If a manager reaches goals but wastes resources doing so, the manager is considered to be _______.
A. inefficient and ineffective
B. effective and inefficient
C. efficient and effective
D. neither effective nor ineffective
E. ineffective and efficient

B

Management principles are considered to be universal because _______.
A. the principles of planning, organizing, influencing, and controlling are the same across organizations
B. all organizations have the same organizational hierarchy
C. employees in all organizations have the same skill sets
D. organizational goals and methods do not change from organization to organization
E. production processes and strategies remain the same across organizations

A

According to Robert Katz, applying specialized knowledge and expertise to work-related techniques is a characteristic of _______.
A. strategic skills
B. human skills
C. technical skills
D. interpersonal skills
E. conceptual skills

C

As a manager's career advances from lower-level management to upper-level management, conceptual skills become more important and technical skills less important while at the same time their time spent planning increases and daily leading of operational employees decreases.
A. True
B. False

A

In building a career, an individual should be focused on _______ to qualify for the next planned job and not simply taking a job with the highest salary.
A. the application process
B. making the most money
C. interviews
D. unit performance
E. developing skills necessary

E

Which career stage is characterized by self-analysis and the exploration of the different types of available jobs?
A. exploration stage
B. career plateauing stage
C. establishment stage
D. decline stage
E. maintenance stage

A

Which of the following demonstrates the correct sequence in the stages of entrepreneurship?
A) opportunity identification, opportunity evaluation, opportunity exploitation
B) opportunity identification, opportunity exploitation, opportunity evaluation
C) opportunity evaluation, opportunity identification, opportunity exploitation
D) opportunity evaluation, opportunity exploitation, opportunity identification
E) opportunity exploitation, opportunity evaluation, opportunity identification

A

Which of the following is an example of an opportunity that has arisen from new uses for raw materials?
A) the invention of the heart stent
B) an American bank providing services in Canada
C) raising chickens without using any antibiotics
D) using the Internet to sell a product
E) using corn to produce ethanol

E

Although an opportunity may exist, it needs to be recognized first. This is ________.
A) opportunity feedback
B) opportunity evaluation
C) opportunity exploitation
D) opportunity identification
E) opportunity cost

D

Entrepreneurial alertness refers to an individual's ability to notice and be sensitive to new information about objects, incidents, and patterns of behavior in the environment.
A) True
B) False

A

What will entrepreneurs study in a feasibility analysis?
A) customer demands, structure of the industry, ability to provide the new product or service
B) ways to increase production and cut corners on costs
C) strategic planning
D) the likelihood of a product or service affecting the generation gap
E) entrepreneurial alertness

A

Research suggests that organizations started by entrepreneurial teams tend to perform better than those started by individual entrepreneurs working by themselves. What is this attributed to?
A) The new, fresh mindset of entrepreneurs.
B) Organizations started by teams have more money.
C) Individual organizations do not have the manpower to help.
D) The combination of diverse skills, experiences, and relationships of the entrepreneurial team members.
E) Entrepreneurial teams use more research for start-up decisions.

D

Entrepreneurs are most likely to exploit an opportunity when ________.
A) customers are likely to continue using an existing product
B) there is no market demand, but an opportunity to create market demand
C) they perceive that they have the support of important stakeholders
D) they want to enhance the prospects of the opportunity by training an incapable management team
E) they feel they do not have access to the resources needed to ensure high levels of organizational performance

C

Which of the following is an example of an opportunity that arose from the use of a new method of organizing?
A) using corn to produce ethanol
B) using the Internet to sell a product
C) raising chickens without antibiotics
D) an American bank providing services in Australia
E) the invention of the heart stent

B

When Nintendo Crescendo, an electronics company, develops and markets the Wii gaming system, it is an opportunity that has arisen from a ________.
A) new product or service
B) new geographical market
C) new method of production
D) new raw material
E) new method of organizing

A

The ability of entrepreneurs to understand how to turn a new technology into a product or service that will be valued by consumers refers to the ability to assess ________.
A) information symmetry
B) market research
C) means-end relationships
D) social networks
E) entrepreneurial risk

C

Social responsibility is the managerial obligation to take action that protects and improves both the welfare of society and the interests of the organization.
A) True
B) False

