WEEK 6: Check Your Understanding Flashcards


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1

A potential risk factor for breast cancer includes

early menarche and late first pregnancy.

2

The urinalysis finding most indicative of cystitis includes the presence of

nitrites.

3

The most commonly ordered diagnostic test for evaluation of the urinary system is

ultrasonography.

4

The HPV vaccine is recommended for 11- to 12-year-old girls, but can be administered to girls as young as _____ years of age.

9

5

Sexual impotence is rarely because of

primary causes.

6

The prognosis of penile carcinoma depends upon the stage of the disease.

True

7

The most common cause of urinary obstruction in male newborns and infants is urethral valves.

True

8

The disorder characterized by a neurologic lesion that affects bladder control is

neurogenic bladder.

9

The best intervention for acute kidney injury (AKI) is prevention.

True

10

A patient, age 3, has vesicoureteral reflux. “Why does that make him have so many bladder infections?” asks his mother. The nurse’s best response is

“When he urinates, urine runs back toward his kidneys and then into the bladder again, making it easy for bacteria to grow if they reach the bladder.”

11

Hypotension is both a cause of chronic kidney disease and a result of chronic kidney disease.

False

12

Infection can lead to bladder stone formation.

True

13

The difference between stress incontinence and urge incontinence is that stress incontinence

is caused by a pelvic floor muscle problem, whereas urge incontinence is caused by a problem with the detrusor muscle.

14

The most frequent initial symptom of bladder cancer is

hematuria.

15

A change occurring in a pregnant woman that is indicative of a potential disorder is

increased urinary protein.

16

Vesicoureteral reflux is associated with

recurrent cystitis.

17

A patient who has difficulty walking without assistance is incontinent of urine when help doesn’t get to her quickly enough. The term for this type of incontinence is

functional.

18

The expected treatment of a pregnant woman with hyperemesis gravidarum is

intravenous therapy.

19

Activation of parasympathetic nerves to the bladder will cause

bladder contraction.

20

What reproductive tract disorder is most likely to be associated with urinary stress incontinence?

Cystocele

21

Findings that should prompt an evaluation for renal cancer include

hematuria.

22

The individual at highest risk of pyelonephritis who requires monitoring for signs of its occurrence is the

man who has chronic urinary tract infections.

23

The urea-splitting bacteria contribute to the formation of ________ kidney stones.

struvite

24

It is true that polycystic kidney disease is

genetically transmitted.

25

If acute tubular necrosis (ATN) does not resolve and continued tubular dysfunction ensues, the patient will then experience

polyuria and sodium wasting.

26

Appropriate therapy for prerenal kidney injury includes

fluid administration.

27

Individuals with end-stage chronic renal disease are at risk for renal osteodystrophy and spontaneous bone fractures, because

they are deficient in active vitamin D.

28

Postrenal acute kidney injury may be caused by

bilateral kidney stones.

29

A major modifiable risk factor for nephrolithiasis is

dehydration.

30

Calcium oxylate stone formation is facilitated by

hypercalciuria.

31

When a patient experiencing nephrotic syndrome asks, “What causes my urine to be so full of protein,” the nurse’s response is based on the knowledge that

the glomerular membrane has increased permeability.

32

The pain that accompanies kidney disorders is called

nephralgia.

33

The patient most at risk for postrenal acute kidney injury is a(n)

elderly patient with hypertrophy of the prostate.

34

Appropriate management of end-stage renal disease includes

erythropoietin administration.

35

The most common type of renal stone is

calcium.

36

Osteoporosis commonly occurs in patients with end-stage renal disease because of

hyperparathyroidism.

37

Hyperlipidemia occurs in nephrotic syndrome because

hepatocytes synthesize excessive lipids.

38

What problem is a patient likely to experience in end-stage renal disease?

Uremia

39

In patients with polycystic kidney disease, renal failure is expected to progress over time as the cystic process destroys more nephrons. At what point will a patient reach end-stage renal disease?

Greater than 90% nephron loss

40

The most helpful laboratory value in monitoring the progression of declining renal function is

serum creatinine.

41

Cryptorchidism is

associated with an increased incidence of testicular cancer.

42

A progressive decrease in the force of the urinary stream, dribbling of urine, and difficulty initiating the urinary stream are characteristic of

prostatic enlargement.

43

Cervical cancer can be detected in the early, curable stage by the ________ test.

Papanicolaou

44

A person is unaware that his bladder is full of urine, but complains that he is leaking urine almost constantly. The most accurate term for this type of incontinence is

overflow.

45

A patient has ureteral colic. The manifestation that requires immediate notification of the physician is

chills and fever.

46

The greatest risk factor for bladder cancer is

smoking.

47

The patient reports persistent pelvic pain and urinary frequency and urgency. She says the pain improves when she empties her bladder. She does not have a fever and her repeated urinalyses over the past months have been normal, although she has a history of frequent bladder infections. She also has a history of fibromyalgia and hypothyroidism. Based on her history and complaints, her symptoms are characteristic of

interstitial cystitis.

48

In addition to renal colic pain, signs or symptoms of ureteral stones may frequently include

hematuria.

