What is the fate of autocrine signals?
same cells
What does EPEC do to cause diarrhea?
modify the structure of epithelial cells
What is the fate of paracrine signals?
nearby cells
What is the fate of endocrine signals?
distant cells
What does a signaling pathway start with?
signal molecule
What does a signaling pathway contact first?
receptor
What happens when the receptor and the signal come together?
intracelular signal
What structure is sought within the cell in a signaling pathway?
target proteín
What is the effect that you see if the signaling pathway works?
response
What does a hydrophobic ligand need to enter the cell?
simple receptors or proteins
What does a hydrophilic ligand need to enter the cell?
transmembranal receptors
What is not a major transmembrane receptor class?
alkaline phosphate
How many times do most G-protein coupled receptors cross the membrane?
7
What subunit separates when the G-protein coupled receptor is active?
alpha
How many times do enzyme coupled receptors cross the membrane?
1
What start when enzime coupled receptor is active?
intrinsic enzyme activity
What start when ion chanel receptors is active?
shift in electric charge inside the cell
What is not a Bordetella signaling system?
CFTR
In Cholera toxin mechanism, What is the response of the epithelial cell?
Release cell Cl-
Who in 1674, whit his microscope, discovered a world of millions of tiny "animalcules"?
Anton van Leeuwenhoek
Who in 18th century organized bacteria into genera an species according Linnaeus classification methods?
Otto Müller
Who in 1840 proposed the "germ theory" of disease?
Friedrich Henle
ho in 1870s and 1880s confirm rabies, plague, cholera… were responsible for microorganisms?
Louis Pasteur
Who in 1910 discovered the first anibacterial agent?
Paul Ehrlich
Who in 1928 discovered penicillin?
Fleming
Who in 1935 discovered sulfanilamide?
Gerhard Dogmagk
who in 1943 discovered streptomycin?
Selman Waksman
Who in 1946 was the first to cultivate virises in cell cultures?
John Enders
Who is known as the inventor of the microscope?
Galileo Galilei
What is the most common school microscope?
brightfield (light) microscope
What microscope uses a special condenser to avoid passing light directly through the specimen?
darkfield microscope
Which microscopy uses fluorochromes in the slides?
fluorescent microscopy
Which microscope use annular rings in the condenser and the objective lens?
phase-contrast microscope
Which microscope emits a shorter wavelength of light than that emitted by traditional?
fluorescent microscope
With which microscope is it difficult to study internal structures because light passes around the sample?
darkfield microscope
What is the simplest microscope that only relies on the system of objectives and eyepieces?
brightfield (light) microscope
Which microscope allows you to see the internal details of microbes to examine?
phase-contrast microscope
Which microscope uses magnetic coils rather than lenses?
electron microscope
Which microscopy let us see viruses?
electron microscopy
Which one is the simplest of preparation samples for microscopic examination method?
direct examination
Wet mount is an example of which of the following?
direct examination
Which one is used to identify specific organisms or components of cellular material?
differential stains
Gram is an example of which of the following?
differential stains
Iron hematoxylin stains is an example of which of the following?
differential stains
Which one use mixtures of acids or alcohols?
Acid-Fast stains
Ziehl-Neelsen is an example of which of the following?
Acid-Fast stains
Which one use fluorescent antibody stain?
fluorescent stains
Acridine orange stain is an example of which of the following?
fluorescent stains
What kind of cell are bacteria?
prokaryote
What structures can bacteria have?
plasmid, circular chromosome, peptidoglycan, flagellum, cell wall,
What structures can bacteria not have?
nuclear membrane, lysosome, golgi apparatus, rough endoplasmic reticulum,
What is the name of the structure that may be on the cell wall?
outer membrane
What is the structure that stain with safranin in Gram stain?
outer membrane
What is the bacterial structure that is a potent activator of innate host response?
