pathophysiology midterm Flashcards


Set Details Share
created 8 months ago by karlaquijada43
24 views
updated 8 months ago by karlaquijada43
show moreless
Page to share:
Embed this setcancel
COPY
code changes based on your size selection
Size:
X
Show:

1
  1. A case study!!! A patient e exposed to group A hemolytic Streptococcus developed a pharyngeal infection. Clinic examination: oral temperature of 102.3°F, skin rash, dysphagia, and reddened throat mucosa with multiple pustules. Complains of sore throat, malaise, and joint stiffness. A throat culture is positive for Streptococcus, and antibiotics have been prescribed. The etiology of disease is….WHAT?
  • Streptococcus infection

2
  1. After suffering a heart attack, a middle-aged man is counseled to take a cholesterol-lowering medication. This is an example of ????
  • tertiary prevention

3

A disease that is native to a particular region is called…????

endemic

4

Your patient’s red blood cell count is slightly elevated today. This might be explained by ( all that apply.)

A. gender difference.
B. situational factors.
C. normal variation.

E. illness.

5

When determining additional data to gather before making a diagnosis, what factors need to be considered? (All that apply.)

...

6

Selye’s three phases of the stress response include all the following except….NICE!!!!

allostasis

7

The effects of excessive cortisol production include…..WHAT

  • Increased stress levels, weakened immune system, weight gain, high blood pressure, and mood swings.

8

Persistence of the alarm stage will ultimately result in WHAT?

  • Exhaustion

9

Aldosterone may increase during stress, leading to (All that apply.)

A. decreased urinary output.
C. increased sodium retention.
D. increased blood volume.

10

Chronic activation of stress hormones can lead to (All that apply.)

a. cardiovascular disease.
b. depression.
c. impaired cognitive function.
d. autoimmune disease.

11

Apoptosis is a process that results in cellular…..What ?

death

12

Necrotic death of brain tissue usually produces …What kind of necrosis.

  • Liquefactive necrosis

13

Reperfusion injury to cells…How?

Reperfusion injury to cells occurs when the blood supply returns to the tissue after a period of ischemia or lack of oxygen. The return of blood supply causes inflammation and oxidative damage through the induction of oxidative stress rather than the restoration of normal function

14

Bacteria cause injury to cells by which mechanisms? (All that apply.)

a. producing exotoxins.
b. producing endotoxins.
c. producing destructive enzymes.

e. evoking an immune reaction.

15

Viruses differ from most bacteria in that they act in which of the following ways? (All that apply.)

a. enter the host cell.

c. use the host's metabolic processes to survive and replicate.

e. do not produce toxins.

16

Infectious injury often results from which of the following? (All that apply.)

a. exotoxins.
b. endotoxins.
c. self-destruction of cells.

e. enzymes from white blood cells.

17

Breast cancer in women who have the breast cancer gene………is ?

genetic

18

Malignant neoplasms of epithelial origin are known as…What ?

carcinomas

19

Tumor markers (All that apply.)

  • Circulating tumor markers.
  • Tumor tissue markers.

20

Side effects of chemotherapy include (All that apply.)

fatigue

loss of appetite

nausea

constipation

diarrhoea

hair loss

mouth sores

skin and nail problems.

21

What roles does inflammation play in cancer development? (All that apply.)

cell mutation and proliferation can result, often creating an environment that is conducive to the development of cancer.

22

Which viruses are associated with human cancers? (All that apply.)

Epstein-Barr virus

human papilloma virus

hepatitis B virus

human herpes virus-8

23

Dramatic hypotension sometimes accompanies type I hypersensitivity reactions because???

  • Histamine release from mast cells and basophils causes vasodilation and increased vascular permeability.

24

RhoGAM is given to an Rh-negative mother in order to prevent…WHAT….EASY!!!

Rh incompatibility in future pregnancies.

25

The principle Ig mediator of type I hypersensitivity reactions is…..WHAT?

IgE

26

Myasthenia gravis is a type II hypersensitivity disorder that involves…WHAT?

Antibody-mediated immune response

27

Secondary immune deficiency problems may be caused by what? (All that apply.)

- surgery.
- high blood sugar.
- corticosteroids.
- low protein level.

28

Diseases due to type IV hypersensitivity? (All that apply.)

tuberculosis (tuberculosis)

M. leprae (leprosy)

Histoplasma capsulatum.

29

Which form of leukemia demonstrates the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome?

  • Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia

30

Burkitt lymphoma is most closely associated with WHAT?

  • Epstein-Barr Virus

31

You as nurse educating a patient on a new diagnosis of non-Hodgkin lymphoma you would provide which information in the teaching plan?

  • Information about the disease, treatment options, possible side effects, lifestyle changes, and resources for emotional support.

