Bureaucracy can be characterized as a management system with detailed
procedures, rules, and a clearly outlined organizational hierarchy
with impersonal relationships among organization members.
A)
True
B) False
A
______ departmentalization focuses on locations, while ______
departmentalization focuses on the individuals who procure the firm’s
goods and services.
A) Product; geography
B) Matrix;
product
C) Geography; customer
D) Customer; product
E)
Product; matrix
C
Which one of the following is a disadvantage of division of
labor?
A) It makes the work more difficult.
B) It makes work
more time-consuming and inefficient.
C) It can result in workers
getting bored with their work.
D) It prevents workers from
specializing at a task.
E) It requires workers to know about the
entire process and not just one task.
C
Unity of command is the management principle that recommends that
________.
A) all managers share the same goals
B) all
employees should accept their formal leader or leaders
C) an
individual have only one boss
D) organizational plans be
consistent with organizational goals
E) the organizing system be
consistent with organizational plans
C
Span of management refers to the number of ________.
A) levels
in an organization
B) organizational levels above an
individual
C) organizational levels below an individual
D)
bosses an individual has
E) individuals a manager supervises
E
In general, the closer the subordinates are in location to each
other, the more of them managers can supervise effectively.
A)
True
B) False
A
The organization structure at Kinetic Machines is horizontally
divided into Marketing, Finance, Production, and R&D departments.
Identify the departmentalization mode being used here.
A)
product
B) geographic
C) functional
D) customer
E) matrix
C
______ organizations are also called project organizations.
A)
Silo
B) Functional
C) Radial
D) Pyramid
E) Matrix
E
Which one of the following is depicted in a model developed by
Hellriegel and Slocum?
A) importance of stress and efficiency to
organizational survival
B) importance of change and stability to
organizational survival
C) importance of finances and production
to organizational survival
D) importance of attitudes and
behaviors to organizational survival
E) importance of training
and motivation to organizational survival
B
Organizational effectiveness depends primarily on activities
centering around three classes of factors. The factors are
________.
A) data orientation, people, and technology
B)
people, structure, and visibility
C) people, technology, and
structure
D) structure, procedures, and people
E) structure,
technology, and money
C
Value Innovations Inc. engages in selling computers and other
electronic components through telephone and Web orders. The company
has decided to change some of its policies. When recruiting employees,
it will now focus primarily on the attitudes of individuals. Here, the
company is concentrating on a(n) ________ factor.
A)
structural
B) technological
C) communication
D)
people
E) informative
D
The managerial grid proposes that various managerial styles can be
described by a manager's concern for ________.
A) quantity and
quality
B) production and people
C) power and
acceptance
D) profit maximization and revenue
maximization
E) customers and company
B
Which one of the following is a common reason behind employee
resistance to change?
A) Most individuals are open to
experience.
B) Individuals fear some type of personal
loss.
C) Most changes involve changes in organizational
hierarchy.
D) Faith in the status-quo is limited.
E) Most
organizations maintain high power distance.
B
Making changes on a tentative basis increases resistance to
organizational change.
A) True
B) False
B
The bodily strain that an individual experiences as a result of
coping with some environmental factor is called ________.
A)
stress
B) conflict
C) anger
D) aggression
E) denial
A
Managers attempting to settle a workplace conflict who feel a
solution completely acceptable to everyone would be difficult to reach
and therefore focusing on a solution that gives employees involved in
the conflict a part of what they wanted is using a/an ________
technique for handling the conflict.
A) compromising
B)
avoiding
C) forcing
D) resolving
E) partiality
A
______ is a technique for managing conflict in which managers use
their authority to resolve conflicts.
A) Resolving
B)
Compromising
C) Negotiating
D) Avoiding
E) Forcing
E
Which one of the following is an advantage of establishing virtual
offices?
A) They provide better opportunities for employee
socialization.
B) They help the organization build the desired
corporate culture.
C) Virtual offices enable cost
reduction.
D) Virtual offices enhance management control.
E)
They help the organization reduce the dependence on technology.
C
When executives were asked to rank essential skills employees need in
their jobs ________ skills ranked as number one.
A)
interpersonal
B) motivational
C) oral and written
communication
D) collaboration
E) planning
C
The purpose of the influencing function of management is
________.
A) persuade customers to purchase the company's
products
B) guide the behaviors of employees to attain the
organization's goals
C) coerce employees into changing their
behaviors
D) control the actions of employees in their personal
lives
E) organize groups of employees into efficient work units
B
The capacity of people to recognize their own feelings and the
feelings of others, to motivate themselves, and to manage their own
feelings as well as the emotions in relationships with others, is
called ________.
A) emotional intelligence
B) business
intelligence
C) social emotional learning
D) affective
science
E) competitive intelligence
A
What is the major purpose of feedback in the communication
process?
A) It is used by the source to ensure successful
communication.
B) It can be used to boost the legitimate power of
managers.
C) It provides formal documentation of the
communication process.
D) It helps the source avoid questions
from the destination.
E) It fosters lateral communication in the organization.
A
Which one of the following should the source do to gather nonverbal
feedback?
A) Observe the destination's gestures and facial
expressions.
B) Ask the destination questions about the
message.
C) Repeat the message and ask for specific
feedback.
D) Ask the destination about how the message was
perceived.
E) Use tests and procedures that suit the situation.
A
The increasing need for information in today's society is an example
of a microbarrier to communication.
