front 1 Definition: secrete products into ducts which empty into body cavities, lumen of hollow organs, or onto body surface; include sweat, oil, mucous, salivary, and digestive glands | back 1 Exocrine glands |
front 2 Definition: most secret products (hormones) into bloodstream; include pituitary, pineal, thyroid, parathyroid, and adrenal glands; also include other tissues that secrete hormones as a second function | back 2 Endocrine glands |
front 3 Definition: secreted by endocrine glands and associated tissues; mediator molecules that are usually carried throughout the body by circulating blood; control body activities; exert their effects by binding specific receptors on or in their "target" cells; some are also neurotransmitters | back 3 Hormones |
front 4 What are the three types of hormonal interactions? | back 4 1) Permissive effect
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front 5 Definition: a type of hormonal interaction where a second hormone strengthens the effects of the first one | back 5 Permissive effect |
front 6 Definition: a type of hormonal interaction where two hormones act together to produce a certain effect; sum of the two together has greater effect than sum of each alone | back 6 Synergistic effect |
front 7 Definition: a type of hormonal interaction where two hormones have opposite effects; one may block effects of the other | back 7 Antagonistic effects |
front 8 What are the two master endocrine glands, since their hormones control other endocrine glands? | back 8 1) Hypothalamus
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front 9 Which one synthesizes at least nine different hormones and controls secretions from the pituitary gland? | back 9 Hypothalamus |
front 10 Which gland produces releasing hormones that stimulates other glands and tissues to release their hormones? | back 10 Anterior pituitary gland |
front 11 Name the 5 types of cells associated with the anterior pituitary gland. | back 11 1) Somatotrophs
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front 12 Which gland does not synthesize hormones but instead consists of axon terminals of hypothalamic neurons that release two neurotransmitters (oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone) that enter blood and function as hormones? | back 12 Posterior pituitary gland |
front 13 Name two examples of anterior pituitary hormones. | back 13 1) Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
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front 14 Which anterior pituitary hormone initiates the formation of follicles within the ovary, stimulates follicle cells to secrete estrogen, and stimulates sperm production in testes? | back 14 Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) |
front 15 Which anterior pituitary hormone:
| back 15 Luteinizing hormone (LH) |
front 16 Name 4 posterior pituitary hormones. | back 16 1) Oxytocin
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front 17 Which posterior pituitary hormone:
| back 17 Oxytocin |
front 18 Which posterior pituitary hormone is also known as vasopressin; functions: decreases urine production and sweating and increases blood pressure (BP)? | back 18 Antidiuretic hormone |
front 19 Which posterior pituitary hormones are released from the thyroid gland, major regulators of metabolic rate, and is also responsible for synthesis of protein, breakdown of fats? | back 19 T3 and T4 thyroid hormones |
front 20 Which posterior pituitary hormones are released from thyroid gland, major regulators of metabolic rate, and is also responsible for synthesis of protein, breakdown of fats, and use of glucose for ATP production? | back 20 T3 and T4. |
front 21 Which posterior pituitary glands are released from the adrenal medulla, effects mimic effects of sympathetic nervous system, and augment fight or flight response? | back 21 Epinephrine and norepinephrine |
front 22 Name the three hormones of the adrenal cortex. | back 22 1) Mineralocorticoids
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front 23 Definition: a hormone of the adrenal cortex that is mostly aldosterone; increases reabsorption of Na + and Cl -, bicarbonate and water; and promotes excretion of K + and H + | back 23 Mineralocorticoids |
front 24 Definition: a hormone of the adrenal cortex that is mostly cortisol; helps regulate metabolism; aids in stress resistance by providing nutrients for ATP synthesis; raises blood pressure via vasoconstriction; and reduces anti-inflammatory effects | back 24 Glucocorticoids |
front 25 Definition: a hormone of the adrenal cortex that is mostly androgens (small amount of male hormone produced); insignificant in males; may contribute to sex drive in females; and converted to estrogen in postmenopausal females | back 25 Gonadocorticoids |
front 26 What hormone is released from the pineal gland, involved in regulation of circadian rhythms, and causes sleepiness in darkness? | back 26 Melatonin |
front 27 Name the two ways to regulate calcium blood levels. | back 27 1) Calcitonin
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front 28 Describe the calcitonin regulation of calcium blood levels. | back 28 High blood calcium level stimulates calcitonin (CT) release from thyroid gland, which lowers blood calcium level (calcitonin increases uptake of calcium and phosphates for bone building)
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front 29 Describe the parathyroid hormone regulation of calcium blood levels. | back 29 1) Low blood calcium level stimulates parathyroid hormone (PTH) release from parathyroid gland, which raises blood calcium level.
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front 30 Which gland has both endocrine and exocrine gland cells? | back 30 Pancreas |
front 31 What percentage of cells in pancreas are arranged in clusters called acini and produce pancreatic juice containing digestive enzymes? | back 31 99% |
front 32 What do the other 1% make up? | back 32 The islets of Langerhans composed of 4 types of endocrine cells |
front 33 What are the 4 types of endocrine cells? | back 33 1) Alpha cells
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front 34 What type of endocrine cell produces glucagon? | back 34 Alpha cell |
front 35 What type of endocrine cell produces insulin? | back 35 Beta cell |
front 36 What type of endocrine cell produces somatostatin? | back 36 Delta cell |
front 37 What type of endocrine cell produces pancreatic polypeptide? | back 37 F cell |
front 38 Name the two ways to regulate blood glucose levels. | back 38 1) Insulin
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front 39 Describe the insulin regulation of blood glucose levels. | back 39 High blood glucose stimulates release of insulin from pancreatic beta cells in the islets of Langerhans, which lowers blood glucose |
front 40 Describe the glucagon regulation of blood glucose levels. | back 40 Low blood glucose stimulates release of glucagon from pancreatic alpha cells in the islets of Langerhans, which raises blood glucose |
front 41 Do insulin and glucagon have the opposite effects of one another? | back 41 Yes |
front 42 Name the three functions of blood. | back 42 1) Transportation of:
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front 43 What is the normal pH range for blood? | back 43 7.35-7.45 |
front 44 In males and females, what is the average amount of volume of blood in the human body? | back 44 - In average adult men, 5 to 6 liters
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front 45 Blood accounts for how much of extracellular fluid? | back 45 20% of extracellular fluid |
front 46 Name the two main components of blood and how much each makes up of blood. | back 46 1) Blood plasma - makes up 55% of blood
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front 47 Name the different components of blood plasma. | back 47 Blood plasma is 91% water, 7% proteins, and the other 1.5% is other solutes |
