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front 3 A disease that is native to a particular region is called…???? | back 3 endemic |
front 4 Your patient’s red blood cell count is slightly elevated today. This might be explained by ( all that apply.) | back 4 A. gender difference. E. illness. |
front 5 When determining additional data to gather before making a diagnosis, what factors need to be considered? (All that apply.) | back 5 no data |
front 6 Selye’s three phases of the stress response include all the following except….NICE!!!! | back 6 allostasis |
front 7 The effects of excessive cortisol production include…..WHAT | back 7
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front 8 Persistence of the alarm stage will ultimately result in WHAT? | back 8
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front 9 Aldosterone may increase during stress, leading to (All that apply.) | back 9 A. decreased urinary output. |
front 10 Chronic activation of stress hormones can lead to (All that apply.) | back 10 a. cardiovascular disease. |
front 11 Apoptosis is a process that results in cellular…..What ? | back 11 death |
front 12 Necrotic death of brain tissue usually produces …What kind of necrosis. | back 12
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front 13 Reperfusion injury to cells…How? | back 13 Reperfusion injury to cells occurs when the blood supply returns to the tissue after a period of ischemia or lack of oxygen. The return of blood supply causes inflammation and oxidative damage through the induction of oxidative stress rather than the restoration of normal function |
front 14 Bacteria cause injury to cells by which mechanisms? (All that apply.) | back 14 a. producing exotoxins. e. evoking an immune reaction. |
front 15 Viruses differ from most bacteria in that they act in which of the following ways? (All that apply.) | back 15 a. enter the host cell. c. use the host's metabolic processes to survive and replicate. e. do not produce toxins. |
front 16 Infectious injury often results from which of the following? (All that apply.) | back 16 a. exotoxins. e. enzymes from white blood cells. |
front 17 Breast cancer in women who have the breast cancer gene………is ? | back 17 genetic |
front 18 Malignant neoplasms of epithelial origin are known as…What ? | back 18 carcinomas |
front 19 Tumor markers (All that apply.) | back 19
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front 20 Side effects of chemotherapy include (All that apply.) | back 20 fatigue loss of appetite nausea constipation diarrhoea hair loss mouth sores skin and nail problems. |
front 21 What roles does inflammation play in cancer development? (All that apply.) | back 21 cell mutation and proliferation can result, often creating an environment that is conducive to the development of cancer. |
front 22 Which viruses are associated with human cancers? (All that apply.) | back 22 Epstein-Barr virus human papilloma virus hepatitis B virus human herpes virus-8 |
front 23 Dramatic hypotension sometimes accompanies type I hypersensitivity reactions because??? | back 23
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front 24 RhoGAM is given to an Rh-negative mother in order to prevent…WHAT….EASY!!! | back 24 Rh incompatibility in future pregnancies. |
front 25 The principle Ig mediator of type I hypersensitivity reactions is…..WHAT? | back 25 IgE |
front 26 Myasthenia gravis is a type II hypersensitivity disorder that involves…WHAT? | back 26 Antibody-mediated immune response |
front 27 Secondary immune deficiency problems may be caused by what? (All that apply.) | back 27 - surgery. |
front 28 Diseases due to type IV hypersensitivity? (All that apply.) | back 28 tuberculosis (tuberculosis) M. leprae (leprosy) Histoplasma capsulatum. |
front 29 Which form of leukemia demonstrates the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome? | back 29
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front 30 Burkitt lymphoma is most closely associated with WHAT? | back 30
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front 31 You as nurse educating a patient on a new diagnosis of non-Hodgkin lymphoma you would provide which information in the teaching plan? | back 31
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front 32 Which viruses have been implicated as cancer-causing agents? (All that apply.) | back 32 HPVs), Epstein-Barr (EBV), Hepatitis B, C (HBV), (HCV), (HIV), Human herpes 8 (HHV-8), |
front 33 A patient with CML (chronic myeloid leukemia). The patient may experience which of these symptoms? (All that apply.) | back 33 Fatigue Weight loss Sweat Bleeding ABD discomfort (SPLEEN) |
front 34 A patient with stage III non-Hodgkin lymphoma and is preparing to undergo treatment. Which treatments may be used to treat this patient’s cancer? (All that apply.) | back 34 Radiation Bone Marrow transplant Chemotherapy Monoclonal antibody therapy |
front 35 A patient with myeloma. The nurse teaches the patient about the multiple tumor sites that can develop with this cancer. The possible tumor sites in myeloma include the (All that apply.) | back 35 LIVER, SPLEEN KIDNEYS |
