Biology 216 Final Exam Review Flashcards


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1

Definition: secrete products into ducts which empty into body cavities, lumen of hollow organs, or onto body surface; include sweat, oil, mucous, salivary, and digestive glands

Exocrine glands

2

Definition: most secret products (hormones) into bloodstream; include pituitary, pineal, thyroid, parathyroid, and adrenal glands; also include other tissues that secrete hormones as a second function

Endocrine glands

3

Definition: secreted by endocrine glands and associated tissues; mediator molecules that are usually carried throughout the body by circulating blood; control body activities; exert their effects by binding specific receptors on or in their "target" cells; some are also neurotransmitters

Hormones

4

What are the three types of hormonal interactions?

1) Permissive effect
2) Synergistic effect
3) Antagonistic effect

5

Definition: a type of hormonal interaction where a second hormone strengthens the effects of the first one

Permissive effect

6

Definition: a type of hormonal interaction where two hormones act together to produce a certain effect; sum of the two together has greater effect than sum of each alone

Synergistic effect

7

Definition: a type of hormonal interaction where two hormones have opposite effects; one may block effects of the other

Antagonistic effects

8

What are the two master endocrine glands, since their hormones control other endocrine glands?

1) Hypothalamus
2) Pituitary glands

9

Which one synthesizes at least nine different hormones and controls secretions from the pituitary gland?

Hypothalamus

10

Which gland produces releasing hormones that stimulates other glands and tissues to release their hormones?

Anterior pituitary gland

11

Name the 5 types of cells associated with the anterior pituitary gland.

1) Somatotrophs
2) Thyrotrophs
3) Gonadotrophs
4) Lactotrophs
5) Corticotrophs

12

Which gland does not synthesize hormones but instead consists of axon terminals of hypothalamic neurons that release two neurotransmitters (oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone) that enter blood and function as hormones?

Posterior pituitary gland

13

Name two examples of anterior pituitary hormones.

1) Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
2) Luteinizing hormone (LH)

14

Which anterior pituitary hormone initiates the formation of follicles within the ovary, stimulates follicle cells to secrete estrogen, and stimulates sperm production in testes?

Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)

15

Which anterior pituitary hormone:
- in females, stimulates: secretion of estrogen, ovulation of secondary oocyte from ovary, formation of corpus luteum, and secretion of progesterone
- in males, stimulates: interstitial cells to secrete testosterone?

Luteinizing hormone (LH)

16

Name 4 posterior pituitary hormones.

1) Oxytocin
2) Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)
3) T3 and T4 thyroid hormones
4) Epinephrine and norepinephrine

17

Which posterior pituitary hormone:
- during delivery: enhances uterine smooth muscle contraction in response to stretch on cervix by baby's head (positive feedback)
- after delivery: stimulates milk ejection and uterine contractions that prevent hemorrhage and restore uterus to original size?

Oxytocin

18

Which posterior pituitary hormone is also known as vasopressin; functions: decreases urine production and sweating and increases blood pressure (BP)?

Antidiuretic hormone

19

Which posterior pituitary hormones are released from the thyroid gland, major regulators of metabolic rate, and is also responsible for synthesis of protein, breakdown of fats?

T3 and T4 thyroid hormones

20

Which posterior pituitary hormones are released from thyroid gland, major regulators of metabolic rate, and is also responsible for synthesis of protein, breakdown of fats, and use of glucose for ATP production?

T3 and T4.

21

Which posterior pituitary glands are released from the adrenal medulla, effects mimic effects of sympathetic nervous system, and augment fight or flight response?

Epinephrine and norepinephrine

22

Name the three hormones of the adrenal cortex.

1) Mineralocorticoids
2) Glucocorticoids
3) Gonadocorticoids

23

Definition: a hormone of the adrenal cortex that is mostly aldosterone; increases reabsorption of Na + and Cl -, bicarbonate and water; and promotes excretion of K + and H +

Mineralocorticoids

24

Definition: a hormone of the adrenal cortex that is mostly cortisol; helps regulate metabolism; aids in stress resistance by providing nutrients for ATP synthesis; raises blood pressure via vasoconstriction; and reduces anti-inflammatory effects

Glucocorticoids

25

Definition: a hormone of the adrenal cortex that is mostly androgens (small amount of male hormone produced); insignificant in males; may contribute to sex drive in females; and converted to estrogen in postmenopausal females

Gonadocorticoids

26

What hormone is released from the pineal gland, involved in regulation of circadian rhythms, and causes sleepiness in darkness?

Melatonin

27

Name the two ways to regulate calcium blood levels.

1) Calcitonin
2) Parathyroid hormone

28

Describe the calcitonin regulation of calcium blood levels.

High blood calcium level stimulates calcitonin (CT) release from thyroid gland, which lowers blood calcium level (calcitonin increases uptake of calcium and phosphates for bone building)
Low blood calcium level stimulates parathyroid hormone (PTH) release from parathyroid gland, which raises blood calcium level

29

Describe the parathyroid hormone regulation of calcium blood levels.

1) Low blood calcium level stimulates parathyroid hormone (PTH) release from parathyroid gland, which raises blood calcium level.
2) PTH enhances bone resorption releasing calcium and phosphates into blood
3) PTH also has actions in kidneys: slows loss of calcium and stimulates synthesis of calcitriol, which increases absorption of calcium in GI tract
4) PTH has opposite function of calcitonin

30

Which gland has both endocrine and exocrine gland cells?

Pancreas

31

What percentage of cells in pancreas are arranged in clusters called acini and produce pancreatic juice containing digestive enzymes?

99%

32

What do the other 1% make up?

The islets of Langerhans composed of 4 types of endocrine cells

33

What are the 4 types of endocrine cells?

1) Alpha cells
2) Beta cells
3) Delta cells
4) F cells

34

What type of endocrine cell produces glucagon?

Alpha cell

35

What type of endocrine cell produces insulin?

Beta cell

36

What type of endocrine cell produces somatostatin?

Delta cell

37

What type of endocrine cell produces pancreatic polypeptide?

F cell

38

Name the two ways to regulate blood glucose levels.

1) Insulin
2) Glucagon

39

Describe the insulin regulation of blood glucose levels.

High blood glucose stimulates release of insulin from pancreatic beta cells in the islets of Langerhans, which lowers blood glucose

40

Describe the glucagon regulation of blood glucose levels.

Low blood glucose stimulates release of glucagon from pancreatic alpha cells in the islets of Langerhans, which raises blood glucose

41

Do insulin and glucagon have the opposite effects of one another?

Yes

42

Name the three functions of blood.

1) Transportation of:
- Oxygen from lungs to cells; carbon dioxide from cells to lungs for exhalation; nutrients from GI tract to cells; metabolic wastes and heat from cells to lungs, kidneys, and skin for elimination; hormones from endocrine glands to cells

2) Regulation of:
- pH; body temperature; and water balance

3) Protection from:
- Disease via white blood cells (WBCs) and antibodies; excessive blood loss by clotting

43

What is the normal pH range for blood?

