Bio 163 first test Flashcards


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1

The study of the structure and shape of the body and its parts and their relationships to one another is called

anatomy

2

Which system is most dependent on a normal atmospheric pressure?

respiratory system

3

Which of these body parts is distal to the crural region

tarsal region

4

Physical trauma to a body organ is known as blunt trauma. Organs in which body cavity account for most blunt trauma injuries?

abdominal cavity

5

Which of these terms refers to a body area found on the dorsal surface?

popliteal

6

Which of these planes would show the heart, lungs, and liver in the same section?

frontal (coronal) plane

7

What cavity is superior to the diaphragm?

thoracic

8

Which of these carries out the commands of a homeostatic control center?

effector

9

Which of these describes the effect of a negative feedback mechanism?

reduces the intensity of the initial stimulus

10

Anatomical Position

Standing erect, palms facing anterior, feet slightly apart, anterior body view, thumbs lateral.

11

not anatomical position

sitting down, posterior body view, palms facing posterior, thumbs medial, feet together

12

Which of these is an example of physiology

The liver produces many of the blood proteins

13

What organ system is responsible for breaking down food into molecules that can be absorbed by the body?

digestive system

14

Which of these is an organ of the urinary system

kidney

15

Which of the following levels of organization is inclusive of all others?

organ system level

16

Melanin is a protein pigment that protects us from ultraviolet radiation. What level of structural organization is the classification of melanin?

chemical level

17

What necessary function does muscle contraction contribute to the human body?

movement

18

The right and left iliac (inguinal) regions are lateral to the ________ region.

hypogastric (pubic)

19

Which of the following is visible when viewing the anterior of a human body in anatomical position?

patellar region

20

What are the two components of the first and simplest level of organization?

Atoms and molecules

21

What is the smallest unit of life?

Cells.

22

Select the correct order of the levels of organization in the body, from the most simple to the most complex levels:

Chemical, cellular, tissue, organ, organ system

23

Select the options that correctly define and exemplify a tissue:

Cardiac muscle is an example of a tissue.A tissue is made of thousands of similar cells with common functions.

24

The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominopelvic cavity by the diaphragm.

True

25

A patient in the emergency department complains of pain in her right upper quadrant (RUQ). What organ is least likely to be the cause for her pain?

Urinary bladder

26

The surgeon created an opening in the chest during surgery. The incision was made along a plane that equally separated the right and left halves of the thoracic cavity. This section is known as a(n)

median (midsagittal) section

27

In reference to the relationship between the patellar and popliteal regions, which of the following statements is correct?

The patellar region is anterior to the popliteal region.

28

A body part that is considered lateral is assumed to be

away from the midline of the body

29

Ventral is a directional term synonymous with ________ in humans.

anterior

30

Which of these regions is distal to the antebrachial region?

carpal region

31

Which organ system is the slow-acting control system of the body?

endocrine system

32

What are two organ systems that are involved in the excretion of wastes from the body?

digestive and urinary

33

Glands of the nervous system release chemicals called hormones into the blood.

False

34

A young child sustained a baseball hit to his cranial cavity. Which bones were fractured?

Skull

35

Which of these internal body cavities is the most inferior

Pelvic cavity

36

The orbital cavities house the

eyes

37

The lungs and heart are situated in the ________ body cavity

thoracic

38

The dorsal body cavity houses the

spinal cord and brain

39

Transverse or cross sections divide the body into anterior and posterior parts.

False

40

What is the overall effect of a negative feedback mechanism?

reduces or stops the initial stimulus

41

Which of the following is an example of a homeostatic imbalance?

being sick with the flu

42

The navel is located in the ________ region of the abdominopelvic cavity.

umbilical

43

There is no physical structure that separates the abdominal cavity from the pelvic cavity.

True

44

In anatomical position, a person is assumed to be standing erect.

True

45

inter

means "within" "inside" or "between"

46

Endo

"within

47

Centr

center

48

exo

outside

49

cyto

cell

50

The process of bringing something into a cell is called

endocytosis

51

The button-like structure that holds homologous chromosomes together at their middles during cell division is called the

centromere

52

The process of sending something outside of a cell is called

exocytosis

53

The cellular material between the cell membrane and the nucleus is called

cytoplasm

54

The stage of the cellular lifecycle between divisions is called

interphase

55

The cells in our bodies are made up primarily of which four elements

carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen

56

Which organelle synthesizes proteins that are used in the cytoplasm

ribosomes that are free within the cytoplasm

57

What part of the plasma membrane is hydrophobic?

phospholipid "tails

58

Which of these organelles is responsible for forming secretory vesicles

Golgi apparatus

59

Rheumatoid arthritis is a disease in which acid hydrolase enzymes escape from leaky cellular organelles, causing pain and a burning sensation in joints. The leaky organelles from which these acid hydrolase enzymes escape are the __________.

lysosomes

60

The final processing of proteins "tagged" for secretion occurs in which cellular organelle?