front 36 Which clinical findings describe the typical presentation of ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)? (All that apply.) | back 36 Pain in long bones infection fever bruising |
front 37 A low mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) and mean corpuscular volume (MCV) are characteristic of which type of anemia? | back 37
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front 38 The cause of the most common form of anemia is WHICH ONE? | back 38 iron defiency |
front 39 You again as nurse is educating a patient about the disease with anemia of chronic renal failure . Which statements made by the nurse are correct regarding the patient’s treatment? (All that apply.) | back 39 Erythropoiesis-stimulating agents iron supplementation |
front 40 Anemia related to vitamin B12 or folate deficiency is characterized by what laboratory features? (All that apply.) | back 40 RBC 500,000 to 750,000 WBC 4000 to 5000 cells/mm3 |
front 41 Regarding iron-deficiency anemia, what laboratory features are typically decreased? (All that apply.) | back 41 MCV MCH MCHC |
front 42 One of the cardinal features of sickle cell anemia includes acute and chronic dysfunction of which organs? (All that apply.) | back 42 Spleen Bones Brain Lungs Stomach |
front 43 A newborn patient is diagnosed with hemolytic disease. The nurse may expect to find what signs and symptoms? (All that apply.) | back 43 Petechial hemorrhages Hepatomegaly Splenomegaly Kernicterus |
front 44 Dysfunction of which organ would lead to clotting factor deficiency? | back 44 liver |
front 45 The prothrombin time (PT) and INR (international normalized ratio) measure the integrity of WHAT? | back 45 the extrinsic pathway |
front 46 Disseminated intravascular coagulation may be treated with heparin therapy to..DO WHAT? | back 46 Prevent further clotting |
front 47 A newborn has melena, bleeding from the umbilicus, and hematuria. The newborn most likely experiencing WHAT? | back 47
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front 48 What information about INR does the nurse understand?...nice question | back 48 INR (International Normalized Ratio) is a standardized number that's figured out in the lab. If you take blood thinners, also known as anticoagulants, INR is a test that's monitored. |
front 49 What is involved in the release of plasminogen activators? (All that apply.) | back 49 Factor XII HMWK, kallikrein thrombin |
front 50 Which involves bleeding associated with vascular or platelet defects? (All that apply.). | back 50 Bleeding occurs immediately after trauma, involves skin or mucous membranes, is brief in duration |
front 51 Risk factors for atherosclerosis include…..WHAT? | back 51
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front 52 Which is not a manifestation of acute arterial obstruction? | back 52 purpura |
front 53 A serious complication of deep vein thrombosis is??? | back 53 pulmonary embolism |
front 54 Which is not considered to be a risk factor for thrombus formation? | back 54 Thrombocytopenia |
front 55 Findings in compartment syndrome…… | back 55
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front 56 The pain characteristics of chronic venous insufficiency include which of the following? (All that apply.) | back 56 aching and cramping in the affected area relief with elevation to the area relief with ambulation if pain is in the legs. |
front 57 Which changes in the circulatory system occur in the older adult? (All that apply.) | back 57 decreased cardiac output increased blood pressure, decreased compliance of the heart muscle thickening of the heart valves |
front 58 What results when systemic blood pressure is increased? | back 58
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front 59 A case study ….patient diagnosed with hypertension, returns to the clinic 6 weeks later. The reports “moderate” adherence to the recommended lifestyle changes and has experienced a decreased from 165/96 to 148/90 mm Hg in blood pressure. What is the most appropriate intervention for this patient at this time? | back 59 continue lifestyle modifications only |
front 60 High blood pressure increases the workload of the left ventricle because it increases..????? | back 60 afterload |
front 61 A patient presents to the emergency department with a diastolic blood pressure of 132 mm Hg, retinopathy, and symptoms of an ischemic stroke. This symptomology is likely the result of..WHAT?? | back 61 hypertensive crisis |
front 62 The nurse understands that which is the correct description of a Korotkoff sound? | back 62
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front 63 High blood pressure increases the risk of which conditions? (All that apply.) | back 63 Heart Attack Eye damage Kidney Failure Atherosclerosis Congestive Heart Failure |
front 64 Atherosclerosis puts a patient at risk for which of the following problems? (All that apply.) | back 64 Hyperlipidemia. |
front 65 . Orthostatic hypotension is a risk factor for which conditions? (All that apply.) | back 65 stroke cognitive impairment death |
front 66 Primary treatment for myocardial infarction (MI) is directed at…….What ? | back 66 decreasing myocardial oxygen demands Restoring blood flow to the affected area of the heart. |