front 48 Name the different components of the formed elements. | back 48 Formed elements (cells and fragments) is 99% red blood cells (erythrocytes) and less than 1% is white blood cells (leukocytes) and platelets (thrombocytes) |
front 49 Definition: process of blood cell formation; in adults, only occurs in red marrow located in spongy bone | back 49 Hemopoiesis (hematopoiesis) |
front 50 Definition: globin protein with 4 iron-containing heme pigments attached (each heme pigment can combine reversibly with an oxygen molecule) | back 50 Hemoglobin |
front 51 Where is hemoglobin found? | back 51 Found in erythrocytes (red blood cells) |
front 52 What does hemoglobin transport? | back 52 Transports oxygen, carbon dioxide, and nitric oxide in blood |
front 53 What is the general function of erythrocytes? | back 53 Transport oxygen, carbon dioxide, and nitric oxide bound to hemoglobin |
front 54 What is the general function of leukocytes? | back 54 To combat invading pathogens by phagocytosis or immune responses |
front 55 What is the general function of thrombocytes? | back 55 To stop blood loss from damaged blood vessels by forming platelet plug |
front 56 Definition: sequence of events that stop bleeding in a quick and localized fashion when blood vessels are damaged | back 56 Hemostasis |
front 57 What does hemostasis prevent? | back 57 A hemorrhage (loss of a large amount of blood) |
front 58 What are the methods utilized in hemostasis? | back 58 1) Vascular spasm
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front 59 How many ABO blood types are there? List and describe them. | back 59 There are 4 ABO blood types:
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front 60 Definition: genetic defect in hemoglobin molecule that displays incomplete dominance inheritance | back 60 Sickle-cell disease (anemia) |
front 61 Describe a person with two sickle-cell genes (2 dominant alleles). | back 61 - Has severe anemia
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front 62 Describe a person with only one sickle-cell gene (1 dominant and 1 recessive allele). | back 62 - Has only minor problems with anemia
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front 63 Describe a person with two recessive alleles for sickle-cell disease. | back 63 - Produces normal hemoglobin |
front 64 Name the 5 functions of the lymphatic system. | back 64 1) Draining excess interstitial fluid and plasma proteins from tissue spaces
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front 65 Elaborate on carrying out immune responses. | back 65 - Recognizes microbes or abnormal cells and responds by killing them directly or secreting antibodies that cause their destruction |
front 66 Explain nonspecific resistance to disease. | back 66 Provides immediate protection against a wide variety of pathogens and foreign substances; lacks specific responses to specific invaders; uses external mechanical (skin) and chemical barriers (mucus) and internal nonspecific defenses (antimicrobial proteins; natural killer cells and phagocytes; inflammation and fever) |
front 67 Explain specific resistance to disease. | back 67 Provides immunity against specific foreign material or organisms including bacteria, viruses, toxins, and allergens; defense mechanisms involve "specificity" (ability to recognize self and non-self), and "memory" so second encounter produces an even more vigorous response; cell-mediated specific immunity involves direct attack by T cells (lymphocytes); antibody-mediated specific immunity involves response by B cells (lymphocytes) that develop into antibody-secreting plasma cells |
front 68 Name 4 various substances associated with immune responses. | back 68 1) Antigens
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front 69 Definition: substances that are recognized as foreign and provoke an immune response; have immunogenicity (ability to provoke immune response) and reactivity (to antibodies or cell that provoked it) | back 69 Antigens |
front 70 Definition: smaller substances that have reactivity but lack immunogenicity so can't provoke an immune response | back 70 Haptens |
front 71 Definition: small protein hormones that are secreted by lymphocytes and antigen-presenting cells and re involved in immune responses | back 71 Cytokines |
front 72 Definition: substances that are secreted by plasma cells and circulate in blood and lymph where they find, bind, and attack antigens | back 72 Antibodies |
front 73 Name the six actions of antibodies. | back 73 1) Produced by plasma cells that develop from B cells (lymphocytes)
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front 74 Name the different areas of the four heart chambers. | back 74 2 atria (superior chambers) and 2 ventricles (inferior chambers) |
front 75 What do the four heart valves do? | back 75 Open and close in response to pressure changes as heart chambers contract and relax and help to ensure one-way blood flow by opening to let blood flow through and then closing to prevent backflow |
front 76 What do the atrioventricular (AV) valves consist of? | back 76 - Tricuspid valve (between right atrium and right ventricles) and bicuspid valve (mitral) (between left atrium and left ventricle) |
front 77 What do the semilunar valves consist of? | back 77 Pulmonary valve (between right ventricle and pulmonary trunk) and aortic valve (between left ventricle and aorta) |
front 78 Which chamber of the heart receives blood from superior and inferior vena cavae (from body), and coronary sinus (from heart) and delivers blood to right ventricle through tricuspid valve? | back 78 Right atrium |
front 79 Which chamber of the heart receives blood from right atrium and pumps blood through pulmonary valve to lungs and back to heart; has thinner muscle wall than left ventricle | back 79 Right ventricle |
front 80 Which chamber of the heart receives blood from lungs through 4 pulmonary veins and delivers blood to the left ventricle through bicuspid valve? | back 80 Left atrium |
front 81 Which chamber of the heart receives blood from left atrium and pumps blood through aortic valve to body systems and back to heart, as well as to heart itself; has much thicker muscle wall than right ventricle | back 81 Left ventricle |
front 82 Definition: a heart valve disorder that involves narrowing of valve associated with failure of valve to open fully | back 82 Stenosis |
front 83 Definition: a heart valve disorder that involves narrowing of mitral valve associated with failure of valve to open fully | back 83 Mitral stenosis |
front 84 Definition: a heart valve disorder that involves narrowing of aortic valve associated with failure of valve to open fully | back 84 Aortic stenosis |
front 85 Definition: a heart valve disorder that involves failure of valve to close completely, which allows backflow of blood | back 85 Insufficiency or incompetence |
front 86 Definition: a heart valve disorder that involves failure of mitral valve to close completely, which allows backflow of blood from left ventricle into left atrium | back 86 Mitral insufficiency |
front 87 Definition: a heart valve disorder that involves failure of aortic semilunar valve to close completely, which allows backflow of blood from aorta into left ventricle | back 87 Aortic insufficiency |
front 88 What is the most common cause of a heart murmur? | back 88 A heart valve disorder |
front 89 Definition: abnormal sound consisting of clicking, rushing, or gurgling heard before, between, during, or after normal heart sounds | back 89 A heart murmur |
front 90 Name the two types of circulation. | back 90 1) Systemic circulation
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front 91 Describe systemic circulation. | back 91 Left side of the heart is pumped for systemic circulation: pumps oxygenated blood to tissues, drops off oxygen and nutrients and picks up carbon dioxide and wastes, and returns deoxygenated blood back to the heart |