7.35-7.45

44

In males and females, what is the average amount of volume of blood in the human body?

- In average adult men, 5 to 6 liters
- In average adult women, 4 to 5 liters

45

Blood accounts for how much of extracellular fluid?

20% of extracellular fluid

46

Name the two main components of blood and how much each makes up of blood.

1) Blood plasma - makes up 55% of blood
2) Formed elements (cells and fragments) - makes up 45% of blood

47

Name the different components of blood plasma.

Blood plasma is 91% water, 7% proteins, and the other 1.5% is other solutes

48

Name the different components of the formed elements.

Formed elements (cells and fragments) is 99% red blood cells (erythrocytes) and less than 1% is white blood cells (leukocytes) and platelets (thrombocytes)

49

Definition: process of blood cell formation; in adults, only occurs in red marrow located in spongy bone

Hemopoiesis (hematopoiesis)

50

Definition: globin protein with 4 iron-containing heme pigments attached (each heme pigment can combine reversibly with an oxygen molecule)

Hemoglobin

51

Where is hemoglobin found?

Found in erythrocytes (red blood cells)

52

What does hemoglobin transport?

Transports oxygen, carbon dioxide, and nitric oxide in blood

53

What is the general function of erythrocytes?

Transport oxygen, carbon dioxide, and nitric oxide bound to hemoglobin

54

What is the general function of leukocytes?

To combat invading pathogens by phagocytosis or immune responses

55

What is the general function of thrombocytes?

To stop blood loss from damaged blood vessels by forming platelet plug

56

Definition: sequence of events that stop bleeding in a quick and localized fashion when blood vessels are damaged

Hemostasis

57

What does hemostasis prevent?

A hemorrhage (loss of a large amount of blood)

58

What are the methods utilized in hemostasis?

1) Vascular spasm
2) Platelet plug formation
3) Blood clotting (coagulation via formation of fibrin threads)

59

How many ABO blood types are there? List and describe them.

There are 4 ABO blood types:
1) blood type A: displays only antigen A; have an anti-B antibody
2) blood type B: displays only antigen B; have an anti-A antibody
3) blood type AB: displays both antigens A & B; have neither antibody
4) blood type O: displays neither antigen; have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies

60

Definition: genetic defect in hemoglobin molecule that displays incomplete dominance inheritance

Sickle-cell disease (anemia)

61

Describe a person with two sickle-cell genes (2 dominant alleles).

- Has severe anemia
- At very oxygen levels, RBC is deformed due to abnormal hemoglobin
- Has sickle-cell disease

62

Describe a person with only one sickle-cell gene (1 dominant and 1 recessive allele).

- Has only minor problems with anemia
- Is also a carrier that can pass gene to offspring
- Has increased resistance to malaria
- Has sickle-cell trait

63

Describe a person with two recessive alleles for sickle-cell disease.

- Produces normal hemoglobin

64

Name the 5 functions of the lymphatic system.

1) Draining excess interstitial fluid and plasma proteins from tissue spaces
2) Transporting dietary lipids and vitamins from GI tract to the blood
3) Carrying out immune responses
4) Nonspecific resistance to disease
5) Specific resistance to disease

65

Elaborate on carrying out immune responses.

- Recognizes microbes or abnormal cells and responds by killing them directly or secreting antibodies that cause their destruction

66

Explain nonspecific resistance to disease.

Provides immediate protection against a wide variety of pathogens and foreign substances; lacks specific responses to specific invaders; uses external mechanical (skin) and chemical barriers (mucus) and internal nonspecific defenses (antimicrobial proteins; natural killer cells and phagocytes; inflammation and fever)

67

Explain specific resistance to disease.

Provides immunity against specific foreign material or organisms including bacteria, viruses, toxins, and allergens; defense mechanisms involve "specificity" (ability to recognize self and non-self), and "memory" so second encounter produces an even more vigorous response; cell-mediated specific immunity involves direct attack by T cells (lymphocytes); antibody-mediated specific immunity involves response by B cells (lymphocytes) that develop into antibody-secreting plasma cells

68

Name 4 various substances associated with immune responses.

1) Antigens
2) Haptens
3) Cytokines
4) Antibodies

69

Definition: substances that are recognized as foreign and provoke an immune response; have immunogenicity (ability to provoke immune response) and reactivity (to antibodies or cell that provoked it)

Antigens

70

Definition: smaller substances that have reactivity but lack immunogenicity so can't provoke an immune response

Haptens

71

Definition: small protein hormones that are secreted by lymphocytes and antigen-presenting cells and re involved in immune responses

Cytokines

72

Definition: substances that are secreted by plasma cells and circulate in blood and lymph where they find, bind, and attack antigens

Antibodies

73

Name the six actions of antibodies.

1) Produced by plasma cells that develop from B cells (lymphocytes)
2) Neutralizes antigen by blocking effects of toxins or preventing its attachment to body cells
3) Immobilizes bacteria by attacking cilia or flagella
4) Agglutinates and precipitates antigens by cross-linking them
5) Complement activation
6) Enhances phagocytosis

74

Name the different areas of the four heart chambers.

2 atria (superior chambers) and 2 ventricles (inferior chambers)

75

What do the four heart valves do?

Open and close in response to pressure changes as heart chambers contract and relax and help to ensure one-way blood flow by opening to let blood flow through and then closing to prevent backflow

76

What do the atrioventricular (AV) valves consist of?

- Tricuspid valve (between right atrium and right ventricles) and bicuspid valve (mitral) (between left atrium and left ventricle)

77

What do the semilunar valves consist of?

Pulmonary valve (between right ventricle and pulmonary trunk) and aortic valve (between left ventricle and aorta)

78

Which chamber of the heart receives blood from superior and inferior vena cavae (from body), and coronary sinus (from heart) and delivers blood to right ventricle through tricuspid valve?

Right atrium

79

Which chamber of the heart receives blood from right atrium and pumps blood through pulmonary valve to lungs and back to heart; has thinner muscle wall than left ventricle

Right ventricle

80

Which chamber of the heart receives blood from lungs through 4 pulmonary veins and delivers blood to the left ventricle through bicuspid valve?