A

Any individual or group that is directly or indirectly affected by an organization's decisions is called a stakeholder.
A) True
B) False

A

Measuring the present socially responsible activities of an organization to assess performance in those areas is known as a/an ________.
A) social check
B) social audit
C) social benchmark
D) social target reading
E) social responsive mark

B

When Apple donates computers for educational purposes, the company is said to be working towards enhancing its ________ efforts.
A) redundant
B) philanthropic
C) obligation
D) educational
E) philosophical

B

______ is the degree to which a person or an entity can meet its present needs without compromising the ability of other people or entities to meet their needs in the future.
A) Accountability
B) Reliability
C) Sustainability
D) Maintainability
E) Scalability

C

The three sustainability gauges for organizational development — economy, environment, and society — considered collectively are commonly referred to as the ________.
A) triple bottom-line
B) triple threat
C) long-term tests
D) global best practices
E) protection areas

A

Which of the following suggests that an organization is acting unethically?
A) The customers are unhappy with one of the products manufactured by the organization.
B) The public pressures legislators and other government officials to enforce existing regulations.
C) The organization loses its customers to competitors due to lack of after-sale services for its products.
D) The public pressures the organization to conduct social responsibility activities.
E) The union members of the organization declare a strike to demand a hike in salaries.

B

______ is a formal statement that acts as a guide for the ethics of how people within a particular organization should act and make decisions.
A) A social audit
B) A whistle blower's policy
C) Corporate governance
D) A code of ethics
E) A mission statement

D

______ indicates that behavior can be considered ethical if it provides the most good for the greatest number of people.
A) The golden rule
B) The deontological principle
C) The utilitarian standard
D) The virtue standard
E) The Kantian principle

C

A whistle-blower is ________.
A) the employee who reports the alleged activities of the firm
B) the customer who files a product liability suit against the firm
C) the business lawyer who protects the firm against lawsuits
D) the employee who performs the unethical or illegal activity in the firm
E) the manager who protects the employee who reports the alleged activities of the firm

A

The process of determining how an organization can get where it wants to go and what it will do to accomplish its objectives is known as ________.
A) organizing
B) influencing
C) planning
D) controlling
E) analyzing

C

A potential disadvantage of planning is that it can take up too much managerial time.
A) True
B) False

A

A single-use financial plan that covers a specified length of time is known as a(n) ________.
A) offshoot
B) microsystem
C) spinoff
D) subsystem
E) budget

E

Alisa is trying to determine how to get her employees more involved in the company's plans and goals. Which one of the following actions could she take as she begins identifying the goals for her department for the upcoming year?
A) Tell employees which goals they will be working on.
B) Have employees vote on the goals for the organization.
C) Assign goals randomly to employees.
D) Let the people responsible for attaining the objectives have a voice in setting them.
E) Let upper management set all departmental goals.

D

Which one of the following steps in the planning process should precede the others?
A) develop premises upon which each alternative is based
B) develop plans to pursue the chosen alternative
C) list alternative ways of reaching objectives
D) choose the best alternative for reaching objectives
E) put plans into action

C

Premises are the assumptions upon which alternatives to reaching organizational objectives are based.
A) True
B) False

A

It is important for an organization to ensure that the objectives set for its employees are ________.
A) unrealistically high
B) within easy reach
C) low
D) within reach, but not easy reach
E) out of reach

D

According to Drucker, which one of the following key areas for organizational objectives is more personal and subjective in nature, and hence likely to arouse managerial opposition?
A) productivity
B) innovation
C) worker performance and attitude
D) physical and financial resources
E) market standing

C

When using PERT, the sequence of events requiring the longest period of time is considered to be critical because one delay in the activities results in delays in the completion of a project.
A) True
B) False

A

______ is a standing plan that designates specific required action.
A) A resource
B) A rule
C) A budget
D) A strategy
E) A responsibility

B

Long-range planning that focuses on the organization as a whole is ________.
A) operational planning
B) organizational planning
C) strategic planning
D) tactical planning
E) managerial planning

C

The first step of strategic management is designed to ________.
A) establish an organizational direction
B) formulate strategy
C) study the organizational environment
D) advise managers to commit funds for planning
E) control the environment