front 92 Learn the path and events of systemic circulation. | back 92 Left atrium receives bright, red newly oxygenated blood returning from pulmonary circulation (lungs) -> bicuspid (mitral) valve -> left ventricle -> aortic semilunar valve -> aorta -> systemic arteries -> systemic arterioles -> systemic capillaries in tissues -> drops off oxygen and nutrients and picks up carbon dioxide and wastes -> returns deoxygenated blood to venules -> veins -> vena cavae -> right atrium |
front 93 Describe pulmonary circulation. | back 93 Right side of the heart is pumped for pulmonary circulation: pumps deoxygenated blood to lungs, picks up oxygen and drops off carbon dioxide for exhalation, and returns oxygenated blood back to heart |
front 94 Learn the path and events of pulmonary circulation. | back 94 Right atrium receives all dark, red deoxygenated blood returning from systemic circulation -> tricuspid valve -> right ventricle -> pulmonary semilunar valve -> pulmonary trunk -> right and left pulmonary arteries -> pulmonary arterioles -> pulmonary capillaries in right and left lungs -> drops off carbon dioxide and picks up oxygen -> returns to oxygenated blood to pulmonary venules -> pulmonary veins -> left atrium |
front 95 Definition: network of specialized self-excitable cardiac muscle (CM) fibers that provide an inherent source of rhythmical electrical activity responsible for the heart's continuous beating | back 95 Autorhythmic fibers |
front 96 What are the functions of the autorhythmic fibers? | back 96 - 'Pacemaker' to set rhythm of electrical excitation that causes contraction of the heart
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front 97 Where does cardiac excitation normally begin? | back 97 In the sinoatrial (SA) node located in right atrial wall |
front 98 What is the pacemaker of the heart? | back 98 SA node; SA node cells have a pacemaker potential; do not have stable resting potential, but repeatedly depolarize to threshold spontaneously |
front 99 What is the sequence of action potential propagation through conduction system of heart? | back 99 Sinoatrial (SA) node -> atrioventricular (AV) node in interatrial septum -> AV bundle (bundle of HIS) in interventricular septum -> right and left bundle branches toward apex of heart -> Purkinje fibers -> upward to remainder of ventricular myocardium -> then ventricles contract, pushing blood upward through semilunar valves |
front 100 Definition: composite record of action potentials produced by all cardiac muscle fibers during each heart beat | back 100 Electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG) |
front 101 How many waves does an EKG consist of? List them. | back 101 Three waves:
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front 102 Definition: the wave of the EKG that represents atrial depolarization | back 102 P wave |
front 103 Definition: the wave of the EKG that represents rapid ventricular depolarization | back 103 QRS complex |
front 104 Definition: the wave of the EKG that indicates ventricular repolarization | back 104 T wave |
front 105 Does the EKG also measure time spans (intervals or segments) between waves? | back 105 Yes; P-Q interval, Q-T interval, S-T segment |
front 106 In an EKG, what can provide clues to abnormalities? | back 106 The size of waves and length of intervals and segments |
front 107 Do atria and ventricles contract and relax at the same time or at different times? | back 107 At different times |
front 108 Definition: contraction phase caused by depolarization | back 108 Systole |
front 109 Definition: relaxation phase caused by repolarization | back 109 Diastole |
front 110 Definition: atria are contracting (ventricles are in diastole; relaxed); pressure in atria increases; atrioventricular valves become pushed open | back 110 Atrial systole |
front 111 Definition: ventricles are contracting (atria are in diastole; relaxed); pressure in ventricles increases; atrioventricular valves become pushed shut; semilunar valves become pushed open | back 111 Ventricular systole |
front 112 Definition: atria are relaxed | back 112 Atrial diastole |
front 113 Definition: ventricles are relaxed | back 113 Ventricular diastole |
front 114 Describe congestive heart failure. | back 114 Heart is a failing pump; one side of the heart often starts to fail before the other side |
front 115 What happens if the left ventricle of the heart fails? | back 115 Blood backs up in the lungs and causes pulmonary edema |
front 116 What happens if the right ventricle of the heart fails? | back 116 Blood backs up in systemic veins, results in peripheral edema |
front 117 Definition: blood vessels within walls of large vessels that supply them with oxygen and nutrients | back 117 Vasa vasorum |
front 118 Definition: vein with thin endothelial wall that has no smooth muscle to alter diameter | back 118 Vascular (venous) sinus |
front 119 Definition: union of branches from two or more blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, or nerves supplying same body region that provides alternate route for blood to or from tissue or organ if blood flow is blocked elsewhere | back 119 Anastomosis |
front 120 Definition: wider, more winding capillaries with unusually large fenestrations | back 120 Sinusoids |
front 121 How is vascular smooth muscle is innervated? | back 121 By sympathetic neurons of autonomic nervous system, which regulate blood vessel diameter |
front 122 Definition: narrowing of blood vessel lumen via contraction of vascular smooth muscle or by vasospasm; stimulated by increase in sympathetic activation | back 122 Vasoconstriction |
front 123 Definition: increase in lumen diameter by relaxation of smooth muscle; may be due to decrease in sympathetic stimulation | back 123 Vasodilation |
front 124 List the three general functions of blood vessels. | back 124 1) Arteries carry blood away from the heart
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front 125 Definition: largest diameter arteries; also called conducting arteries because they conduct blood from heart to muscular arteries | back 125 Elastic arteries |
front 126 Definition: medium-sized arteries; also called distributing arteries because they distribute blood to various parts of body | back 126 Muscular arteries |
front 127 Definition: very small arteries that deliver blood to capillaries; also called resistance vessels because contraction and relaxation of smooth muscle in arteriole walls can change their diameter and significantly affect blood pressure | back 127 Arterioles |
front 128 Definition: microscopic vessels that connect arterioles to venules; also called exchange vessels because main function is exchange of nutrients and wastes between blood and tissues through interstitial fluid | back 128 Capillaries |
front 129 Definition: very small veins formed when several capillaries unite; collect blood from capillaries and drain into veins | back 129 Venules |
front 130 Definition: Formed when venules merge; much thinner and have larger lumen than arteries; many, especially those in limbs, have valves to prevent backflow of blood as it slows on its return to heart | back 130 Veins |
front 131 Definition: hydrostatic pressure exerted by blood on arterial walls and is produced by the left ventricle in systole and the pressure remaining in the arteries when the left ventricle is in diastole; measured with sphygmomanometer (blood pressure cuff) and stethoscope | back 131 Blood pressure (BP) |
front 132 Definition: traveling pressure wave created by alternating expansion and recoil of elastic arteries after each left ventricular systole | back 132 Pulse |
front 133 Definition: various sounds that are heard while taking blood pressure | back 133 Korotkoff sounds |
front 134 Describe the first sound. | back 134 Corresponds to systolic blood pressure; heard when pressure cuff deflated enough for artery to open; sudden faintness of sounds as cuff deflated more: corresponds to diastolic blood pressure |
front 135 How many sounds are there during each cardiac cycle? How many are loud enough to hear through a stethoscope? | back 135 There are 4 heart sounds during each cardiac cycle, but only first 2 (S1 and S2) are loud enough to hear through a stethoscope. |