Left atrium

81

Which chamber of the heart receives blood from left atrium and pumps blood through aortic valve to body systems and back to heart, as well as to heart itself; has much thicker muscle wall than right ventricle

Left ventricle

82

Definition: a heart valve disorder that involves narrowing of valve associated with failure of valve to open fully

Stenosis

83

Definition: a heart valve disorder that involves narrowing of mitral valve associated with failure of valve to open fully

Mitral stenosis

84

Definition: a heart valve disorder that involves narrowing of aortic valve associated with failure of valve to open fully

Aortic stenosis

85

Definition: a heart valve disorder that involves failure of valve to close completely, which allows backflow of blood

Insufficiency or incompetence

86

Definition: a heart valve disorder that involves failure of mitral valve to close completely, which allows backflow of blood from left ventricle into left atrium

Mitral insufficiency

87

Definition: a heart valve disorder that involves failure of aortic semilunar valve to close completely, which allows backflow of blood from aorta into left ventricle

Aortic insufficiency

88

What is the most common cause of a heart murmur?

A heart valve disorder

89

Definition: abnormal sound consisting of clicking, rushing, or gurgling heard before, between, during, or after normal heart sounds

A heart murmur

90

Name the two types of circulation.

1) Systemic circulation
2) Pulmonary circulation

91

Describe systemic circulation.

Left side of the heart is pumped for systemic circulation: pumps oxygenated blood to tissues, drops off oxygen and nutrients and picks up carbon dioxide and wastes, and returns deoxygenated blood back to the heart

92

Learn the path and events of systemic circulation.

Left atrium receives bright, red newly oxygenated blood returning from pulmonary circulation (lungs) -> bicuspid (mitral) valve -> left ventricle -> aortic semilunar valve -> aorta -> systemic arteries -> systemic arterioles -> systemic capillaries in tissues -> drops off oxygen and nutrients and picks up carbon dioxide and wastes -> returns deoxygenated blood to venules -> veins -> vena cavae -> right atrium

93

Describe pulmonary circulation.

Right side of the heart is pumped for pulmonary circulation: pumps deoxygenated blood to lungs, picks up oxygen and drops off carbon dioxide for exhalation, and returns oxygenated blood back to heart

94

Learn the path and events of pulmonary circulation.

Right atrium receives all dark, red deoxygenated blood returning from systemic circulation -> tricuspid valve -> right ventricle -> pulmonary semilunar valve -> pulmonary trunk -> right and left pulmonary arteries -> pulmonary arterioles -> pulmonary capillaries in right and left lungs -> drops off carbon dioxide and picks up oxygen -> returns to oxygenated blood to pulmonary venules -> pulmonary veins -> left atrium

95

Definition: network of specialized self-excitable cardiac muscle (CM) fibers that provide an inherent source of rhythmical electrical activity responsible for the heart's continuous beating

Autorhythmic fibers

96

What are the functions of the autorhythmic fibers?

- 'Pacemaker' to set rhythm of electrical excitation that causes contraction of the heart
- 'Conduction system' to provide path for each cycle of cardiac excitation to progress through the heart

97

Where does cardiac excitation normally begin?

In the sinoatrial (SA) node located in right atrial wall

98

What is the pacemaker of the heart?

SA node; SA node cells have a pacemaker potential; do not have stable resting potential, but repeatedly depolarize to threshold spontaneously

99

What is the sequence of action potential propagation through conduction system of heart?

Sinoatrial (SA) node -> atrioventricular (AV) node in interatrial septum -> AV bundle (bundle of HIS) in interventricular septum -> right and left bundle branches toward apex of heart -> Purkinje fibers -> upward to remainder of ventricular myocardium -> then ventricles contract, pushing blood upward through semilunar valves

100

Definition: composite record of action potentials produced by all cardiac muscle fibers during each heart beat

Electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG)

101

How many waves does an EKG consist of? List them.

Three waves:
1) P wave
2) QRS complex
3) T wave

102

Definition: the wave of the EKG that represents atrial depolarization

P wave

103

Definition: the wave of the EKG that represents rapid ventricular depolarization

QRS complex

104

Definition: the wave of the EKG that indicates ventricular repolarization

T wave

105

Does the EKG also measure time spans (intervals or segments) between waves?

Yes; P-Q interval, Q-T interval, S-T segment

106

In an EKG, what can provide clues to abnormalities?

The size of waves and length of intervals and segments

107

Do atria and ventricles contract and relax at the same time or at different times?

At different times

108

Definition: contraction phase caused by depolarization

Systole

109

Definition: relaxation phase caused by repolarization

Diastole

110

Definition: atria are contracting (ventricles are in diastole; relaxed); pressure in atria increases; atrioventricular valves become pushed open

Atrial systole

111

Definition: ventricles are contracting (atria are in diastole; relaxed); pressure in ventricles increases; atrioventricular valves become pushed shut; semilunar valves become pushed open

Ventricular systole

112

Definition: atria are relaxed

Atrial diastole

113

Definition: ventricles are relaxed

Ventricular diastole

114

Describe congestive heart failure.

Heart is a failing pump; one side of the heart often starts to fail before the other side

115

What happens if the left ventricle of the heart fails?

Blood backs up in the lungs and causes pulmonary edema

116

What happens if the right ventricle of the heart fails?

Blood backs up in systemic veins, results in peripheral edema

117

Definition: blood vessels within walls of large vessels that supply them with oxygen and nutrients

Vasa vasorum

118

Definition: vein with thin endothelial wall that has no smooth muscle to alter diameter

Vascular (venous) sinus

119

Definition: union of branches from two or more blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, or nerves supplying same body region that provides alternate route for blood to or from tissue or organ if blood flow is blocked elsewhere

Anastomosis

120

Definition: wider, more winding capillaries with unusually large fenestrations

Sinusoids

121

How is vascular smooth muscle is innervated?

By sympathetic neurons of autonomic nervous system, which regulate blood vessel diameter

122

Definition: narrowing of blood vessel lumen via contraction of vascular smooth muscle or by vasospasm; stimulated by increase in sympathetic activation

Vasoconstriction

123

Definition: increase in lumen diameter by relaxation of smooth muscle; may be due to decrease in sympathetic stimulation

Vasodilation

124

List the three general functions of blood vessels.

1) Arteries carry blood away from the heart
2) Veins carry blood toward the heart
3) Capillaries deliver blood from arterioles to venules

125

Definition: largest diameter arteries; also called conducting arteries because they conduct blood from heart to muscular arteries

Elastic arteries

126

Definition: medium-sized arteries; also called distributing arteries because they distribute blood to various parts of body

Muscular arteries

127

Definition: very small arteries that deliver blood to capillaries; also called resistance vessels because contraction and relaxation of smooth muscle in arteriole walls can change their diameter and significantly affect blood pressure

Arterioles

128

Definition: microscopic vessels that connect arterioles to venules; also called exchange vessels because main function is exchange of nutrients and wastes between blood and tissues through interstitial fluid

Capillaries

129

Definition: very small veins formed when several capillaries unite; collect blood from capillaries and drain into veins

Venules

130

Definition: Formed when venules merge; much thinner and have larger lumen than arteries; many, especially those in limbs, have valves to prevent backflow of blood as it slows on its return to heart

Veins

131

Definition: hydrostatic pressure exerted by blood on arterial walls and is produced by the left ventricle in systole and the pressure remaining in the arteries when the left ventricle is in diastole; measured with sphygmomanometer (blood pressure cuff) and stethoscope

Blood pressure (BP)

132

Definition: traveling pressure wave created by alternating expansion and recoil of elastic arteries after each left ventricular systole

Pulse

133

Definition: various sounds that are heard while taking blood pressure

Korotkoff sounds

134

Describe the first sound.