C

The lobbying of government by interest groups is an example of the ________ component of the general environment.
A) social
B) political
C) legal
D) technological
E) international

B

According to Porter, threat of new entrants refers to ________.
A) the power that customers have over the firms
B) the power that suppliers have over the firms
C) the extent to which customers may use services from another industry instead of the focal industry
D) the ability of new firms to enter an industry
E) the intensity of the rules of an organization

D

A summer storm just passed through the town of Chester Oaks and caused much roofing and siding damage to homes. This storm offers a(n) ________ to those offering roofing and siding services.
A) strength
B) weakness
C) opportunity
D) threat
E) force fulfillment

C

The document that is written by management and describes and explains what the purpose for which the organization exists is the ________.
A) mission statement
B) strategic plan
C) operating plan
D) annual budget
E) vision statement

A

Jewel Delight is planning to compete using a differentiation strategy. Doing this means they will have what kind of products in their jewelry stores?
A) basic, no frills jewelry offerings
B) highly unique jewelry offerings
C) one line of jewelry
D) comparable jewelry their competitors offer
E) easily imitable jewelry offerings

B

An SBU with a large market share of a low-growth market is a ________.
A) star
B) dog
C) cash cow
D) question mark
E) low-cost leader

C

______ is a strategy adopted by management to increase the amount of business that an SBU is currently generating.
A) Differentiation
B) Divestiture
C) Retrenchment
D) Growth
E) Focus

D

Because strategic planning focuses on the long term and tactical planning on the short term, strategic plans cover a relatively long period of time whereas tactical plans cover a relatively short period of time.
A) True
B) False

A

______ is the process of establishing orderly uses for resources within the management system.
A) Organizing
B) Communication
C) Planning
D) Controlling
E) Motivation

A

Which one of the following is the first step in the organizing process?
A) establish major tasks
B) reflect on plans and objectives
C) allocate resources and directives for subtasks
D) evaluate results of organizing strategy
E) divide major tasks into subtasks

B

Bureaucracy can be characterized as a management system with detailed procedures, rules, and a clearly outlined organizational hierarchy with impersonal relationships among organization members.
A) True
B) False

A

______ departmentalization focuses on locations, while ______ departmentalization focuses on the individuals who procure the firm’s goods and services.
A) Product; geography
B) Matrix; product
C) Geography; customer
D) Customer; product
E) Product; matrix

C

Which one of the following is a disadvantage of division of labor?
A) It makes the work more difficult.
B) It makes work more time-consuming and inefficient.
C) It can result in workers getting bored with their work.
D) It prevents workers from specializing at a task.
E) It requires workers to know about the entire process and not just one task.

C

Unity of command is the management principle that recommends that ________.
A) all managers share the same goals
B) all employees should accept their formal leader or leaders
C) an individual have only one boss
D) organizational plans be consistent with organizational goals
E) the organizing system be consistent with organizational plans

C

Span of management refers to the number of ________.
A) levels in an organization
B) organizational levels above an individual
C) organizational levels below an individual
D) bosses an individual has
E) individuals a manager supervises

E

In general, the closer the subordinates are in location to each other, the more of them managers can supervise effectively.
A) True
B) False

A

The organization structure at Kinetic Machines is horizontally divided into Marketing, Finance, Production, and R&D departments. Identify the departmentalization mode being used here.
A) product
B) geographic
C) functional
D) customer
E) matrix

C

______ organizations are also called project organizations.
A) Silo
B) Functional
C) Radial
D) Pyramid
E) Matrix

E

Which one of the following is depicted in a model developed by Hellriegel and Slocum?
A) importance of stress and efficiency to organizational survival
B) importance of change and stability to organizational survival
C) importance of finances and production to organizational survival
D) importance of attitudes and behaviors to organizational survival
E) importance of training and motivation to organizational survival

B

Organizational effectiveness depends primarily on activities centering around three classes of factors. The factors are ________.
A) data orientation, people, and technology
B) people, structure, and visibility
C) people, technology, and structure
D) structure, procedures, and people
E) structure, technology, and money