front 136 Definition: lubb; caused by blood turbulence associated with closure of AV valves after ventricular systole begins | back 136 First sound (S1) |
front 137 Definition: dupp; caused by blood turbulence associated with closure of semilunar (SL) valves at beginning of ventricular diastole | back 137 Second sound (S2) |
front 138 What is the normal value for resting blood pressure (BP) in a young adult male? | back 138 About 120/80 mmHg |
front 139 What is the normal value for resting heart rate (pulse rate)? | back 139 70-80 beats/min |
front 140 What is the normal value for resting stroke volume? | back 140 70 mL |
front 141 What is the normal value for resting cardiac output (CO)? | back 141 5.25 L/min |
front 142 What are the cardiovascular effects of epinephrine and norepinephrine? | back 142 Increase heart rate and contractility, blood pressure, and blood flow to muscle during exercise |
front 143 What is a myocardial infarction commonly called? | back 143 A heart attack |
front 144 Definition: death of heart tissue distal to an area of completely obstructed blood flow in a coronary artery; dead tissue is replaced with noncontractile scar tissue | back 144 Myocardial infarction |
front 145 List the methods of treatment for a myocardial infarction. | back 145 1) Injection of a thrombolytic (clot-dissolving) agent and an anticoagulant
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front 146 Name the two functional divisions of the respiratory system. | back 146 1) Conducting portion
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front 147 Which functional division includes nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, and terminal bronchioles? | back 147 Conducting portion |
front 148 What are the functions of the conducting portion of the respiratory system? | back 148 Warm air, filter air, moisten air, and conduct it into the lungs |
front 149 Which functional division includes respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveolar sacs, and alveoli? | back 149 Respiratory portion |
front 150 What is the function of the respiratory portion of the respiratory system? | back 150 Gas exchange between air and blood |
front 151 Definition: closes off larynx during swallowing to route food and liquids into the esophagus and prevent them from getting into the airways | back 151 Epiglottis |
front 152 Definition: function in holding breath against pressure in thoracic cavity | back 152 Ventricular folds (false vocal cords) |
front 153 Definition: function in producing sounds (voice) | back 153 Vocal folds (true vocal cords) |
front 154 Definition: serous membrane layer that covers lungs | back 154 Visceral pleura |
front 155 Definition: serous membrane layer that lines pleural cavity | back 155 Parietal pleura |
front 156 Definition: inflammation of the pleural membrane | back 156 Pleurisy (pleuritis) |
front 157 Definition: excess accumulation of fluid in the pleural space due to persistent inflammation | back 157 Pleural effusion |
front 158 Definition: filling of the pleural cavity with air due to an injury to the chest wall that allows air to enter the intrapleural space | back 158 Pneumothorax |
front 159 Definition: substance in alveolar fluid that lowers its surface tension to reduce the tendency of alveoli to collapse | back 159 Surfactant |
front 160 Definition: wandering phagocytes that remove dust and debris in alveolar spaces | back 160 Alveolar macrophages |
front 161 Definition: inhalation of medication in form of a fine mist to treat respiratory disorders | back 161 Nebulization |
front 162 What is the most important muscle of inhalation? | back 162 Diaphragm |
front 163 Define: dome-shaped muscle that flattens as it contracts and increases volume of chest cavity, reducing pressure, so air moves into lungs | back 163 Diaphragm |
front 164 What also assists in inhalation? | back 164 External intercostals |
front 165 Definition: involved in deep, forceful inhalations, but contribute little to normal quiet inhalation | back 165 Sternocleidomastoids and scalenes |
front 166 Does normal quiet exhalation involve muscle contraction? | back 166 No |
front 167 Why is normal quiet exhalation a passive process? | back 167 Because of the elastic recoil of stretched chest wall and lungs as diaphragm relaxes |
front 168 Definition: involved in forceful exhalations | back 168 Abdominals and internal intercostals |
front 169 What is measured by a spirometer? | back 169 Lung respiratory volumes |
front 170 Definition: volume of one breath while at rest; normally about 500 mL of air | back 170 Tidal volume |
front 171 Definition: additional air that is inhaled by taking a very deep breath | back 171 Inspiratory reserve volume |
front 172 Definition: additional air that is exhaled as forcibly as possible after inhaling normally | back 172 Expiratory reserve volume |
front 173 Definition: air that remains in the lungs after maximal forcible exhalation; cannot be measured by spirometry | back 173 Residual volume |
front 174 Definition: sum of inspiratory reserve volume, tidal volume, and expiratory reserve volume | back 174 Vital capacity |
front 175 Definition: sum of vital capacity and residual volume | back 175 Total lung capacity |
front 176 How many steps of respiration are there? List them. | back 176 1) Pulmonary ventilation
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front 177 Definition: inhalation and exhalation of air | back 177 Pulmonary ventilation |
front 178 Definition: diffusion of oxygen from lung alveoli to blood in pulmonary capillaries and diffusion of carbon dioxide in the opposite direction | back 178 External respiration |
front 179 Definition: movement of oxygen from systemic capillaries into tissue cells and transfer of carbon dioxide in the opposite direction | back 179 Internal respiration |
front 180 Definition: located in the medulla oblongata and controls the basic rhythm of respiration | back 180 Medullary rhythmicity area |
front 181 Definition: located in the lower pons and sends stimulatory impulses to inspiratory area to prolong inhalation | back 181 Apneustic area |
front 182 Definition: located in the upper pons and transmits inhibitory impulses to the inspiratory area to shorten the duration of inhalation so the lungs won't overfill with air | back 182 Pneumotaxic area |
front 183 Definition: chewing | back 183 Mastication |
front 184 Definition: swallowing | back 184 Deglutition |
front 185 Definition: take in of food, liquids, or drugs by mouth | back 185 Ingestion |
front 186 Definition: mechanical and chemical breakdown of food into small molecules | back 186 Digestion |
front 187 Definition: passage of dietary molecules from stomach and intestines into blood and lymph | back 187 Absorption |
front 188 Definition: progressive, wavelike contractions of the muscularis that push substances (food) onward; begins in esophagus; also occurs in stomach, small intestines, and large intestines | back 188 Peristalsis |
front 189 Definition: gentle, rippling, peristaltic movements in the stomach | back 189 Mixing waves |
front 190 Definition: breakdown of large lipid globules into a suspension of small, uniform droplets via bile salts | back 190 Emulsification |
front 191 Definition: soft, flexible mass of ground up food mixed with saliva that is formed in the mouth and swallowed | back 191 Bolus |
front 192 Definition: soupy liquid composed of macerated food mixed with gastric gland secretions that is formed in the stomach | back 192 Chyme |
front 193 Definition: clusters of glandular epithelial cells of the pancreas that secrete pancreatic juice, containing many digestive enzymes, into small intestine; account for 99% of pancreatic cells | back 193 Acini |
front 194 Definition: lymphatic vessels in villi of the intestines that absorb lipids from digested food | back 194 Lacteals |
front 195 Definition: elimination of feces | back 195 defecation |