A) True
B) False
B
Carolyn joins Arbitrar Consultants as a sales trainee. Her manager
sends her an email outlining her role and responsibilities and the
specific tasks she will be in charge of at the company. This is an
example of ________.
A) upward communication
B) parallel
communication
C) downward communication
D) horizontal
communication
E) lateral communication
C
The head of the HR department meets the head of the production
department to discuss the production team’s staffing needs for the
next two quarters. This is an example of ________.
A) upward
communication
B) downward communication
C) informal
communication
D) lateral communication
E) external communication
D
Which one of the following is true regarding serial
transmission?
A) The information conveyed is highly
accurate.
B) The message becomes distorted as the length of the
series increases.
C) It provides stability to the
organization.
D) Employee morale tends to be poor.
E) The
presence of a leader is highly evident.
B
Organizational communication that does not follow the lines of the
organizational chart is specifically called ________.
A) lateral
communication
B) upward communication
C) vertical
communication
D) informal communication
E) downward communication
D
Which one of the following is a valid observation of management and
leadership?
A) Leading is not a part of the influencing
function
B) Leading is synonymous to managing in most
cases
C) Leadership is considered a subset of management
D)
Leading is much broader in scope than managing
E) Leading mainly
emphasizes nonbehavioral issues
C
A manager makes sure the job gets done whereas a leader cares about
and focuses on the people who do the job.
A) True
B) False
A
Which one of the following approaches to leadership views the
personal characteristics of an individual as the main determinants of
how successful that individual could be as a leader?
A)
behavioral approach
B) situational approach
C)
characteristic approach
D) trait approach
E) follower approach
D
According to the OSU studies, the behavior that reflects friendship,
mutual trust, respect, and warmth in the relationship between leader
and follower is called ________.
A) internal behavior
B)
central behavior
C) consideration behavior
D) structured
behavior
E) unstructured behavior
C
Which one of the following approaches to leadership suggests
successful leadership requires a unique combination of leaders,
followers, and leadership circumstances?
A) the trait
approach
B) the situational approach to leadership
C)
transformational leadership
D) authentic approach
E) the
behavioral approach
B
Which one of the following statements is most closely associated with
the concepts of the path-goal theory of leadership?
A)
Achievement of organizational goals is more important than the paths
used to achieve them.
B) Managers must set the goals for
performance and allow employees to select the path they use to achieve
the goal.
C) Directive behavior is not appropriate when precise
performance goals and procedures exist.
D) Effective leaders are
characterized by high degree of acceptance and low
task-orientation.
E) Managers can facilitate job performance by
showing employees how their performance directly affects their
receiving of rewards.
E
______ behavior is aimed at telling followers what to do and how to
do it.
A) Supportive
B) Directive
C)
Accommodating
D) Participative
E) Achievement
B
In terms of the life cycle theory of leadership, what do we call the
ability of followers to perform their job independently, to assume
additional responsibilities, and to desire to achieve success?
A)
autonomy
B) responsibility
C) maturity
D)
visioning
E) accountability
C
Which one of the following leadership facets is highlighted in the
Tannenbaum and Schmidt Leadership Continuum?
A) employee
motivation
B) communication
C) workforce controlling
D)
decision making
E) employee training
D
Five styles of decision making, ranging from autocratic to
consultative, are identified in the ________.
A) Fiedler's
Contingency Theory
B) Hersey-Blanchard Model
C) path-goal
leadership model
D) Vroom-Yetton-Jago Model
E) trait theory
of leadership
D
_______ involves ensuring that an event occurs as it was planned to
occur.
A) Designing
B) Planning
C) Influencing
D)
Controlling
E) Organizing
D
To control successfully, managers must understand not only the
control process but also how organization members relate to
it.
A) True
B) False
A
_______ helps managers enhance the success of the overall management
system through effective controlling.
A) Planning
B) The
controlling subsystem
C) Organizing
D) Designing
E) Motivation
B
Which one of the following is the first step in the controlling
process?
A) Controlling performance
B) Taking corrective
action
C) Measuring performance
D) Recognizing
problems
E) Comparing performance standards
C
As part of the controlling process, you have finished measuring the
performance of your team. What must you do next?
A) Take
corrective action
B) Establish unit of measure to gauge
performance
C) Modify past plans
D) Restructure control
systems and subsystems
E) Compare measured performance to standards
E
The extent to which an individual is able to influence others so
they respond to orders is called ________.
A) Benchmark
B) Responsibility
C) Accountability
D) Strength
E) Power
E
Which of the following is a factor that determines the value of
information?
A) Information source
B) Information
quality
C) Information cost
D) Information scarcity
E)
Information application
B
Derek recently asked for opinions on whether to install charging
stations at every bay in his organization. The response was huge and
mixed. There were a lot of pros and cons mentioned. Derek is now
unable to come to a decision. Which one of the following describes the
situation?
A) Paralysis by organizing
B) Paralysis by
planning
C) Paralysis by analysis
D) Paralysis by
control
E) Paralysis by action
C
_______ is a segment of technology which uses computers and
telecommunication devices that focus on the use of information in the
performance of work.
A) Management technology
B) Strategic
planning technology
C) Corporate technology
D) Controlling
technology
E) Information technology
E
Martin has determined exactly what information he needs to assess
worker productivity. He has collected the appropriate data necessary
to produce the relevant information. What should Martin do
next?
A) Summarize and analyze the data
B) Transmit the
information
C) Determine the quality of the data
D) Use the
information to assess productivity
E) Evaluate the cost of the data
A