LPS
What is the antiphagocytic bacterial structure?
capsule
what kind of peptidoglycan have a Gram-Positive bacteria?
thick
What is the common biochemical pathway for the pyruvate in the bacteria without oxygen?
fermentation
What structure is a protection of colony from environmental, antimicrobials, and host response?
biofilm
Which one of the next virulence mechanisms attach the bacteria to the host?
adherence
Which of the following bacteria can act in different tissues?
s. aureus
Which of the following bacteria has factors that need to be internalized into the host to become activated?
b. anthracis
Which of the following bacteria comes to present as a symptom cough and sometimes with blood?
m. tuberculosis
Which of the following bacteria can’t be cultured on artificial media?
m. leprae
Which of the following bacteria have a very specific shape that you can recognize in the microscope?
strptococcus pyogenes
Which of the following bacteria can produce abortion?
corynebacterium diphtheriae
Which of the following bacteria use holey's agar to detection?
listeria monocytogenes
Which of the following bacteria can produce Gonorrhea?
neisseria
Which of the following bacteria have capsular polysaccharides?
haemophilus
Which of the following virulence factors are associated with Enterobacteriaceae family?
Type III secretion system
Which of the following bacteria is confirmed with TCBS agar?
v. cholerae
Which of the following bacteria is the most common opportunistic?
p. aureginosa
Which of the following bacteria produce Pertussis?
bordetella
Which of the following bacteria produce Brucellosis?
brucella
Which of the following bacteria produce Tularemia?
fransicella
Which of the following bacteria produce Syphillis?
treponema
Which of the following bacteria produce Botulism?
clostridium
Which of the following bacteria is anaerobic?
lactobacillus
Which of the following bacteria produce Lyme disease?
borrelia
Which of the following bacteria don't have cell wall?
mycoplasma
Genetic information in the cell is carried by information molecules, including al EXCEPT which of the following?
phospholipids
A plasmid differs from the bacterial chromosome in that it is ______.
significantly smaller
Lysozyme and penicillin mechanisms of action are different, resulting in the fact that ____.
penicillin kills only growing cells
If a bacterial culture contains 1 cells at time zero, 4 cells after 1 h., and 16 cells after 2 h., which one is no true?
the growth rate is increasing with each generation
In which phase of growth are the cells rapidly synthesizing proteins, but cell numbers are not changing?
lag phase
which type of culture would be best to use for growing a bacterium adapted to growth in very low nutrient concentration?
chemostat using a low-nutrient medium
In a culture grown in a chemostat (continuous culture), the best way to increase the yield of bacteria would be___
increase the concentration of nutrients in the medium
Which method let you now how many living cells are in the culture at a given time? (pure culture growing in a flask)
plate counts
What hapend in bacteria growth If the temperature is increased beyond the optimum?
growth rates decline rapidly as the temperature increases
In a sample wirh virus particles and bacteria. How can the bacteria be eliminated without harming the viruses
Filter the sample with a 0.2 im pore filter
Which of the following examples describes a type of bacterial catabolite repression?
when glucose is present the lac operon is inhibited
Define what an effector is in genetic regulation.
small molecules that induce or repress transcription of a specific gene.
Which of the following examples would be best when an enzyme needs to be available very rapidly?
an enzyme is activated by the binding of a molecule to its allosteric site
Which can cause pneumonia in a healthy person?
haemophilus influenzae
Which one can cause chronic pulmonary disease after dog/cat bite?
pasteurella multocida
Which one can cause gastroenteritis?
escherichia coli
Which one can cause diarrhea and fever?