front 196 List the digestive system structures and organs. | back 196 Salivary glands, teeth, tongue, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, liver, gall bladder, and pancreas |
front 197 Name the three salivary glands. | back 197 1) Parotid
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front 198 What are the functional components in saliva? | back 198 - Salivary amylase to begin breakdown of starch
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front 199 What binds, grinds, and chews food? | back 199 Teeth |
front 200 What organ tastes and forms bolus (chewed food)? | back 200 Tongue |
front 201 Definition: transports food into the stomach | back 201 Esophagus |
front 202 Definition: mechanical digestion (mixing waves) and chemical digestion by gastric gland secretions; contains gastric glands | back 202 Stomach |
front 203 Definition: folds that allow stomach to stretch | back 203 Rugae |
front 204 Name the three types of gastric glands. | back 204 1) Parietal cells
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front 205 Definition: gastric gland cells that produce intrinsic factor (needed for absorption of vitamin B12) and hydrochloric acid (needed for breakdown of proteins) | back 205 Parietal cells |
front 206 Definition: gastric gland cells that secrete pepsinogen and gastric lipase | back 206 Chief cells |
front 207 Definition: enteroendocrine cells in the stomach that secrete gastrin | back 207 G cells |
front 208 Definition: site of most digestion and absorption of nutrients | back 208 Small intestine |
front 209 How does digestion occur? | back 209 It occurs via pancreatic and intestinal juices in lumen and brush-border enzymes in plasma membrane of microvilli |
front 210 Definition: phagocytic cells in deepest part of intestinal glands that secrete lysozyme | back 210 Paneth cells |
front 211 What does long length provide? | back 211 It provides large surface area for digestion and absorption. |
front 212 What are the three structures that further increase surface area? | back 212 1) Circular folds
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front 213 Do circular folds stretch like rugae of the stomach? | back 213 No |
front 214 Name the three regions of the small intestine. | back 214 1) Duodenum
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front 215 What intensifies ileal peristalsis and forces chyme in ileum into cecum? | back 215 Gastroileal reflex |
front 216 What are the functions of the large intestine? | back 216 Completion of absorption, production of certain B and K vitamins, formation and expulsion of feces |
front 217 Name the four different regions of the large intestine. | back 217 1) Ascending
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front 218 Definition: distention of haustra (pouches) causes walls to contract and squeeze contents into next haustrum | back 218 Haustral churning |
front 219 Definition: mass peristalsis, initiated by food in stomach, that drives contents of colon into rectum | back 219 Gastrocolic reflex |
front 220 Definition: last 8 inches of GI tract | back 220 Rectum |
front 221 Definition: contains internal (involuntary) and external (voluntary) sphincters; opens to expel feces | back 221 Anus |
front 222 Definition: located on inferior aspect of liver and stores and release bile | back 222 Gall Bladder |
front 223 What are the functions of the liver? | back 223 - Carbohydrate, lipid, and protein metabolism
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front 224 Definition: produce hormones including insulin and glucagon; 1% of pancreas (endocrine) | back 224 Islets of Langerhans |
front 225 Definition: produce pancreatic juice containing several digestive enzymes; 99% of pancreas (exocrine) | back 225 Acini (clusters) |
front 226 What is the composition of pancreatic juice? | back 226 Contains water, enzymes, and sodium bicarbonate |
front 227 List the five digestive enzymes. | back 227 1) Pancreatic amylase
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front 228 Definition: the digestive enzyme that breaks down starch | back 228 Pancreatic amylase |
front 229 Definition: the digestive enzyme that breaks down lipids | back 229 Pancreatic lipase |
front 230 Definition: the digestive enzyme that breaks down peptides (protein) | back 230 Proteases |
front 231 Definition: the digestive enzymes that digest nucleic acids | back 231 Ribonuclease and deoxyribonuclease |
front 232 In the nutrients lab, what detects absorbic acid? | back 232 Indophenol |
front 233 In the nutrients lab, what detects albumin (protein)? | back 233 Benedict's agent |
front 234 In the nutrients lab, what detects starch (polysaccharide carbohydrate)? | back 234 Lugol's iodine solution |
front 235 In the nutrients lab, what detects corn oil (lipid)? | back 235 Sudan red |
front 236 Definition: sum of all chemical reactions in the body | back 236 Metabolism |
front 237 What are the two phases of metabolism? | back 237 Catabolism and anabolism |
front 238 Definition: the phase of metabolism that involves chemical reactions that break down complex organic molecules into simpler ones; decomposition reactions; exergonic reactions (produce more energy than they consume) | back 238 Catabolism |
front 239 Definition: the phase of metabolism that involves chemical reactions that combine simpler molecules to build more complex ones; are synthesis reactions; endergonic reactions (consume more energy than they produce) | back 239 Anabolism |
front 240 What is the molecule that participates most often in energy exchanges? | back 240 ATP |
front 241 What type of reactions does ATP couple together? | back 241 Catabolic reactions and anabolic reactions |
front 242 Where is most ATP produced? | back 242 In the mitochondria |
front 243 How is most ATP produced? | back 243 By aerobic respiration |
front 244 What does ATP contain that store potential energy that can be used to drive chemical reactions in the body? | back 244 High energy phosphate bonds |
front 245 Definition: a reaction that involves removal of electrons from a molecule; result in decrease in potential energy; are called dehydrogenation reactions because most involve removal of H atoms | back 245 Oxidation reactions |
front 246 Definition: a reaction that involves addition of electrons to a molecule; result in increase in potential energy; two hydrogens are added as H+ and H- | back 246 Reduction reactions |
front 247 Are oxidation and reduction reactions always coupled? | back 247 Yes, as one substance is oxidized, another is reduced |
front 248 Definition: complete breakdown (oxidation) of glucose to generate 36 or 38 ATP for energy | back 248 Cellular respiration |
front 249 What does cellular respiration include? | back 249 Includes:
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front 250 Definition: occurs in the cytosol and does not require oxygen (anaerobic); first step in the glucose catabolism; begins with one glucose and ends with 3 pyruvic acids; produces 2 NADH + H+ and 2 net ATP | back 250 Glycolysis |
front 251 Definition: occurs in mitochondria and requires oxygen (aerobic); begins with 2 pyruvic acids and ends with 2 acetyl coAs; transitional step that produces 2 NADH + H+ and 2 carbon dioxides, but no ATP | back 251 Acetyl coA formation |
front 252 Definition: occurs in mitochondria and requires oxygen (aerobic); makes 2 turns of the cycle; each turn begins by combining acetyl coA with oxaloacetic acid and ends with oxaloacetic acid required for next turn; produces 6 NADH + H+, 2 FADH(2), 2 ATP, and 4 carbon dioxides | back 252 Krebs cycle |
front 253 Describe the electron transport chain (Notecard 1). | back 253 - Occurs in mitochondria and requires oxygen
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front 254 Electron transport chain (Notecard 2). | back 254 - Series of redox reactions remove electrons and hydrogen from NADH and FADH(2) produced in previous steps: pass electrons along electron carriers and pump H+ across inner membrane