C

Value Innovations Inc. engages in selling computers and other electronic components through telephone and Web orders. The company has decided to change some of its policies. When recruiting employees, it will now focus primarily on the attitudes of individuals. Here, the company is concentrating on a(n) ________ factor.
A) structural
B) technological
C) communication
D) people
E) informative

D

The managerial grid proposes that various managerial styles can be described by a manager's concern for ________.
A) quantity and quality
B) production and people
C) power and acceptance
D) profit maximization and revenue maximization
E) customers and company

B

Which one of the following is a common reason behind employee resistance to change?
A) Most individuals are open to experience.
B) Individuals fear some type of personal loss.
C) Most changes involve changes in organizational hierarchy.
D) Faith in the status-quo is limited.
E) Most organizations maintain high power distance.

B

Making changes on a tentative basis increases resistance to organizational change.
A) True
B) False

B

The bodily strain that an individual experiences as a result of coping with some environmental factor is called ________.
A) stress
B) conflict
C) anger
D) aggression
E) denial

A

Managers attempting to settle a workplace conflict who feel a solution completely acceptable to everyone would be difficult to reach and therefore focusing on a solution that gives employees involved in the conflict a part of what they wanted is using a/an ________ technique for handling the conflict.
A) compromising
B) avoiding
C) forcing
D) resolving
E) partiality

A

______ is a technique for managing conflict in which managers use their authority to resolve conflicts.
A) Resolving
B) Compromising
C) Negotiating
D) Avoiding
E) Forcing

E

Which one of the following is an advantage of establishing virtual offices?
A) They provide better opportunities for employee socialization.
B) They help the organization build the desired corporate culture.
C) Virtual offices enable cost reduction.
D) Virtual offices enhance management control.
E) They help the organization reduce the dependence on technology.

C

When executives were asked to rank essential skills employees need in their jobs ________ skills ranked as number one.
A) interpersonal
B) motivational
C) oral and written communication
D) collaboration
E) planning

C

The purpose of the influencing function of management is ________.
A) persuade customers to purchase the company's products
B) guide the behaviors of employees to attain the organization's goals
C) coerce employees into changing their behaviors
D) control the actions of employees in their personal lives
E) organize groups of employees into efficient work units

B

The capacity of people to recognize their own feelings and the feelings of others, to motivate themselves, and to manage their own feelings as well as the emotions in relationships with others, is called ________.
A) emotional intelligence
B) business intelligence
C) social emotional learning
D) affective science
E) competitive intelligence

A

What is the major purpose of feedback in the communication process?
A) It is used by the source to ensure successful communication.
B) It can be used to boost the legitimate power of managers.
C) It provides formal documentation of the communication process.
D) It helps the source avoid questions from the destination.
E) It fosters lateral communication in the organization.

A

Which one of the following should the source do to gather nonverbal feedback?
A) Observe the destination's gestures and facial expressions.
B) Ask the destination questions about the message.
C) Repeat the message and ask for specific feedback.
D) Ask the destination about how the message was perceived.
E) Use tests and procedures that suit the situation.

A

The increasing need for information in today's society is an example of a microbarrier to communication.
A) True
B) False

B

Carolyn joins Arbitrar Consultants as a sales trainee. Her manager sends her an email outlining her role and responsibilities and the specific tasks she will be in charge of at the company. This is an example of ________.
A) upward communication
B) parallel communication
C) downward communication
D) horizontal communication
E) lateral communication

C

The head of the HR department meets the head of the production department to discuss the production team’s staffing needs for the next two quarters. This is an example of ________.
A) upward communication
B) downward communication
C) informal communication
D) lateral communication
E) external communication

D

Which one of the following is true regarding serial transmission?
A) The information conveyed is highly accurate.
B) The message becomes distorted as the length of the series increases.
C) It provides stability to the organization.
D) Employee morale tends to be poor.
E) The presence of a leader is highly evident.