32

Which viruses have been implicated as cancer-causing agents? (All that apply.)

HPVs),

Epstein-Barr (EBV),

Hepatitis B, C (HBV), (HCV),

(HIV),

Human herpes 8 (HHV-8),

33

A patient with CML (chronic myeloid leukemia). The patient may experience which of these symptoms? (All that apply.)

Fatigue

Weight loss

Sweat

Bleeding

ABD discomfort (SPLEEN)

34

A patient with stage III non-Hodgkin lymphoma and is preparing to undergo treatment. Which treatments may be used to treat this patient’s cancer? (All that apply.)

Radiation

Bone Marrow transplant

Chemotherapy

Monoclonal antibody therapy

35

A patient with myeloma. The nurse teaches the patient about the multiple tumor sites that can develop with this cancer. The possible tumor sites in myeloma include the (All that apply.)

LIVER,

SPLEEN

KIDNEYS

36

Which clinical findings describe the typical presentation of ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)? (All that apply.)

Pain in long bones

infection

fever

bruising

37

A low mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) and mean corpuscular volume (MCV) are characteristic of which type of anemia?

  • Iron deficiency anemia

38

The cause of the most common form of anemia is WHICH ONE?

iron defiency

39

You again as nurse is educating a patient about the disease with anemia of chronic renal failure . Which statements made by the nurse are correct regarding the patient’s treatment? (All that apply.)

Erythropoiesis-stimulating agents

iron supplementation

40

Anemia related to vitamin B12 or folate deficiency is characterized by what laboratory features? (All that apply.)

RBC 500,000 to 750,000 WBC 4000 to 5000 cells/mm3

41

Regarding iron-deficiency anemia, what laboratory features are typically decreased? (All that apply.)

MCV

MCH

MCHC

42

One of the cardinal features of sickle cell anemia includes acute and chronic dysfunction of which organs? (All that apply.)

Spleen

Bones

Brain

Lungs

Stomach

43

A newborn patient is diagnosed with hemolytic disease. The nurse may expect to find what signs and symptoms? (All that apply.)

Petechial hemorrhages

Hepatomegaly

Splenomegaly

Kernicterus

44

Dysfunction of which organ would lead to clotting factor deficiency?

liver

45

The prothrombin time (PT) and INR (international normalized ratio) measure the integrity of WHAT?

the extrinsic pathway

46

Disseminated intravascular coagulation may be treated with heparin therapy to..DO WHAT?

Prevent further clotting

47

A newborn has melena, bleeding from the umbilicus, and hematuria. The newborn most likely experiencing WHAT?

  • Vitamin K deficiency bleeding

48

What information about INR does the nurse understand?...nice question

INR (International Normalized Ratio) is a standardized number that's figured out in the lab. If you take blood thinners, also known as anticoagulants, INR is a test that's monitored.

49

What is involved in the release of plasminogen activators? (All that apply.)

Factor XII

HMWK,

kallikrein

thrombin

50

Which involves bleeding associated with vascular or platelet defects? (All that apply.).

Bleeding occurs immediately after trauma, involves skin or mucous membranes, is brief in duration

51

Risk factors for atherosclerosis include…..WHAT?

  • High cholesterol, hypertension, smoking, diabetes, obesity, and physical inactivity.

52

Which is not a manifestation of acute arterial obstruction?

purpura

53

A serious complication of deep vein thrombosis is???

pulmonary embolism

54

Which is not considered to be a risk factor for thrombus formation?

Thrombocytopenia

55

Findings in compartment syndrome……

  • Increased pressure within a muscle compartment

56

The pain characteristics of chronic venous insufficiency include which of the following? (All that apply.)

aching and cramping in the affected area

relief with elevation to the area

relief with ambulation if pain is in the legs.

57

Which changes in the circulatory system occur in the older adult? (All that apply.)

decreased cardiac output

increased blood pressure,

decreased compliance of the heart muscle

thickening of the heart valves

58

What results when systemic blood pressure is increased?

  • The workload of the heart increases.

59

A case study ….patient diagnosed with hypertension, returns to the clinic 6 weeks later. The reports “moderate” adherence to the recommended lifestyle changes and has experienced a decreased from 165/96 to 148/90 mm Hg in blood pressure. What is the most appropriate intervention for this patient at this time?

continue lifestyle modifications only

60

High blood pressure increases the workload of the left ventricle because it increases..?????

afterload

61

A patient presents to the emergency department with a diastolic blood pressure of 132 mm Hg, retinopathy, and symptoms of an ischemic stroke. This symptomology is likely the result of..WHAT??

hypertensive crisis

62

The nurse understands that which is the correct description of a Korotkoff sound?

  • Phase 2: Murmuring or swishing sounds

63

High blood pressure increases the risk of which conditions? (All that apply.)