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front 255 Electron transport (Notecard 3). | back 255 - Also has ATP synthase with H+ channel that allows H+ to flow back across the inner membrane, creating a proton motive force that is used to generate ATP
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front 256 Definition: contain most dietary lipids, which they carry to adipose tissue storage | back 256 Chylomicrons |
front 257 Definition: primarily contain endogenous lipids synthesized in liver, which they transport to adipocytes for storage | back 257 Very low-density lipoproteins (VLDLs) |
front 258 Definition: transport 75% of the total cholesterol in blood to cells throughout the body, and contribute to formation of fatty plaques that increase risk of coronary artery disease when levels are high | back 258 Low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) |
front 259 Definition: remove excess cholesterol from body cells and carry it to the liver for elimination, and prevent buildup of cholesterol in blood so high levels are associated with low risk of coronary artery disease | back 259 High-density lipoproteins (HDLs) |
front 260 Definition: splitting of triglycerides into glycerol and fatty acids; lipid catabolism; catalyzed by lipases; inhibited by insulin | back 260 Lipolysis |
front 261 Definition: synthesis of lipids from sources such as glucose and amino acids; lipid anabolism; occurs when individual consumes more calories than needed for ATP synthesis; stimulated by insulin | back 261 Lipogenesis |
front 262 Definition: usually used to measure the body's metabolic rate and express energy content of food | back 262 Calorie |
front 263 Definition: form of energy that can be measured in temperature and expressed in calories | back 263 Heat |
front 264 Definition: energy storage form of carbohydrates; in liver and skeletal muscle | back 264 Glycogen |
front 265 Definition: energy storage form of lipids; in adipose tissue and yellow bone marrow | back 265 Triglycerides |
front 266 Can proteins and amino acids be stored? | back 266 No |
front 267 Definition: rate at which metabolic reactions use energy in quiet resting, fasting state | back 267 Basal metabolic rate |
front 268 Definition: main regulators of basal metabolic rate | back 268 Thyroid hormones T3 and T4 |
front 269 Definition: ingested nutrients are entering bloodstream and glucose is readily available for ATP production | back 269 Absorptive state |
front 270 What are the 2 metabolic hallmarks? | back 270 1) Oxidation of glucose for ATP synthesis
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front 271 Is insulin a dominant hormonal regulator? | back 271 Yes |
front 272 Definition: absorption of nutrients from GI tract is complete so energy needs must be met by fuels already in body | back 272 Postabsorptive state |
front 273 In the postabsorptive state, what do the metabolic reactions include? | back 273 - Providing glucose by breakdown of glycogen or new synthesis
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front 274 In the postabsorptive state, what do the hormone regulators include? | back 274 - Glucagons
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front 275 Definition: contain nephrons that filter blood and form urine containing wastes to be excreted | back 275 Kidneys |
front 276 Definition: transport urine from kidneys to bladder | back 276 Ureters |
front 277 Definition: stores urine until elimination from body | back 277 Urinary bladder |
front 278 Definition: transports urine from bladder to outside of body for elimination; in males, is also common pathway for semen to be ejaculated | back 278 Urethra |
front 279 What is the functional units of the kidneys? | back 279 Nephrons |
front 280 What are the two parts of a nephron? | back 280 1) Renal corpuscle
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front 281 Definition: where blood is filtered to form filtrate | back 281 Renal corpuscle |
front 282 Definition: where filtered filtrate passes into and water and solute reabsorption and secretion takes place to form urine | back 282 Renal tubule |
front 283 What are the two compartments of the renal corpuscle? | back 283 1) Glomerulus
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front 284 Definition: capillary network | back 284 Glomerulus |
front 285 Definition: surrounds glomerulus | back 285 Bowman's capsule |
front 286 What are the three main sections of the renal tubule? | back 286 1) Proximal convoluted tubule
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front 287 Definition: site of most water and solute reabsorption | back 287 Proximal convoluted tubule |
front 288 What are the two parts of the loop of Henle? | back 288 1) Descending limb
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front 289 Definition: the part of the loop of Henle that is the additional site of obligatory water reabsorption | back 289 Descending limb |
front 290 Definition: the part of the loop of Henle that has little or no water reabsorption, ions only | back 290 Ascending limb |
front 291 Definition: major cite of calcium reabsorption stimulated by parathyroid hormone drains into collecting duct | back 291 Distal convoluted tubule |
front 292 List the path of filtered blood through a nephron to the collecting duct. | back 292 Glomerulus -> proximal convoluted tubule -> loop of Henle -> distal convoluted tubule -> collecting duct |
front 293 List the path of urine flow from the collecting ducts through elimination from the body. | back 293 Collecting ducts -> papillary ducts -> minor calyces -> major calyces -> renal pelvis -> ureters -> urinary bladder -> urethra -> discharge from the body |
front 294 Why is reabsorption of sodium by renal tubules particularly important? | back 294 Because more sodium passes glomerular filters than any other substance except water |
front 295 Why does solute reabsorption drive water reabsorption? | back 295 Because all water is reabsorbed by osmosis |
front 296 Definition: water is reabsorbed together with solutes in tubular fluid because it is 'obliged' to follow solutes when they are reabsorbed; occurs in proximal convoluted tubule and descending limb of loop of Henle; accounts for 90% of water reabsorption | back 296 Obligatory water reabsorption |
front 297 Definition: adapts to need and is regulated by antidiuretic hormone (ADH); occurs in primarily in collecting ducts; accounts for final 10% of water reabsorption | back 297 Facultative water reabsorption |
front 298 What does homeostasis of body fluid volume largely depend on? | back 298 The kidney's ability to regulate amount of water loss in urine |
front 299 When is a large volume of dilute urine produced? | back 299 When fluid intake is high |
front 300 When is a small volume of concentrated urine produced? | back 300 When fluid intake is low or fluid loss is great (dehydration or blood loss) |
front 301 What hormone controls whether dilute or concentrated urine is produced? | back 301 Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) |
front 302 What happens if ADH is absent? | back 302 Very dilute urine is formed |
front 303 What happens if there are high levels of ADH present? | back 303 It stimulates more water reabsorption into blood so concentrated urine is formed |
front 304 Definition: substance that dissociates into cations and anions in water and conducts electrical currents; includes acids, bases, and salts | back 304 Electrolyte |
front 305 Definition: substance dissolved in water that does not dissociate into ions so does not conduct electricity | back 305 Nonelectrolyte |
front 306 What type of electrolyte lights up a light bulb brightly? | back 306 Strong electrolyte |
front 307 What type of electrolyte lights up a light bulb dimly? | back 307 Weak electrolyte |
front 308 What type of electrolyte does not light up a light bulb? | back 308 Nonelectrolyte |
front 309 What are the functions of electrolytes? | back 309 - Help maintain acid-base balance