Corresponds to systolic blood pressure; heard when pressure cuff deflated enough for artery to open; sudden faintness of sounds as cuff deflated more: corresponds to diastolic blood pressure

135

How many sounds are there during each cardiac cycle? How many are loud enough to hear through a stethoscope?

There are 4 heart sounds during each cardiac cycle, but only first 2 (S1 and S2) are loud enough to hear through a stethoscope.

136

Definition: lubb; caused by blood turbulence associated with closure of AV valves after ventricular systole begins

First sound (S1)

137

Definition: dupp; caused by blood turbulence associated with closure of semilunar (SL) valves at beginning of ventricular diastole

Second sound (S2)

138

What is the normal value for resting blood pressure (BP) in a young adult male?

About 120/80 mmHg

139

What is the normal value for resting heart rate (pulse rate)?

70-80 beats/min

140

What is the normal value for resting stroke volume?

70 mL

141

What is the normal value for resting cardiac output (CO)?

5.25 L/min

142

What are the cardiovascular effects of epinephrine and norepinephrine?

Increase heart rate and contractility, blood pressure, and blood flow to muscle during exercise

143

What is a myocardial infarction commonly called?

A heart attack

144

Definition: death of heart tissue distal to an area of completely obstructed blood flow in a coronary artery; dead tissue is replaced with noncontractile scar tissue

Myocardial infarction

145

List the methods of treatment for a myocardial infarction.

1) Injection of a thrombolytic (clot-dissolving) agent and an anticoagulant
2) Coronary angioplasty
3) Coronary artery bypass graft

146

Name the two functional divisions of the respiratory system.

1) Conducting portion
2) Respiratory portion

147

Which functional division includes nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, and terminal bronchioles?

Conducting portion

148

What are the functions of the conducting portion of the respiratory system?

Warm air, filter air, moisten air, and conduct it into the lungs

149

Which functional division includes respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveolar sacs, and alveoli?

Respiratory portion

150

What is the function of the respiratory portion of the respiratory system?

Gas exchange between air and blood

151

Definition: closes off larynx during swallowing to route food and liquids into the esophagus and prevent them from getting into the airways

Epiglottis

152

Definition: function in holding breath against pressure in thoracic cavity

Ventricular folds (false vocal cords)

153

Definition: function in producing sounds (voice)

Vocal folds (true vocal cords)

154

Definition: serous membrane layer that covers lungs

Visceral pleura

155

Definition: serous membrane layer that lines pleural cavity

Parietal pleura

156

Definition: inflammation of the pleural membrane

Pleurisy (pleuritis)

157

Definition: excess accumulation of fluid in the pleural space due to persistent inflammation

Pleural effusion

158

Definition: filling of the pleural cavity with air due to an injury to the chest wall that allows air to enter the intrapleural space

Pneumothorax

159

Definition: substance in alveolar fluid that lowers its surface tension to reduce the tendency of alveoli to collapse

Surfactant

160

Definition: wandering phagocytes that remove dust and debris in alveolar spaces

Alveolar macrophages

161

Definition: inhalation of medication in form of a fine mist to treat respiratory disorders

Nebulization

162

What is the most important muscle of inhalation?

Diaphragm

163

Define: dome-shaped muscle that flattens as it contracts and increases volume of chest cavity, reducing pressure, so air moves into lungs

Diaphragm

164

What also assists in inhalation?

External intercostals

165

Definition: involved in deep, forceful inhalations, but contribute little to normal quiet inhalation

Sternocleidomastoids and scalenes

166

Does normal quiet exhalation involve muscle contraction?

No

167

Why is normal quiet exhalation a passive process?

Because of the elastic recoil of stretched chest wall and lungs as diaphragm relaxes

168

Definition: involved in forceful exhalations

Abdominals and internal intercostals

169

What is measured by a spirometer?

Lung respiratory volumes

170

Definition: volume of one breath while at rest; normally about 500 mL of air

Tidal volume

171

Definition: additional air that is inhaled by taking a very deep breath

Inspiratory reserve volume

172

Definition: additional air that is exhaled as forcibly as possible after inhaling normally

Expiratory reserve volume

173

Definition: air that remains in the lungs after maximal forcible exhalation; cannot be measured by spirometry

Residual volume

174

Definition: sum of inspiratory reserve volume, tidal volume, and expiratory reserve volume

Vital capacity

175

Definition: sum of vital capacity and residual volume

Total lung capacity

176

How many steps of respiration are there? List them.

1) Pulmonary ventilation
2) External respiration
3) Internal respiration

177

Definition: inhalation and exhalation of air

Pulmonary ventilation

178

Definition: diffusion of oxygen from lung alveoli to blood in pulmonary capillaries and diffusion of carbon dioxide in the opposite direction

External respiration

179

Definition: movement of oxygen from systemic capillaries into tissue cells and transfer of carbon dioxide in the opposite direction

Internal respiration

180

Definition: located in the medulla oblongata and controls the basic rhythm of respiration

Medullary rhythmicity area

181

Definition: located in the lower pons and sends stimulatory impulses to inspiratory area to prolong inhalation

Apneustic area

182

Definition: located in the upper pons and transmits inhibitory impulses to the inspiratory area to shorten the duration of inhalation so the lungs won't overfill with air

Pneumotaxic area

183

Definition: chewing

Mastication

184

Definition: swallowing

Deglutition

185

Definition: take in of food, liquids, or drugs by mouth

Ingestion

186

Definition: mechanical and chemical breakdown of food into small molecules

Digestion

187

Definition: passage of dietary molecules from stomach and intestines into blood and lymph

Absorption

188

Definition: progressive, wavelike contractions of the muscularis that push substances (food) onward; begins in esophagus; also occurs in stomach, small intestines, and large intestines

Peristalsis

189

Definition: gentle, rippling, peristaltic movements in the stomach

Mixing waves

190

Definition: breakdown of large lipid globules into a suspension of small, uniform droplets via bile salts

Emulsification

191

Definition: soft, flexible mass of ground up food mixed with saliva that is formed in the mouth and swallowed

Bolus

192

Definition: soupy liquid composed of macerated food mixed with gastric gland secretions that is formed in the stomach

Chyme

193

Definition: clusters of glandular epithelial cells of the pancreas that secrete pancreatic juice, containing many digestive enzymes, into small intestine; account for 99% of pancreatic cells

Acini

194

Definition: lymphatic vessels in villi of the intestines that absorb lipids from digested food

Lacteals

195

Definition: elimination of feces

defecation

196

List the digestive system structures and organs.