Salmonella Typhi
Which one can cause watery diarrhea?
vibrio cholerae
Which one is one of the most common opportunistic pulmonary infections in hospitalized patients?
pseudomonas aeruginosa
Which one can cause a lung infection with abscess and granules?
burkholderia cepacia
Which one can cause diarrhea, is hard to find, needs a lot of temperature and reduced oxygen
campylobacter jejuni
Which one can produce gastritis and peptic ulcers?
helicobacter pylori
Which can cause fever and headaches after being exposed to contaminated tissues?
brucella melitensis
What can cause the illness to come on suddenly with fever and chills, dry, unproductive cough, headache, and fever?
legionella pneumophila
Which one can cause botulinum toxin?
clostridium
Which one can cause chronic, slowly developing infections?
clostridium perfingens
Which one can cause relapsing fever?
borrelia recurrentis
Which one can cause tracheobronchitis, pharyngitis, pneumonia, and secondary complications?
mycoplasma pneumoniae
Which one can cause Rocky Mountain spotted fever?
rickettsia rickettsii
Which one can cause rough granulations on the conjunctival surfaces that lead to chronic inflammation and blindness?
chlamydia trachomatis
Which one of this are not a virus classification?
actinomycetes
Which one of this is the most common human viruses families?
poxviridae
What have the naked capsid virus?
nucleocaspid
What have the enveloped virus?
glycoproteins and membrane
What is the first contact between the surface structure of the virion capsid and the host cell?
recognition of the terget cell
What is the union between the surface structure of the virion and the host cell?
attachment
What is the step that release the virus genetic material into the host cell?
uncoating
What is the step when the new virus go out?
assembly of virus
What is the second step in the progression of viral disease then for the acquisition?
initation of infection at a primary site
What is the third step in the progression of viral disease then for the infection at primary site?
activation of innate protections
What is the fordth step in the progression of viral disease when the virus is amplified and spread to a secondary site?
incubation period
what is the fifth step in the progression of viral disease which causes the characteristic disease signs?
replication in the target tissue
What is the sixth step in the progression of viral disease that limit and contributed to the disease?
host response
What is the seventh step in the progression of viral disease whit virus production?
production of viruses to contagion others
What is the last step in the progression of viral disease ?
Resolution / Persistent / Chronic disease
What is the type of output of the virus from its host that destroys the host?
lysis
What is the type of output of the virus from its host that don't destroys the host?
exocytocis
Which one causes AIDS?
HIV
Which one causes Burkitt lymphoma?
Epstein-Barr virus (HHV-4)
Which one causes Chikungunya fever?
chikungunya virus
Which one causes Cytomagalovirus infection?
Cytomegalovirus (HHV-5)
Which one causes Dengue?
dengue viruses
Which one causes H Pulmonary Syndrome (HPS)?
hantavirus
Which one causes Mononucleosis?
Epstein-Bar virus
Which one causes Yellow fever?
yellow fever virus
Which one is the most common technique to determine a virus?
PCR
Which one is the second common technique to determine a virus?
ELISA
Can the same virus attack different organs or systems?
yes
Which one causes rabies?
rabies virus
Which one causes hepatitis?
hepatitis virus
Which one causes rubella?
rubella virus
Which one causes chickenpox?
varicella-zoster virus
What are the three classes of parasites? The main classification
Protozoa, Helminths, Arthropods
What are the subclasses of Protozoa?
Amoeba, Ciliates, Sporozoa
What are the subclasses of Helminths?
Nematodes, Trematodes, Cestodes
Which of the arthropods can have wings?
insecta
Which of the arthropods can have many legs?
miriapoda
Which of the arthropods can have external carapace?
crustacea
What type of reproduction do protozoa have?
binary fission
What kind of reproduction can present only some helminths? (no other species)
hermaphroditic
What is the only organism in parasitology that can produce a spore-like structure for reproduction?
sporozoa
What is the most common helminth port to enter?
ingestion
What is not a parasitic direct penetration?
squeeze out
What is not a factor associated with the pathogenicity of the parasite?