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front 310 How do buffers prevent rapid, drastic changes in pH? | back 310 By turning strong acids and bases into weak ones |
front 311 What are the three types of buffer systems? | back 311 1) Phosphate buffer system
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front 312 Definition: an acid-base imbalance where there is a decrease in blood pH due to drop in HCO3- in systemic arterial blood | back 312 Metabolic acidosis |
front 313 Definition: an acid-base imbalance where there is an increase in blood pH due to rise HCO3- in systemic arterial blood | back 313 Metabolic alkalosis |
front 314 Definition: an acid-base imbalance where there is a decrease in pH due to abnormally high P(CO2) in systemic arterial blood | back 314 Respiratory acidosis |
front 315 Definition: an acid-base imbalance where there is an increase in pH due to abnormally low P(CO2) in systemic arterial blood | back 315 Respiratory alkalosis |
front 316 Definition: male gonads consisting of a pair of oval glands that produce male gametes (sperm) and secrete hormones, including testosterone; contain seminiferous tubules where sperm are made | back 316 Testes (testicles) |
front 317 Definition: supporting sac that holds testes | back 317 Scrotum |
front 318 Definition: site where sperm mature and acquire motility and ability to fertilize ovum | back 318 Epididymis |
front 319 Definition: stores viable sperm up to several months and delivers sperm from epididymis toward urethra via peristalsis; sperm that are not ejaculated are reabsorbed | back 319 Ductus deferens (vas deferens) |
front 320 Definition: pass through prostate and terminate in prostatic urethra, where they eject sperm and seminal vesicle secretions just before ejaculation | back 320 Ejaculatory ducts |
front 321 Definition: forceful propulsion of semen from urethra to exterior | back 321 Ejaculation |
front 322 Definition: shared terminal duct of urinary and reproductive systems; ends at external urethral orfice | back 322 Urethra |
front 323 What are the three parts to the urethra? | back 323 1) Prostatic
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front 324 Definition: include seminal vesicles, prostate, and bulbourethral glands, and secrete most of liquid portion of semen | back 324 Accessory sex glands |
front 325 Definition: secrete alkaline, viscous fluid that contains fructose, prostaglandins, and clotting proteins and accounts for 60% of volume of semen | back 325 Seminal vesicles |
front 326 Definition: secretes milky, slightly acidic fluid that contains citric acid, proteolytic enzymes, acid phosphatase, and constitutes 25% of volume of semen | back 326 Prostate gland |
front 327 Definition: secrete alkaline fluid into urethra that protects passing sperm by neutralizing acids from urine, and secrete mucous that lubricates urethra and end of penis to minimize sperm-damage during ejaculation | back 327 Bulbourethral glands (Cowper's glands) |
front 328 Definition: consists of erectile tissue and urethra and provides passageway for excretion of urine and ejaculation of semen | back 328 Penis |
front 329 Definition: enlarged region of corpus spongiosum at distal end of penis that contains external urethral orfice; covered by loose-fitting prepuce (foreskin) if penis is not circumcised | back 329 Glans penis |
front 330 Definition: surgical procedure in which some or all of prepuce is removed | back 330 Circumcision |
front 331 Definition: female gonads, which produce gametes and hormones, including estrogen, progesterone, inhibin, and relaxin | back 331 Ovaries |
front 332 Definition: secondary oocytes that develop into mature ova after fertilization | back 332 Gametes |
front 333 Definition: extend laterally from uterus and provide route for sperm to reach ovum and transport secondary oocytes and fertilized ovum to uterus (from ovaries) | back 333 Uterine tubes (Fallopian tubes) |
front 334 Definition: part of pathway for sperm from vagina to uterine tubes; site of implantation of fertilized ovum, fetal development, and labor; when implantation does not occur, source of menstrual flow | back 334 Uterus |
front 335 Definition: inferior narrow part of uterus that opens into vagina | back 335 Cervix |
front 336 Definition: long fibromuscular canal lined with mucous membrane that extends from exterior to cervix; receives penis during sexual intercourse; outlet for menstrual flow; passageway for childbirth | back 336 Vagina |
front 337 Definition: external genitals of female | back 337 Vulva |
front 338 Definition: 2 longitudinal folds of skin covered with pubic hair that are homologous to scrotum | back 338 Labia majora |
front 339 Definition: 2 smaller folds medial to labia majora | back 339 Labia minora |
front 340 Definition: small, cylindrical mass of erectile tissue and nerves; homologous to glans penis; also has prepuce | back 340 Clitoris |
front 341 Definition: reproductive organs that produce gametes (sperm or oocytes) and secrete sex hormones | back 341 Gonads |
front 342 What are the gonads in males? | back 342 Testes that produce and release haploid cells called sperm; also produce testosterone |
front 343 What are the gonads in females? | back 343 Ovaries that produce and release haploid cells called secondary oocytes; also produce estrogen, progesterone, relaxin, and inhibin |
front 344 All the cells in the human body, except gametes, have how many pairs of chromosomes? | back 344 23 pairs, with one member of each homologous pair inherited from each parent; represents the diploid number (2n), total of 46 chromosomes |
front 345 Reproductive cell division in gonads produces gametes that have how many chromosomes? | back 345 Half as many as somatic cells; they have haploid number (n): total of 23 chromosomes; joining of gamete nuclei during fertilization produces normal diploid number (2n) (23 chromosomes from each parent: total of 46) |
front 346 Definition: reproductive cell division | back 346 Meiosis |
front 347 Meiosis occurs in two stages of division. What are they called? | back 347 1) Meiosis I
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front 348 How does meiosis I begin and end? | back 348 Begins with diploid parent cell and ends with 2 haploid daughter cells |
front 349 How does meiosis II begin and end? | back 349 2 haploid cells formed from meiosis I divide and produce 4 haploid gametes in males or 1 gamete in females that are genetically different from original diploid parent cell |
front 350 Definition: two events that occur in prophase of meiosis I but not in prophase of mitosis or meiosis II | back 350 Synapsis and genetic crossing-over |
front 351 Definition: 2 sister chromatids of each pair of homologous chromosomes pair off forming a tetrad | back 351 Synapsis |
front 352 Definition: results in genetic recombination and produces daughter cells that are not like each other or parent cells | back 352 Crossing-over of genes between nonsister chromatids |
front 353 Where are sperm and testosterone produced? | back 353 In the seminiferous tubules |
front 354 Definition: process of sperm production | back 354 Spermatogenesis |
front 355 Definition: maturation of spermatids into sperm | back 355 Spermiogenesis |
front 356 List the stages of maturation of spermatogenic cells in males. | back 356 Spermatagonia -> primary spermatocytes -> secondary spermocytes -> spermatids -> spermatozoa (sperm) |
front 357 List the stages of follicular development in females. | back 357 Primordial follicle -> primary follicle -> secondary follice -> Graafian follicle |
front 358 What are the functions of testosterone? | back 358 - Prenatal development of male reproductive ducts and descent of testes
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front 359 What do the ovaries in females do? | back 359 Produce gametes and hormones |
front 360 Definition: secondary oocytes that develop into mature ova after fertilization | back 360 Gametes |
front 361 Definition: include estrogen, progesterone, inhibin, and relaxin | back 361 Hormones |