Salivary glands, teeth, tongue, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, liver, gall bladder, and pancreas

197

Name the three salivary glands.

1) Parotid
2) Submandibular
3) Sublingual

198

What are the functional components in saliva?

- Salivary amylase to begin breakdown of starch
- Lingual lipase to breakdown lipids
- Water for dissolving foods
- Mucus for lubricating food
- Lysozyme to kill bacteria
- Ions that activate amylase and buffer acids in food

199

What binds, grinds, and chews food?

Teeth

200

What organ tastes and forms bolus (chewed food)?

Tongue

201

Definition: transports food into the stomach

Esophagus

202

Definition: mechanical digestion (mixing waves) and chemical digestion by gastric gland secretions; contains gastric glands

Stomach

203

Definition: folds that allow stomach to stretch

Rugae

204

Name the three types of gastric glands.

1) Parietal cells
2) Chief cells
3) G cells

205

Definition: gastric gland cells that produce intrinsic factor (needed for absorption of vitamin B12) and hydrochloric acid (needed for breakdown of proteins)

Parietal cells

206

Definition: gastric gland cells that secrete pepsinogen and gastric lipase

Chief cells

207

Definition: enteroendocrine cells in the stomach that secrete gastrin

G cells

208

Definition: site of most digestion and absorption of nutrients

Small intestine

209

How does digestion occur?

It occurs via pancreatic and intestinal juices in lumen and brush-border enzymes in plasma membrane of microvilli

210

Definition: phagocytic cells in deepest part of intestinal glands that secrete lysozyme

Paneth cells

211

What does long length provide?

It provides large surface area for digestion and absorption.

212

What are the three structures that further increase surface area?

1) Circular folds
2) Villi
3) Microvilli

213

Do circular folds stretch like rugae of the stomach?

No

214

Name the three regions of the small intestine.

1) Duodenum
2) Jejunum
3) Ileum

215

What intensifies ileal peristalsis and forces chyme in ileum into cecum?

Gastroileal reflex

216

What are the functions of the large intestine?

Completion of absorption, production of certain B and K vitamins, formation and expulsion of feces

217

Name the four different regions of the large intestine.

1) Ascending
2) Transverse
3) Descending
4) Sigmoid colon

218

Definition: distention of haustra (pouches) causes walls to contract and squeeze contents into next haustrum

Haustral churning

219

Definition: mass peristalsis, initiated by food in stomach, that drives contents of colon into rectum

Gastrocolic reflex

220

Definition: last 8 inches of GI tract

Rectum

221

Definition: contains internal (involuntary) and external (voluntary) sphincters; opens to expel feces

Anus

222

Definition: located on inferior aspect of liver and stores and release bile

Gall Bladder

223

What are the functions of the liver?

- Carbohydrate, lipid, and protein metabolism
- Nutrient storage
- Detoxifies certain substances
- Removes certain wastes
- Synthesizes cholesterol and lipoproteins
- Stores iron, copper, and fat soluble vitamins
- Produces bile
- Kupffer cells phagocytize bacteria and worn out cells

224

Definition: produce hormones including insulin and glucagon; 1% of pancreas (endocrine)

Islets of Langerhans

225

Definition: produce pancreatic juice containing several digestive enzymes; 99% of pancreas (exocrine)

Acini (clusters)

226

What is the composition of pancreatic juice?

Contains water, enzymes, and sodium bicarbonate

227

List the five digestive enzymes.

1) Pancreatic amylase
2) Pancreatic lipase
3) Proteases
4) Ribonuclease
5) Deoxyribonuclease

228

Definition: the digestive enzyme that breaks down starch

Pancreatic amylase

229

Definition: the digestive enzyme that breaks down lipids

Pancreatic lipase

230

Definition: the digestive enzyme that breaks down peptides (protein)

Proteases

231

Definition: the digestive enzymes that digest nucleic acids

Ribonuclease and deoxyribonuclease

232

In the nutrients lab, what detects absorbic acid?

Indophenol

233

In the nutrients lab, what detects albumin (protein)?

Benedict's agent

234

In the nutrients lab, what detects starch (polysaccharide carbohydrate)?

Lugol's iodine solution

235

In the nutrients lab, what detects corn oil (lipid)?

Sudan red

236

Definition: sum of all chemical reactions in the body

Metabolism

237

What are the two phases of metabolism?

Catabolism and anabolism

238

Definition: the phase of metabolism that involves chemical reactions that break down complex organic molecules into simpler ones; decomposition reactions; exergonic reactions (produce more energy than they consume)

Catabolism

239

Definition: the phase of metabolism that involves chemical reactions that combine simpler molecules to build more complex ones; are synthesis reactions; endergonic reactions (consume more energy than they produce)

Anabolism

240

What is the molecule that participates most often in energy exchanges?

ATP

241

What type of reactions does ATP couple together?

Catabolic reactions and anabolic reactions

242

Where is most ATP produced?

In the mitochondria

243

How is most ATP produced?

By aerobic respiration

244

What does ATP contain that store potential energy that can be used to drive chemical reactions in the body?

High energy phosphate bonds

245

Definition: a reaction that involves removal of electrons from a molecule; result in decrease in potential energy; are called dehydrogenation reactions because most involve removal of H atoms

Oxidation reactions

246

Definition: a reaction that involves addition of electrons to a molecule; result in increase in potential energy; two hydrogens are added as H+ and H-

Reduction reactions

247

Are oxidation and reduction reactions always coupled?

Yes, as one substance is oxidized, another is reduced

248

Definition: complete breakdown (oxidation) of glucose to generate 36 or 38 ATP for energy

Cellular respiration

249

What does cellular respiration include?

Includes:
- anaerobic phase (glycolysis) and aerobic phase (Kreb cycle and electron transport chain)
- a transitional step between glycolysis and Kreb cycle: acetyl coA formation

250

Definition: occurs in the cytosol and does not require oxygen (anaerobic); first step in the glucose catabolism; begins with one glucose and ends with 3 pyruvic acids; produces 2 NADH + H+ and 2 net ATP

Glycolysis

251

Definition: occurs in mitochondria and requires oxygen (aerobic); begins with 2 pyruvic acids and ends with 2 acetyl coAs; transitional step that produces 2 NADH + H+ and 2 carbon dioxides, but no ATP

Acetyl coA formation

252

Definition: occurs in mitochondria and requires oxygen (aerobic); makes 2 turns of the cycle; each turn begins by combining acetyl coA with oxaloacetic acid and ends with oxaloacetic acid required for next turn; produces 6 NADH + H+, 2 FADH(2), 2 ATP, and 4 carbon dioxides

Krebs cycle

253

Describe the electron transport chain (Notecard 1).