Heart Attack

Eye damage

Kidney Failure

Atherosclerosis

Congestive Heart Failure

64

Atherosclerosis puts a patient at risk for which of the following problems? (All that apply.)

Hyperlipidemia.

65

. Orthostatic hypotension is a risk factor for which conditions? (All that apply.)

stroke

cognitive impairment

death

66

Primary treatment for myocardial infarction (MI) is directed at…….What ?

decreasing myocardial oxygen demands

Restoring blood flow to the affected area of the heart.

67

Patients presenting with symptoms of unstable angina and no ST segment elevation are treated with…..What?

  • Antiplatelet and anticoagulant medications

68

Aortic regurgitation is associated with…what?

heart valve disease

69

Angina caused by coronary artery spasm is called what kind of angina?

  • Prinzmetal's angina

70

Atherosclerotic plaques with large lipid cores are prone to WHAT?

  • Rupture

71

Acute coronary syndrome in the presence of thrombosis may present with which manifestations? All that apply.)

Unstable angina

MI

sudden cardiac arrest

72

Diagnostic tests used to diagnose or confirm MI include which of the following? (All that apply.)

EKG

cardiac catheterization

echocardiography

radionuclide scintigraphy

73

Hypertrophy of the right ventricle is a compensatory response to..WHAT

pulmonary hypertension

74

First-degree heart block is characterized by…WHAT

prolonged PR interval

75

A patient with pure left-sided heart failure is likely to exhibit….WHAT

pulmonary edema

76

A patient is diagnosed with heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF). This patient is most likely described as a(n)…..WHAT

elderly woman without a previous history of MI

77

Right-sided heart failure is usually a consequence of which conditions? (All that apply.)

Coronary artery disease

hearth attack

78

Massive release of histamine with consequent vasodilation and hypotension occurs with what type of shock?

anaphylactic

79

Which causes of shock are considered to be obstructive? (All that apply.)

Pulmonary embolus,

Cardiac tamponade,

Tension pneumothorax

80

A patient experiencing shock may exhibit which signs and symptoms? (All that apply.)

Pulse of more than 100 beats/minute

Fast and deep respirations

81

The urinary signs and symptoms of acute renal failure associated with the progressive stage of shock are which of the following? (All that apply.)

oliguria

increased serum creatinine.

82

A patient experiences anaphylactic shock. The nurse expects to observe which signs and symptoms in the patient? (All that apply.)

Hypotension

Urticaria

Angioedema

Wheezing

83

Septic shock is commonly associated with Gram-negative infections and Gram-positive organisms that enter the body through which body systems? (All that apply.)

genitourinary

gastrointestinal

respiratory tract

skin

84

. Allergic (extrinsic) asthma is associated with..What?

  • An overactive immune response to allergens

85

Emphysema results from destruction of alveolar walls and capillaries, which is because of?

  • Chronic exposure to irritants, especially tobacco smoke.

86

Chronic bronchitis often leads to cor pulmonale because of?

  • Increased resistance in the pulmonary circulation

87

Cystic fibrosis is associated with..WHAT?

  • A defect in chloride ion transport

88

Croup is characterized by…..WHAT?

  • A barking cough, hoarseness, and difficulty breathing.

89

COPD leads to a barrel chest, because it causes…to WHAT?

  • Air to be trapped in the lungs

90

Which of the following are characteristics of asthma? (All that apply.)

Edema

Airway inflammation

Collagen deposits

91

The hallmark manifestation of acute respiratory distress syndrome is…WHAT?

  • Severe shortness of breath.

92

Empyema is defined as an??????

Infection in the lung that leads to a collection of pus in the pleural cavity.

93

Pneumocystis is a term that refers to a….WHAT?

  • Non-compliance to medication regimen

94

Bacterial pneumonia leads to hypoxemia caused by…..WHAT??

  • Impaired gas exchange

95

A common characteristic of viral pneumonia is…..WHAT?

inflammatiomn of the lungs

96

Which alteration can lead to edema?

  • Increased capillary permeability.

97

Hypernatremia may be caused by Clinical manifestations of hyponatremia include

Excessive sodium intake

98

Clinical manifestations of moderate to severe hypokalemia include

deficiency of ATP

99

A patient has a positive Chvostek sign. The nurse interprets this as a sign of

hypocalcemia

100

Which acid are the kidneys unable to excrete?

sulfuric acid

101

Vomiting of stomach contents or continuous nasogastric suctioning may predispose to development of

metabolic alkalosis

102

Respiratory acidosis may be caused by

hypoventilation

103

diarrhea causes what

dehydration

104

Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis would result in What?

increased blood pH

105

A patient is diagnosed with starvation ketoacidosis. What signs and symptoms should you anticipate in your assessment?

Rapid

deep breathing

lethargy

abdominal pain