front 67 Patients presenting with symptoms of unstable angina and no ST segment elevation are treated with…..What? | back 67
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front 68 Aortic regurgitation is associated with…what? | back 68 heart valve disease |
front 69 Angina caused by coronary artery spasm is called what kind of angina? | back 69
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front 70 Atherosclerotic plaques with large lipid cores are prone to WHAT? | back 70
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front 71 Acute coronary syndrome in the presence of thrombosis may present with which manifestations? All that apply.) | back 71 Unstable angina MI sudden cardiac arrest |
front 72 Diagnostic tests used to diagnose or confirm MI include which of the following? (All that apply.) | back 72 EKG cardiac catheterization echocardiography radionuclide scintigraphy |
front 73 Hypertrophy of the right ventricle is a compensatory response to..WHAT | back 73 pulmonary hypertension |
front 74 First-degree heart block is characterized by…WHAT | back 74 prolonged PR interval |
front 75 A patient with pure left-sided heart failure is likely to exhibit….WHAT | back 75 pulmonary edema |
front 76 A patient is diagnosed with heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF). This patient is most likely described as a(n)…..WHAT | back 76 elderly woman without a previous history of MI |
front 77 Right-sided heart failure is usually a consequence of which conditions? (All that apply.) | back 77 Coronary artery disease hearth attack |
front 78 Massive release of histamine with consequent vasodilation and hypotension occurs with what type of shock? | back 78 anaphylactic |
front 79 Which causes of shock are considered to be obstructive? (All that apply.) | back 79 Pulmonary embolus, Cardiac tamponade, Tension pneumothorax |
front 80 A patient experiencing shock may exhibit which signs and symptoms? (All that apply.) | back 80 Pulse of more than 100 beats/minute Fast and deep respirations |
front 81 The urinary signs and symptoms of acute renal failure associated with the progressive stage of shock are which of the following? (All that apply.) | back 81 oliguria increased serum creatinine. |
front 82 A patient experiences anaphylactic shock. The nurse expects to observe which signs and symptoms in the patient? (All that apply.) | back 82 Hypotension Urticaria Angioedema Wheezing |
front 83 Septic shock is commonly associated with Gram-negative infections and Gram-positive organisms that enter the body through which body systems? (All that apply.) | back 83 genitourinary gastrointestinal respiratory tract skin |
front 84 . Allergic (extrinsic) asthma is associated with..What? | back 84
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front 85 Emphysema results from destruction of alveolar walls and capillaries, which is because of? | back 85
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front 86 Chronic bronchitis often leads to cor pulmonale because of? | back 86
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front 87 Cystic fibrosis is associated with..WHAT? | back 87
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front 88 Croup is characterized by…..WHAT? | back 88
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front 89 COPD leads to a barrel chest, because it causes…to WHAT? | back 89
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front 90 Which of the following are characteristics of asthma? (All that apply.) | back 90 Edema Airway inflammation Collagen deposits |
front 91 The hallmark manifestation of acute respiratory distress syndrome is…WHAT? | back 91
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front 92 Empyema is defined as an?????? | back 92 Infection in the lung that leads to a collection of pus in the pleural cavity. |
front 93 Pneumocystis is a term that refers to a….WHAT? | back 93
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front 94 Bacterial pneumonia leads to hypoxemia caused by…..WHAT?? | back 94
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front 95 A common characteristic of viral pneumonia is…..WHAT? | back 95 inflammatiomn of the lungs |
front 96 Which alteration can lead to edema? | back 96
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front 97 Hypernatremia may be caused by Clinical manifestations of hyponatremia include | back 97 Excessive sodium intake |
front 98 Clinical manifestations of moderate to severe hypokalemia include | back 98 deficiency of ATP |
front 99 A patient has a positive Chvostek sign. The nurse interprets this as a sign of | back 99 hypocalcemia |
front 100 Which acid are the kidneys unable to excrete? | back 100 sulfuric acid |
front 101 Vomiting of stomach contents or continuous nasogastric suctioning may predispose to development of | back 101 metabolic alkalosis |
front 102 Respiratory acidosis may be caused by | back 102 hypoventilation |
front 103 diarrhea causes what | back 103 dehydration |
front 104 Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis would result in What? | back 104 increased blood pH |
front 105 A patient is diagnosed with starvation ketoacidosis. What signs and symptoms should you anticipate in your assessment? | back 105 Rapid deep breathing lethargy abdominal pain |