- Occurs in mitochondria and requires oxygen
- Has 3 clusters of electron carriers that transfer electrons and act as proton pumps that expel H+ from the mitochondrial matrix

254

Electron transport chain (Notecard 2).

- Series of redox reactions remove electrons and hydrogen from NADH and FADH(2) produced in previous steps: pass electrons along electron carriers and pump H+ across inner membrane
- Has 2 mobile electron carriers: coenzyme Q and cytochrome c
- coenzyme Q: shuttles electrons from pump 1 to pump 2
- cytochrome c: shuttles electrons from pump 2 to pump 3

255

Electron transport (Notecard 3).

- Also has ATP synthase with H+ channel that allows H+ to flow back across the inner membrane, creating a proton motive force that is used to generate ATP
- Oxygen is the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain
- Produces 32 or 34 ATP

256

Definition: contain most dietary lipids, which they carry to adipose tissue storage

Chylomicrons

257

Definition: primarily contain endogenous lipids synthesized in liver, which they transport to adipocytes for storage

Very low-density lipoproteins (VLDLs)

258

Definition: transport 75% of the total cholesterol in blood to cells throughout the body, and contribute to formation of fatty plaques that increase risk of coronary artery disease when levels are high

Low-density lipoproteins (LDLs)

259

Definition: remove excess cholesterol from body cells and carry it to the liver for elimination, and prevent buildup of cholesterol in blood so high levels are associated with low risk of coronary artery disease

High-density lipoproteins (HDLs)

260

Definition: splitting of triglycerides into glycerol and fatty acids; lipid catabolism; catalyzed by lipases; inhibited by insulin

Lipolysis

261

Definition: synthesis of lipids from sources such as glucose and amino acids; lipid anabolism; occurs when individual consumes more calories than needed for ATP synthesis; stimulated by insulin

Lipogenesis

262

Definition: usually used to measure the body's metabolic rate and express energy content of food

Calorie

263

Definition: form of energy that can be measured in temperature and expressed in calories

Heat

264

Definition: energy storage form of carbohydrates; in liver and skeletal muscle

Glycogen

265

Definition: energy storage form of lipids; in adipose tissue and yellow bone marrow

Triglycerides

266

Can proteins and amino acids be stored?

No

267

Definition: rate at which metabolic reactions use energy in quiet resting, fasting state

Basal metabolic rate

268

Definition: main regulators of basal metabolic rate

Thyroid hormones T3 and T4

269

Definition: ingested nutrients are entering bloodstream and glucose is readily available for ATP production

Absorptive state

270

What are the 2 metabolic hallmarks?

1) Oxidation of glucose for ATP synthesis
2) Storage of excess fuel molecules for between-meal use

271

Is insulin a dominant hormonal regulator?

Yes

272

Definition: absorption of nutrients from GI tract is complete so energy needs must be met by fuels already in body

Postabsorptive state

273

In the postabsorptive state, what do the metabolic reactions include?

- Providing glucose by breakdown of glycogen or new synthesis
- Switching from glucose to alternate fuels for ATP synthesis

274

In the postabsorptive state, what do the hormone regulators include?

- Glucagons
- Epinephrine
- Norepinephrine

275

Definition: contain nephrons that filter blood and form urine containing wastes to be excreted

Kidneys

276

Definition: transport urine from kidneys to bladder

Ureters

277

Definition: stores urine until elimination from body

Urinary bladder

278

Definition: transports urine from bladder to outside of body for elimination; in males, is also common pathway for semen to be ejaculated

Urethra

279

What is the functional units of the kidneys?

Nephrons

280

What are the two parts of a nephron?

1) Renal corpuscle
2) Renal tubule

281

Definition: where blood is filtered to form filtrate

Renal corpuscle

282

Definition: where filtered filtrate passes into and water and solute reabsorption and secretion takes place to form urine

Renal tubule

283

What are the two compartments of the renal corpuscle?

1) Glomerulus
2) Bowman's capsule

284

Definition: capillary network

Glomerulus

285

Definition: surrounds glomerulus

Bowman's capsule

286

What are the three main sections of the renal tubule?

1) Proximal convoluted tubule
2) Loop of Henle
3) Distal convoluted tubule

287

Definition: site of most water and solute reabsorption

Proximal convoluted tubule

288

What are the two parts of the loop of Henle?

1) Descending limb
2) Ascending limb

289

Definition: the part of the loop of Henle that is the additional site of obligatory water reabsorption

Descending limb

290

Definition: the part of the loop of Henle that has little or no water reabsorption, ions only

Ascending limb

291

Definition: major cite of calcium reabsorption stimulated by parathyroid hormone drains into collecting duct

Distal convoluted tubule

292

List the path of filtered blood through a nephron to the collecting duct.

Glomerulus -> proximal convoluted tubule -> loop of Henle -> distal convoluted tubule -> collecting duct

293

List the path of urine flow from the collecting ducts through elimination from the body.

Collecting ducts -> papillary ducts -> minor calyces -> major calyces -> renal pelvis -> ureters -> urinary bladder -> urethra -> discharge from the body

294

Why is reabsorption of sodium by renal tubules particularly important?

Because more sodium passes glomerular filters than any other substance except water

295

Why does solute reabsorption drive water reabsorption?

Because all water is reabsorbed by osmosis

296

Definition: water is reabsorbed together with solutes in tubular fluid because it is 'obliged' to follow solutes when they are reabsorbed; occurs in proximal convoluted tubule and descending limb of loop of Henle; accounts for 90% of water reabsorption

Obligatory water reabsorption

297

Definition: adapts to need and is regulated by antidiuretic hormone (ADH); occurs in primarily in collecting ducts; accounts for final 10% of water reabsorption

Facultative water reabsorption

298

What does homeostasis of body fluid volume largely depend on?

The kidney's ability to regulate amount of water loss in urine

299

When is a large volume of dilute urine produced?

When fluid intake is high

300

When is a small volume of concentrated urine produced?

When fluid intake is low or fluid loss is great (dehydration or blood loss)

301

What hormone controls whether dilute or concentrated urine is produced?

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

302

What happens if ADH is absent?

Very dilute urine is formed

303

What happens if there are high levels of ADH present?

It stimulates more water reabsorption into blood so concentrated urine is formed

304

Definition: substance that dissociates into cations and anions in water and conducts electrical currents; includes acids, bases, and salts

Electrolyte

305

Definition: substance dissolved in water that does not dissociate into ions so does not conduct electricity

Nonelectrolyte

306

What type of electrolyte lights up a light bulb brightly?

Strong electrolyte

307

What type of electrolyte lights up a light bulb dimly?

Weak electrolyte

308

What type of electrolyte does not light up a light bulb?

Nonelectrolyte

309

What are the functions of electrolytes?