front 362 Definition: formation of gametes in ovaries | back 362 Oogenesis |
front 363 Definition: the hormone that is secreted by anterior pituitary and initiates growth of ovarian follicles (one matures each month) and secretion of estrogen by growing follicles | back 363 Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) |
front 364 Definition: expulsion of secondary oocyte | back 364 Ovulation |
front 365 What happens to the oocyte if fertilization doesn't occur? | back 365 The oocyte degenerates. |
front 366 What happens if sperm is present in the uterine tube and and one penetrates an oocyte? | back 366 Meiosis II resumes and oocyte splits into 2 haploid (n) cells of unequal size: ovum (larger cell) and second polar body (smaller cell) |
front 367 Definition: nuclei of sperm and ovum unite, forming diploid (2n) zygote | back 367 Fertilization |
front 368 What are the functions of the corpus luteum? | back 368 - Contains remnants of a mature Graffian follicle after ovulation
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front 369 What are the functions of the luteinizing hormone (LH) in the female reproductive system? | back 369 - Secreted by anterior pituitary
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front 370 What are the functions of estrogen in the female reproductive system? | back 370 -Secreted by follicular cells
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front 371 Definition: includes events of ovarian and uterine cycles and changing hormone levels | back 371 Female reproductive cycle |
front 372 List the four stages of the female reproductive cycle. | back 372 1) Menstrual
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front 373 Definition: use estrogens and progestins to prevent pregnancy | back 373 Hormonal methods |
front 374 Definition: block sperm from gaining access to the uterine cavity | back 374 Barrier methods |
front 375 Definition: kill sperm | back 375 Spermicides |
front 376 Definition: renders person incapable of reproduction | back 376 Surgical sterilization |
front 377 Definition: cutting and tying or removal of portion of each ductus deferens via small incision in scrotum in males | back 377 Vasectomy |
front 378 Definition: Cutting and tying or removal of portion of each uterine tube in females | back 378 Tubal ligation |
front 379 Definition: use of physiological cues of reproductive cycle to abstain from intercourse on days when pregnancy likely | back 379 Periodic abstinence |
front 380 Definition: premature expulsion of embryo or fetus, usually before 20th week | back 380 Abortion |
front 381 Definition: diploid nucleus formed when haploid pronuclei of sperm (male) and ovum (female) fuse and produce cell with 46 chromosomes (23 from each pronucleus); undergoes divisions to become blastocyst that is implanted in uterus | back 381 Zygote |
front 382 Definition: weeks 1 through 8; involves development of all major organs, although their functions are minimal; folic acid deficiency during this time produces neural tube defects | back 382 Embryo |
front 383 Definition: weeks 9 through birth; involves extensive growth and differentiation of existing tissues and organs, but little formation of new structures | back 383 Fetus |
front 384 Definition: process by which fetus is expelled from uterus through vagina | back 384 Labor |
front 385 Definition: giving birth | back 385 Parturition |
front 386 What is the normal position of giving birth for the baby? | back 386 Head first |
front 387 Definition: fetal buttocks or lower limbs first; may be delivered surgically through C-section | back 387 Breech presentation |
front 388 Describe the placenta. | back 388 - Site of exchange of nutrients and wastes between the mother and fetus
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front 389 Definition: an opening where some blood passes from right atrium to left atrium in a fetus; this is because fetal lungs are not functional | back 389 Foramen ovale |
front 390 How does mot blood bypass the fetal lungs and enter systemic circulation? | back 390 By crossing from the pulmonary trunk into the aorta through ductus arteriosis |
front 391 How many branches does the umbilical vein divide into? | back 391 Two: one branch joins hepatic portal vein, but most blood flows into 2nd branch called ductus venosus, which drains into inferior vena cava (delivers oxygenated blood with nutrients from placenta to fetus) |
front 392 Definition: return deoxygenated blood with wastes from fetus to placenta | back 392 2 umbilical arteries |
front 393 Definition: abnormal condition of pregnancy characterized by sudden hypertension, high protein concentration in urine, and generalized edema | back 393 Preeclampsia |
front 394 Definition: when condition in last notecard is also associated with convulsions and coma | back 394 Eclampsia |
front 395 Somatic cells have many pairs of homologous chromosomes? | back 395 23; 22 pairs are same in males and females (autosomes) and 1 pair is different in males and females (sex chromosomes) |
front 396 What are the sex chromosomes for a male and a female? | back 396 - Male: XY
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front 397 Definition: actual genetic makeup; actual alleles that code for each trait | back 397 Genotype |
front 398 Definition: how genetic makeup is expressed in the body; outward appearance of each trait in the body | back 398 Phenotype |
front 399 Definition: chart that shows possible combinations of gametes from 2 parents | back 399 Punnett square |
front 400 Definition: trait that is expressed by dominant allele; expressed when 2 dominant alleles or 1 dominant and 1 recessive allele present | back 400 Dominant trait |
front 401 Definition: allele that dominates and masks another allele | back 401 Dominant allele (D) |
front 402 Definition: trait that is controlled by recessive allele; expressed when two recessive alleles are present | back 402 Recessive trait |
front 403 Definition: allele that is masked by presence of dominant allele | back 403 Recessive allele (d) |
front 404 Definition: same alleles (DD or dd) on homologous chromosomes | back 404 Homozygous |
front 405 Definition: different alleles (Dd) on homologous chromosomes | back 405 Heterozygous |
front 406 Definition: heterozygous person who carries recessive gene but doesn't express it | back 406 Carrier |
front 407 Definition: neither allele in pair is dominant over other, so heterozygote has intermediate phenotype between homozygous dominant and homozygous recessive phenotypes; example: sickle-cell trait | back 407 Incomplete dominance |
front 408 Definition: although person only inherits 2 alleles, more than 2 alternative alleles may exist; example: blood type | back 408 Multiple-allele inheritance |
front 409 Definition: usually carried on X chromosomes | back 409 Sex-linked traits |
front 410 Describe sex-linked traits for females. | back 410 For recessive traits, female may have dominant normal allele to mask recessive allele for disorder, so doesn't express trait but is a carrier |
front 411 Describe male-linked traits for males. | back 411 Males only have one X chromosome, so if allele is present, it will be expressed |
front 412 What are some examples of recessive X-linked traits? | back 412 Red-green color blindness and hemophilia |
front 413 Definition: chromosomes that aren't homologous break and exchange sections | back 413 Translocation |
front 414 Definition: error in cell division that results in abnormal number of chromosomes | back 414 nondisjunction |
front 415 Definition: usually caused by trisomy of chromosome 21 (nondisjunction during cell division that results in extra copy of chromosome 21) | back 415 Down syndrome |
front 416 Definition: genetic disorders that are sex-linked inheritance on X chromosome | back 416 Hemophilia and red-green color blindness |
front 417 Describe sickle cell disease. | back 417 - Displays incomplete dominance
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