UV light and radiation, tempereture, transcription of the host defenses,
What kind of reaction have the mechanism: antigen + IgE antibody attached to most cells: histamine release?
anaphylactic
What kind of reaction have the mechanism: antibody + antigen on cell surface?
cytotoxic
What kind of reaction have the mechanism: antibody + extracellular antigen complex?
immune complex
What kind of reaction have the mechanism: sensitized T-cell reaction with antigen and liberation of lymphokines?
cell-mediated (delayed)
What is not a toxic parasitic product?
endotoxins
Which one is the most common mechanical tissue parasite damage?
blockage of internal organs
What disease produce Ascaris lumbricoides?
ascariasis
What disease produce Bobesia
babesiosis
What disease produce Trypanosoma cruzi?
chagas
What disease produce Giardia duodenalis?
diarrhea
What disease produce Entamoeba histolytica?
dysentery
What disease produce Ancytortoma duodenale?
hookworm
What disease produce Leishmania?
leshmaniasis
What disease produce Plasmodium?
malaria
What is the first step in laboratory methods for diagnosing parasitic disease?
macroscopic examination
What is the second step in laboratory methods for diagnosing parasitic disease?
microscopic examination
To know the external structure components or reactions, what kind of laboratory method for parasitic diseases you do?
serological examination
To know specific some genetic information, what kind of laboratory method for parasitic diseases you do?
nucleic acid hybridizaion
What is the step that let you multiply the microorganism in laboratory methods for diagnosing parasitic disease?
culture
What is the step that allows you to test a paraite from laboratory methods on another living being?
animal inocularion
What kind of wall cell have fungi?
rigid
What is not a fungi cell wall or cell membrane component?
uric acid
What is the most simple fungi classification?
Molds / Yeast
How do yeast reproduce?
budding or fission
How do mold reproduce?
apical extension
What kind of cell are yeast?
unicellular
What kind of cell are mold?
multicellular
What is the name of threadlike tubular structures? (mold)
hyphae
What is the name of the structure produced by hyphaes together?
mycelium
What is the name of the form to produce sexual spores?
telomorph
What is the name of the form to produce asexual spores?
anamorph
What kind of asexual spores are contained in sporangia?
sporangiospores
What kind of asexual spores are borne naked on specialized structures?
conidia
In what phase can fungi be found in the soil or vegetation, producing infectious cells in the air?
saprobic
In what phase can fungi are adapted to grow at 37 C and reproduce asexually in host respiratory mucus?
parasitic
Which pathogens presents the same shapes and conditions in saprobic and parasitic phase?
opportunistic
Which pathogens presents diferents shapes and conditions in saprobic and parasitic phase?
primary
What is the name of the disease caused by Blastomyces dermatitidis?
blastomycosis
What is the name of the disease caused by Coccidioides immitis?
coccidioidomycosis
What is the name of the disease caused by Histoplasma capsulatum?
histoplasmosis
What is the name of the disease caused by Paracoccidioides brasiliensis?
paracoccidioidomycosis
What is the name of the disease caused by Candida?
candidiasis
What is the name of the disease caused by Cryptococcus neoformans?
cryptococcosis
What is the name of the disease caused by Aspergillus?
aspergillosis
From which region is Blastomyces dermatitidis common?
Great Lakes and Saint Lawrence River
From which region is Coccidioides immitis common?
Southwestern United States and parts of Mexico
From which region is Histoplasma capsulatum common?
Eastern half of the United States
From which region is Paracoccidioides brasiliensis common?
South and Central America
What is localized opportunistic infection, which affects multiple sites (kidneys and vagina)?
candidiasis
What is the opportunistic pulmonary infection, which can cause meningitis?
cryptococcosis
What is the opportunistic infection that can cause hemorrhagic necrosis and infarction?
aspergillosis
What is the first step in fungi detection in the laboratory?
microscopy and stain
What is the second step of the laboratory diagnosis of fungi to know some characteristics?
culture to test sensibility
What is the step of fungal laboratory diagnosis to confirm the strain with information from the genes?
molecular identification
What is the step of fungal laboratory diagnosis to identify the fungi external structures?
serology