- Help maintain acid-base balance
- Control osmosis between fluid compartments
- Conduct electric current
- Serve as cofactors for enzymatic activity

310

How do buffers prevent rapid, drastic changes in pH?

By turning strong acids and bases into weak ones

311

What are the three types of buffer systems?

1) Phosphate buffer system
2) Carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system
3) Protein buffer system

312

Definition: an acid-base imbalance where there is a decrease in blood pH due to drop in HCO3- in systemic arterial blood

Metabolic acidosis

313

Definition: an acid-base imbalance where there is an increase in blood pH due to rise HCO3- in systemic arterial blood

Metabolic alkalosis

314

Definition: an acid-base imbalance where there is a decrease in pH due to abnormally high P(CO2) in systemic arterial blood

Respiratory acidosis

315

Definition: an acid-base imbalance where there is an increase in pH due to abnormally low P(CO2) in systemic arterial blood

Respiratory alkalosis

316

Definition: male gonads consisting of a pair of oval glands that produce male gametes (sperm) and secrete hormones, including testosterone; contain seminiferous tubules where sperm are made

Testes (testicles)

317

Definition: supporting sac that holds testes

Scrotum

318

Definition: site where sperm mature and acquire motility and ability to fertilize ovum

Epididymis

319

Definition: stores viable sperm up to several months and delivers sperm from epididymis toward urethra via peristalsis; sperm that are not ejaculated are reabsorbed

Ductus deferens (vas deferens)

320

Definition: pass through prostate and terminate in prostatic urethra, where they eject sperm and seminal vesicle secretions just before ejaculation

Ejaculatory ducts

321

Definition: forceful propulsion of semen from urethra to exterior

Ejaculation

322

Definition: shared terminal duct of urinary and reproductive systems; ends at external urethral orfice

Urethra

323

What are the three parts to the urethra?

1) Prostatic
2) Membranous
3) Spongy (penile)

324

Definition: include seminal vesicles, prostate, and bulbourethral glands, and secrete most of liquid portion of semen

Accessory sex glands

325

Definition: secrete alkaline, viscous fluid that contains fructose, prostaglandins, and clotting proteins and accounts for 60% of volume of semen

Seminal vesicles

326

Definition: secretes milky, slightly acidic fluid that contains citric acid, proteolytic enzymes, acid phosphatase, and constitutes 25% of volume of semen

Prostate gland

327

Definition: secrete alkaline fluid into urethra that protects passing sperm by neutralizing acids from urine, and secrete mucous that lubricates urethra and end of penis to minimize sperm-damage during ejaculation

Bulbourethral glands (Cowper's glands)

328

Definition: consists of erectile tissue and urethra and provides passageway for excretion of urine and ejaculation of semen

Penis

329

Definition: enlarged region of corpus spongiosum at distal end of penis that contains external urethral orfice; covered by loose-fitting prepuce (foreskin) if penis is not circumcised

Glans penis

330

Definition: surgical procedure in which some or all of prepuce is removed

Circumcision

331

Definition: female gonads, which produce gametes and hormones, including estrogen, progesterone, inhibin, and relaxin

Ovaries

332

Definition: secondary oocytes that develop into mature ova after fertilization

Gametes

333

Definition: extend laterally from uterus and provide route for sperm to reach ovum and transport secondary oocytes and fertilized ovum to uterus (from ovaries)

Uterine tubes (Fallopian tubes)

334

Definition: part of pathway for sperm from vagina to uterine tubes; site of implantation of fertilized ovum, fetal development, and labor; when implantation does not occur, source of menstrual flow

Uterus

335

Definition: inferior narrow part of uterus that opens into vagina

Cervix

336

Definition: long fibromuscular canal lined with mucous membrane that extends from exterior to cervix; receives penis during sexual intercourse; outlet for menstrual flow; passageway for childbirth

Vagina

337

Definition: external genitals of female

Vulva

338

Definition: 2 longitudinal folds of skin covered with pubic hair that are homologous to scrotum

Labia majora

339

Definition: 2 smaller folds medial to labia majora

Labia minora

340

Definition: small, cylindrical mass of erectile tissue and nerves; homologous to glans penis; also has prepuce

Clitoris

341

Definition: reproductive organs that produce gametes (sperm or oocytes) and secrete sex hormones

Gonads

342

What are the gonads in males?

Testes that produce and release haploid cells called sperm; also produce testosterone

343

What are the gonads in females?

Ovaries that produce and release haploid cells called secondary oocytes; also produce estrogen, progesterone, relaxin, and inhibin

344

All the cells in the human body, except gametes, have how many pairs of chromosomes?

23 pairs, with one member of each homologous pair inherited from each parent; represents the diploid number (2n), total of 46 chromosomes

345

Reproductive cell division in gonads produces gametes that have how many chromosomes?

Half as many as somatic cells; they have haploid number (n): total of 23 chromosomes; joining of gamete nuclei during fertilization produces normal diploid number (2n) (23 chromosomes from each parent: total of 46)

346

Definition: reproductive cell division

Meiosis

347

Meiosis occurs in two stages of division. What are they called?

1) Meiosis I
2) Meiosis II

348

How does meiosis I begin and end?

Begins with diploid parent cell and ends with 2 haploid daughter cells

349

How does meiosis II begin and end?

2 haploid cells formed from meiosis I divide and produce 4 haploid gametes in males or 1 gamete in females that are genetically different from original diploid parent cell

350

Definition: two events that occur in prophase of meiosis I but not in prophase of mitosis or meiosis II

Synapsis and genetic crossing-over

351

Definition: 2 sister chromatids of each pair of homologous chromosomes pair off forming a tetrad

Synapsis

352

Definition: results in genetic recombination and produces daughter cells that are not like each other or parent cells

Crossing-over of genes between nonsister chromatids

353

Where are sperm and testosterone produced?

In the seminiferous tubules

354

Definition: process of sperm production

Spermatogenesis

355

Definition: maturation of spermatids into sperm

Spermiogenesis

356

List the stages of maturation of spermatogenic cells in males.

Spermatagonia -> primary spermatocytes -> secondary spermocytes -> spermatids -> spermatozoa (sperm)

357

List the stages of follicular development in females.

Primordial follicle -> primary follicle -> secondary follice -> Graafian follicle

358

What are the functions of testosterone?

- Prenatal development of male reproductive ducts and descent of testes
- Development of male sexual characteristics at puberty
- Development of sexual function and involvement in spermatogenesis
- Stimulation of anabolism, especially protein synthesis, for increased bone and muscle mass

359

What do the ovaries in females do?