49

Phimosis is a disorder of the penis characterized by

inability to retract the foreskin.

50

A ureterocele is

a cystic dilation of a ureter.

51

Endometriosis is a condition in which

ectopic endometrial tissue is present.

52

The most common agent resulting in nephrotoxicity and subsequent acute tubular necrosis (ATN) in hospitalized patients is

contrast media.

53

The most common direct cause of acute pyelonephritis is

infection by E. coli.

54

One of the most common causes of acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is

ischemic conditions.

55

A person who is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome is also experiencing hypoalbuminemia. This happens because

albumin is excreted in the urine.

56

Nephrotic syndrome does not usually cause

hematuria.

57

The type of glomerulonephritis which is most likely to result in a swift decline in renal function that then progresses to acute kidney injury is

crescentic glomerulonephritis.

58

The most common cause of ischemic acute tubular necrosis (ATN) in the United States is

sepsis.

59

The major underlying factor leading to the edema associated with glomerulonephritis and nephrotic syndrome is

proteinuria.

60

The condition characterized by oliguria and hematuria is

acute glomerulonephritis.

61

A patient with renal disease is at risk for developing uremia as the nephrons progressively deteriorate, because

GFR declines.

62

The major cause of glomerulonephritis is

immune system damage to the glomeruli.

63

The most common sign/symptom of renal calculi is

pain.

64

The infection frequently associated with development of postinfectious acute glomerulonephritis is

throat infection.

65

In addition to E. coli, a risk factor for development of pyelonephritis isGroup of answer choices

urinary retention and reflux.

66

Treatment of a uterine prolapse may involve the insertion of a(n) ________ to hold the uterus in place.

pessary.

67

The defining characteristic of severe acute kidney injury is

oliguria.

68

Detrusor muscle overactivity can be improved by administration of

botulinum toxin.

69

Urinary retention with consistent or intermittent dribbling of urine is called

overflow incontinence.

70

Absence of menstruation is called

amenorrhea.

71

The microorganism that causes the vast majority of urinary tract infections is

Escherichia coli.

72

Anemia in people who have end-stage chronic renal disease is caused by

decreased secretion of erythropoietin.

73

A 32-year-old female complaining of severe pain with menstruation and inability to participate in her routine household activities is likely experiencing

dysmenorrhea.

74

The pathology report for a patient with penile cancer has this statement: The tumor involves the shaft of the penis. The cancer is at what stage?

Stage II

75

Pelvic floor muscle training is appropriate for

urge incontinence.

76

The condition in which the urethra opens on the dorsal aspect of the penis is known as

epispadias.

77

The most likely cause of acidosis in a patient with end-stage renal disease is

insufficient metabolic acid excretion resulting from nephron loss.

78

The effect on the renal tubules during the postoliguric phase of acute tubular necrosis involves

regeneration of the renal tubular epithelium.

79

A common component of renal calculi is

calcium.

80

Gastrointestinal drainage, perioperative and postoperative hypotension, and hemorrhage may all contribute to renal failure by causing

acute tubular necrosis.

81

The risk for contrast media–induced acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is highest in

a 70-year-old patient with heart failure.

82

The consequence of an upper urinary tract obstruction in a single ureter is

hydronephrosis

83

The main clinical manifestation of a kidney stone obstructing the ureter is

renal colic.

84

The pathophysiologic basis of acute glomerulonephritis is

an immune complex reaction

85

Uterine prolapse is caused by a relaxation of the

cardinal ligaments.

86

A patient being treated for acute tubular necrosis (ATN) develops mild polyuria. The nurse responds to questions about why this occurring by statingGroup of answer choices

“His renal tubules are recovering, so he is making more urine, but he is not able to concentrate urine well, because he is not fully recovered.”

87

The direct cause of stress incontinence is

pelvic muscle weakness.

88

A 52-year-old female had a surgical procedure in which the breast, lymphatics, and underlying muscle were removed. The procedure performed was a

radical mastectomy.

89

A patient injured severely in a motor vehicle accident is hospitalized with acute kidney injury as well as multiple broken bones and lacerations. When family members ask what is meant by the term ‘prerenal,’ the nurse responds

“Your husband’s kidney injury did not start in the kidney itself, but rather in the blood flow to the kidney.”

90

A breast lump that is painless, hard, and unmoving is most likely

carcinoma.

91

The most common types of uterine tumors are known asGroup of answer choices

leiomyomas.

92

Nephrotic syndrome involves loss of large amounts of ________ in the urine

protein

93

At his most recent clinic visit, a patient with end-stage renal disease is noted to have edema, congestive signs in the pulmonary system, and a pericardial friction rub. Appropriate therapy at this time would includeGroup of answer choices

initiation of dialysis.

94

The most common cause of intrinsic kidney injury is _____ injury.Group of answer choices

tubular

95

A primary laboratory finding in end-stage chronic renal disease isGroup of answer choices

increased serum creatinine.

96

A patient diagnosed with a micropenis must be evaluated for

endocrine disorders.

97

The condition associated with end-stage chronic renal disease that is the most immediately life threatening is

hyperkalemia.

98

Signs consistent with a diagnosis of glomerulonephritis include

proteinuria.