B

Organizational communication that does not follow the lines of the organizational chart is specifically called ________.
A) lateral communication
B) upward communication
C) vertical communication
D) informal communication
E) downward communication

D

Which one of the following is a valid observation of management and leadership?
A) Leading is not a part of the influencing function
B) Leading is synonymous to managing in most cases
C) Leadership is considered a subset of management
D) Leading is much broader in scope than managing
E) Leading mainly emphasizes nonbehavioral issues

C

A manager makes sure the job gets done whereas a leader cares about and focuses on the people who do the job.
A) True
B) False

A

Which one of the following approaches to leadership views the personal characteristics of an individual as the main determinants of how successful that individual could be as a leader?
A) behavioral approach
B) situational approach
C) characteristic approach
D) trait approach
E) follower approach

D

According to the OSU studies, the behavior that reflects friendship, mutual trust, respect, and warmth in the relationship between leader and follower is called ________.
A) internal behavior
B) central behavior
C) consideration behavior
D) structured behavior
E) unstructured behavior

C

Which one of the following approaches to leadership suggests successful leadership requires a unique combination of leaders, followers, and leadership circumstances?
A) the trait approach
B) the situational approach to leadership
C) transformational leadership
D) authentic approach
E) the behavioral approach

B

Which one of the following statements is most closely associated with the concepts of the path-goal theory of leadership?
A) Achievement of organizational goals is more important than the paths used to achieve them.
B) Managers must set the goals for performance and allow employees to select the path they use to achieve the goal.
C) Directive behavior is not appropriate when precise performance goals and procedures exist.
D) Effective leaders are characterized by high degree of acceptance and low task-orientation.
E) Managers can facilitate job performance by showing employees how their performance directly affects their receiving of rewards.

E

______ behavior is aimed at telling followers what to do and how to do it.
A) Supportive
B) Directive
C) Accommodating
D) Participative
E) Achievement

B

In terms of the life cycle theory of leadership, what do we call the ability of followers to perform their job independently, to assume additional responsibilities, and to desire to achieve success?
A) autonomy
B) responsibility
C) maturity
D) visioning
E) accountability

C

Which one of the following leadership facets is highlighted in the Tannenbaum and Schmidt Leadership Continuum?
A) employee motivation
B) communication
C) workforce controlling
D) decision making
E) employee training

D

Five styles of decision making, ranging from autocratic to consultative, are identified in the ________.
A) Fiedler's Contingency Theory
B) Hersey-Blanchard Model
C) path-goal leadership model
D) Vroom-Yetton-Jago Model
E) trait theory of leadership

D

_______ involves ensuring that an event occurs as it was planned to occur.
A) Designing
B) Planning
C) Influencing
D) Controlling
E) Organizing

D

To control successfully, managers must understand not only the control process but also how organization members relate to it.
A) True
B) False

A

_______ helps managers enhance the success of the overall management system through effective controlling.
A) Planning
B) The controlling subsystem
C) Organizing
D) Designing
E) Motivation

B

Which one of the following is the first step in the controlling process?
A) Controlling performance
B) Taking corrective action
C) Measuring performance
D) Recognizing problems
E) Comparing performance standards

C

As part of the controlling process, you have finished measuring the performance of your team. What must you do next?
A) Take corrective action
B) Establish unit of measure to gauge performance
C) Modify past plans
D) Restructure control systems and subsystems
E) Compare measured performance to standards

E

The extent to which an individual is able to influence others so they respond to orders is called ________.
A) Benchmark
B) Responsibility
C) Accountability
D) Strength
E) Power

E

Which of the following is a factor that determines the value of information?
A) Information source
B) Information quality
C) Information cost
D) Information scarcity
E) Information application

B

Derek recently asked for opinions on whether to install charging stations at every bay in his organization. The response was huge and mixed. There were a lot of pros and cons mentioned. Derek is now unable to come to a decision. Which one of the following describes the situation?
A) Paralysis by organizing
B) Paralysis by planning
C) Paralysis by analysis
D) Paralysis by control
E) Paralysis by action

C

_______ is a segment of technology which uses computers and telecommunication devices that focus on the use of information in the performance of work.
A) Management technology
B) Strategic planning technology
C) Corporate technology
D) Controlling technology
E) Information technology

E

Martin has determined exactly what information he needs to assess worker productivity. He has collected the appropriate data necessary to produce the relevant information. What should Martin do next?
A) Summarize and analyze the data
B) Transmit the information
C) Determine the quality of the data
D) Use the information to assess productivity
E) Evaluate the cost of the data

A