pathophysiology lecture quiz 6 Flashcards


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1

All about Nephrotic syndrome

  • A kidney disorder that causes the body to excrete too much protein in the urine.
  • caused by damage to small blood vessels in the kidneys that filter waste and excess water from the blood.
  • Symptoms include swelling around the eyes and in the feet and ankles, foamy urine, and weight gain due to excess fluid retention.
  • treatment include blood pressure medications and water pills.

2

All symptoms of acute pyelonephritis

  • fever
  • flank pain
  • nausea
  • vomiting
  • burning on urination
  • increased frequency, and urgency.

3

The organism most commonly associated with acute pyelonephritis is???? What?

Escherichia coli

4

All about polycystic kidney disease

  • An inherited disorder in which clusters of cysts develop in the kidneys.
  • noncancerous sacs containing water-like fluid.
  • Many people with this condition have kidney failure by age 60.
  • Symptoms include high blood pressure, back or side pain, and a swollen abdomen.
  • Treatments include medication to control blood pressure, pain relievers, and cyst removal.
  • A kidney transplant might be needed.

5

The pathophysiologic basis of acute glomerulonephritis is what?

an immune complex reaction.

6

All the Signs consistent with a diagnosis of glomerulonephritis include???

  • Pink or cola-colored urine from red blood cells in your urine (hematuria)
  • Foamy or bubbly urine due to excess protein in the urine (proteinuria)
  • High blood pressure (hypertension)
  • Fluid retention (edema) with swelling evident in your face, hands, feet and abdomen.

7

The pain that accompanies kidney disorders is called….WHAT?

nephralgia

8

Findings that should prompt an evaluation for renal cancer include …WHICH ONES?

hematuria

9

The most common type of renal stone is WHAT?

calcium

10

Scrotal pain in males and labial pain in females may accompany renal pain as a result of WHAT?

associated dermatomes

11

The oliguric phase of acute tubular necrosis is characterized by

fluid excess and electrolyte imbalance

12

Osteoporosis commonly occurs in patients with end-stage renal disease because of..WHAT?

hyperparathyroidism

13

Gastrointestinal drainage, perioperative and postoperative hypotension, and hemorrhage may all contribute to renal failure by causing WHAT?

acute tubular necrosis

14

Appropriate therapy for prerenal kidney injury includes…WHAT?

fluid administration

15

A patient with renal disease is at risk for developing uremia as the nephrons progressively deteriorate, because????

GFR declines.

16

The most likely cause of anemia in a patient with end-stage renal disease is..BECAUSE??

insufficient erythropoietin

17

The most likely cause of acidosis in a patient with end-stage renal disease is BECAUSE? DEjavu

insufficient metabolic acid excretion due to nephron loss

18

The most helpful laboratory value in monitoring the progression of declining renal function is WHICH ONE?

serum creatinine

19

Appropriate management of end-stage renal disease includes WHICH ONES?

erythropoietin administration

20

What problem is a patient likely to experience in end-stage renal disease?

Uremia

21

Which intervention has been found to retard the advancement of chronic kidney disease?

ACE inhibitors

22

In patients with polycystic kidney disease, renal failure is expected to progress over time as the cystic process destroys more nephrons. At what point will a patient reach end-stage renal disease?

Greater than 90% nephron loss

23

The most common cause of intrinsic kidney injury is WHAT ?

tubular injury

24

Hypotension is both a cause of chronic kidney disease and a result of chronic kidney disease. T or False

false

25

Activation of parasympathetic nerves to the bladder will cause. WHAT?

bladder contraction

26

Urinary retention with consistent or intermittent dribbling of urine is called WHAT?

overflow incontinence

27

The direct cause of stress incontinence is..WHAT?

neurologic conditions

28

Which group is at the highest risk for urinary tract infection?

Sexually active women

29

The normal post-void residual urine in the bladder is…WHAT?

less than 100 mL

30

A ureterocele is…WHAT?

  • a swelling at the bottom of one of the ureters
  • The swollen area can block urine flow
  • birth defect
  • a cystic dilation of a ureter.

31

The most frequent initial symptom of bladder cancer is..WHAT?

hematuria

32

A patient has ureteral colic. The manifestation that requires immediate notification of the physician is….WHAT

chills and fever

33

The most commonly ordered diagnostic test for the evaluation of the urinary system is..WHAT?

ultrasonography

34

The disorder characterized by a neurologic lesion that affects bladder control is WHAT?

neurogenic bladder

35

Vesicoureteral reflux is associated with….WHAT?

recurrent cystitis

36

The microorganism that causes the vast majority of urinary tract infections is WHICH ONE?

Escherichia coli

37

A patient diagnosed with a micropenis must be evaluated for….WHAT?

endocrine disorders

38

Sexual impotence is rarely because of…WHAT?

  • Side effect of of certain meds
    Psychological factors (low desire, erectile failure, premature ejaculation
    Peripheral vascular disease
    Arterial insufficiency of the penis

39

Phimosis is a disorder of the penis characterized by WHAT?

  • Inability to retract the foreskin of the penis- associated with chronic inflammation
    Acquired anomaly

40

Cryptorchidism is WHAT?

a condition in which one or both of the testes fail to descend from the abdomen into the scrotum.

41

Sudden, severe testicular pain is indicative of WHAT?

Testicular torsion - twisting of the spermatic cord with subsequent testicular ischemia and infarction

42

A progressive decrease in the force of the urinary stream, dribbling of urine, and difficulty initiating the urinary stream are characteristic of WHAT?

urethral obstruction

43

The condition in which the urethra opens on the dorsal aspect of the penis is known as WHAT?

Epispadias

44

The pathology report for a patient with penile cancer has this statement: The tumor involves the shaft of the penis. The cancer is at what stage?

Stage II

45

The most common cause of urinary obstruction in male newborns and infants is urethral valves. TRUE OR FALSE

true

46

The majority of penile cancer cases are classified as basal cell carcinoma. TRUE OR FALSE

false

47

The prognosis of penile carcinoma depends upon the stage of the disease. TRUE OR FALSE

true

48

Uterine prolapse is caused by a relaxation of the WHAT?

Cardinal ligaments

49

Endometriosis is a condition in which ????

ectopic endometrial tissue is present

50

Absence of menstruation is called WHAT?

amenorrhea (in a female 16 or older)

51

Dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB) is caused by WHAT?

Absent or diminished levels of progesterone resulting in a thick and extremely vascular endometrium that lacks structural support

52

What reproductive tract disorder is most likely to be associated with urinary stress incontinence?

cystocele

53

All about fibrocystic breast disease

  • Noncancerous changes that give a breast a lumpy or ropelike texture.
  • due to hormone changes during the menstrual cycle that affect breast tissue.
  • Symptoms include a change in breast texture, pain or tenderness, and lumpiness.

54

A potential risk factor for breast cancer includes…WHAT?

  • Women who are not physically active
  • Being overweight or having obesity after menopause.
  • Older women who are overweight or have obesity

55

Excessive vomiting in pregnant women is known as WHAT

hyperemesis gravidarum (HG)

56

The expected treatment of a pregnant woman with hyperemesis gravidarum is

  • dietary changes
  • rest
  • antacids
  • intravenous therapy

57

Cervical cancer can be detected in the early, curable stage by the ________ test.

Pap test (pap smear)

58

The most common types of uterine tumors are known as WHAT?

Endometrioid adenocarcinoma

59

A breast lump that is painless, hard, and unmoving is most likely WHAT?

breast cancer

60

The HPV vaccine is recommended for 11- to 12-year-old girls, but can be administered to girls as young as _____ years of age

9