Produce gametes and hormones

360

Definition: secondary oocytes that develop into mature ova after fertilization

Gametes

361

Definition: include estrogen, progesterone, inhibin, and relaxin

Hormones

362

Definition: formation of gametes in ovaries

Oogenesis

363

Definition: the hormone that is secreted by anterior pituitary and initiates growth of ovarian follicles (one matures each month) and secretion of estrogen by growing follicles

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

364

Definition: expulsion of secondary oocyte

Ovulation

365

What happens to the oocyte if fertilization doesn't occur?

The oocyte degenerates.

366

What happens if sperm is present in the uterine tube and and one penetrates an oocyte?

Meiosis II resumes and oocyte splits into 2 haploid (n) cells of unequal size: ovum (larger cell) and second polar body (smaller cell)

367

Definition: nuclei of sperm and ovum unite, forming diploid (2n) zygote

Fertilization

368

What are the functions of the corpus luteum?

- Contains remnants of a mature Graffian follicle after ovulation
- Produces progesterone, estrogens, inhibin, and relaxin until it degenerates
- Degenerates into fibrous scar tissue called corpus albicans

369

What are the functions of the luteinizing hormone (LH) in the female reproductive system?

- Secreted by anterior pituitary
- Stimulates further follicular development and secretion of estrogens
- Triggers ovulation followed by formation of corpus luteum
- Stimulates corpus luteum to secrete estrogens, progesterone, relaxin, and inhibin

370

What are the functions of estrogen in the female reproductive system?

-Secreted by follicular cells
- Functions to promote development and maintenance of female reproductive structures and breasts, and secondary sex characteristics
- Works with progesterone to prepare and maintain the endometrium for a fertilized ovum

371

Definition: includes events of ovarian and uterine cycles and changing hormone levels

Female reproductive cycle

372

List the four stages of the female reproductive cycle.

1) Menstrual
2) Pre-ovulatory
3) Ovulation
4) Postovulatory

373

Definition: use estrogens and progestins to prevent pregnancy

Hormonal methods

374

Definition: block sperm from gaining access to the uterine cavity

Barrier methods

375

Definition: kill sperm

Spermicides

376

Definition: renders person incapable of reproduction

Surgical sterilization

377

Definition: cutting and tying or removal of portion of each ductus deferens via small incision in scrotum in males

Vasectomy

378

Definition: Cutting and tying or removal of portion of each uterine tube in females

Tubal ligation

379

Definition: use of physiological cues of reproductive cycle to abstain from intercourse on days when pregnancy likely

Periodic abstinence

380

Definition: premature expulsion of embryo or fetus, usually before 20th week

Abortion

381

Definition: diploid nucleus formed when haploid pronuclei of sperm (male) and ovum (female) fuse and produce cell with 46 chromosomes (23 from each pronucleus); undergoes divisions to become blastocyst that is implanted in uterus

Zygote

382

Definition: weeks 1 through 8; involves development of all major organs, although their functions are minimal; folic acid deficiency during this time produces neural tube defects

Embryo

383

Definition: weeks 9 through birth; involves extensive growth and differentiation of existing tissues and organs, but little formation of new structures

Fetus

384

Definition: process by which fetus is expelled from uterus through vagina

Labor

385

Definition: giving birth

Parturition

386

What is the normal position of giving birth for the baby?

Head first

387

Definition: fetal buttocks or lower limbs first; may be delivered surgically through C-section

Breech presentation

388

Describe the placenta.

- Site of exchange of nutrients and wastes between the mother and fetus
- Connected to fetus by umbilical cord that contains umbilical vein and umbilical arteries
- Produces hormones required to sustain pregnancy
- Expelled after delivery of the baby and is then referred to as the "afterbirth"

389

Definition: an opening where some blood passes from right atrium to left atrium in a fetus; this is because fetal lungs are not functional

Foramen ovale

390

How does mot blood bypass the fetal lungs and enter systemic circulation?

By crossing from the pulmonary trunk into the aorta through ductus arteriosis

391

How many branches does the umbilical vein divide into?

Two: one branch joins hepatic portal vein, but most blood flows into 2nd branch called ductus venosus, which drains into inferior vena cava (delivers oxygenated blood with nutrients from placenta to fetus)

392

Definition: return deoxygenated blood with wastes from fetus to placenta

2 umbilical arteries

393

Definition: abnormal condition of pregnancy characterized by sudden hypertension, high protein concentration in urine, and generalized edema

Preeclampsia

394

Definition: when condition in last notecard is also associated with convulsions and coma

Eclampsia

395

Somatic cells have many pairs of homologous chromosomes?

23; 22 pairs are same in males and females (autosomes) and 1 pair is different in males and females (sex chromosomes)

396

What are the sex chromosomes for a male and a female?

- Male: XY
- Female: XX

397

Definition: actual genetic makeup; actual alleles that code for each trait

Genotype

398

Definition: how genetic makeup is expressed in the body; outward appearance of each trait in the body

Phenotype

399

Definition: chart that shows possible combinations of gametes from 2 parents

Punnett square

400

Definition: trait that is expressed by dominant allele; expressed when 2 dominant alleles or 1 dominant and 1 recessive allele present

Dominant trait

401

Definition: allele that dominates and masks another allele

Dominant allele (D)

402

Definition: trait that is controlled by recessive allele; expressed when two recessive alleles are present

Recessive trait

403

Definition: allele that is masked by presence of dominant allele

Recessive allele (d)

404

Definition: same alleles (DD or dd) on homologous chromosomes

Homozygous

405

Definition: different alleles (Dd) on homologous chromosomes

Heterozygous

406

Definition: heterozygous person who carries recessive gene but doesn't express it

Carrier

407

Definition: neither allele in pair is dominant over other, so heterozygote has intermediate phenotype between homozygous dominant and homozygous recessive phenotypes; example: sickle-cell trait

Incomplete dominance

408

Definition: although person only inherits 2 alleles, more than 2 alternative alleles may exist; example: blood type

Multiple-allele inheritance

409

Definition: usually carried on X chromosomes

Sex-linked traits

410

Describe sex-linked traits for females.

For recessive traits, female may have dominant normal allele to mask recessive allele for disorder, so doesn't express trait but is a carrier

411

Describe male-linked traits for males.

Males only have one X chromosome, so if allele is present, it will be expressed

412

What are some examples of recessive X-linked traits?

Red-green color blindness and hemophilia

413

Definition: chromosomes that aren't homologous break and exchange sections

Translocation

414

Definition: error in cell division that results in abnormal number of chromosomes

nondisjunction

415

Definition: usually caused by trisomy of chromosome 21 (nondisjunction during cell division that results in extra copy of chromosome 21)

Down syndrome

416

Definition: genetic disorders that are sex-linked inheritance on X chromosome

Hemophilia and red-green color blindness

417

Describe sickle cell disease.

- Displays incomplete dominance
- Homozygous dominant: Normal hemoglobin
- Homozygous recessive: Sickle cell disease and severe anemia
- Heterozygous: Minor problems with anemia because half hemoglobin is normal, and half is not