Golgi apparatus

61

Part completeWhich of the following is the main component of the cell membrane

phospholipids

62

Which of the following is a characteristic of the cell membrane

semipermeable

63

Which of the following is not a major function of proteins in the cell membrane

forming the entire glycocalyx

64

What part of a cell membrane is usually in contact with the interstitial fluid

phosphate heads of phospholipids

65

A primary active transport process is one in which __________.

molecules move through transport proteins that have been activated by ATP

66

Some transport processes use transport proteins in the plasma membrane, but do not require ATP. This type of transport is known as

facilitated diffusion

67

The majority of water molecules moving across plasma membranes by osmosis do so via a process that is most similar to

facilitated diffusion

68

The sodium-potassium pump uses ATP to move sodium and potassium ions across the plasma membrane. This statement describes _____.

primary active transport

69

A vesicle fuses with the plasma membrane and releases its contents to the extracellular fluid. This statement describes

exocytosis

70

During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA duplication, or replication, take place

Interphase

71

When a double helix of DNA is replicated, two complete helices are formed. Together, these helices are called sister

chromatids

72

During which phase of mitosis do sister chromatids line up at the center of the cell

Metaphase

73

During which phase of mitosis do the sister chromatids move apart

Anaphase

74

During which phase of mitosis do nuclear envelopes and the nucleoli reappear

Telophase

75

During which phase of mitosis do the nuclear envelope and nucleoli disappear?

Prophase

76

What is the name of the process by which the cytoplasm divides in two

Cytokinesis

77

Which of the following best explains diffusion?

movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration

78

Which of the following is most likely to move through the cell membrane by facilitated diffusion

Na+

79

What is the basic difference between simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion across a cell membrane?

In facilitated diffusion, molecules only move with the aid of a protein in the membrane.

80

Which of the following is least likely to increase the rate of diffusion?

small concentration gradient

81

Which of the following is not required for osmosis to occur?

cellular energy

82

Which of the following solutions contains the most solute

hypertonic

83

In general, to maintain homeostasis the relationship between our intracellular and extracellular fluids should be which of the following?

isotonic to each other

84

If a person is severely dehydrated, their extracellular fluids will become hypertonic to the intracellular fluid. What do you predict will happen to the person’s cells?

The cells will lose water and shrink

85

Which of the following lists, in correct order, the phases of interphase?

G1, S, and G2

86

Which of the following lists, in correct order, the phases of mitosis?

prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

87

During which of the following phases does DNA replication occur?

Synthesis

88

During which of the following phases does chromatin condense and become chromosomes

prophase

89

A large amount of extracellular material is a characteristic of which type of tissue

connective tissue

90

Which type of muscle is characterized by the presence of striations and intercalated discs?

cardiac muscle

91

What is the significance of granulation tissue

It formed during tissue repair.

92

What type of tissue has cells that are tightly packed, sits on a basement membrane, is avascular, and is easily regenerated

epithelium

93

Describe the process of tissue repair, Phase 1:

inflammation, permeable capillaries bring in " repair" chemicals, clot forms and area is walled off

94

Describe the process of tissue repair, Phase 2:

Granulation, delicate pink tissue fills in the damaged area

95

Describe the process of tissue repair, Phase 3

Regeneration and fibrosis, formation of function tissue occurs

96

What happens when body cells are placed in a hypertonic solution?

Water leaves the cells and the cells shrink.

97

What process permits absorption of glucose into cells

facilitated diffusion

98

What transport process can create a concentration gradient for sodium across the plasma membrane

active transport

99

In which cell stage does DNA replicate

interphase

100

Which of the following molecules brings the appropriate amino acid to the ribosome during protein synthesis

transfer RNA

101

What process does water use to move across the plasma membrane?

osmosis

102

What process does a cell use to make an RNA copy of a segment of DNA?

transcription

103

Sometimes an abnormal cell mass can develop in the human body. It can take control of the cell cycle, and cell division can malfunction. Which of the following does NOT describe all neoplasms?

cancer

104

Some neoplasms are benign while others are malignant. Which of the following descriptions is true for a malignant neoplasm?

may become a killer due to relentless growth

105

Which type of tissue is NOT readily repaired if damaged?

tissues whose mature cells are amitotic

106

Which of the following statements is a component of the cell theory?

A cell is the smallest living unit

107

What are the three main parts of a generalized cell

Plasma membrane, nucleus, and cytoplasm

108

Identify the best description of the arrangement of the plasma membrane phospholipid layers.

The hydrophobic parts of the phospholipids line up in the interior of the membrane and hydrophilic parts are exposed on the inner and outer surfaces of the membrane

109

Which represents a correct function of plasma membrane proteins?

Transport.

110

Rough ER

protein synthesis.

111

People with asthma produce too much mucus, which can block the airways. What type of cell associated with the epithelium of the respiratory tract is responsible for making mucus?

Goblet cell

112

hallmark feature of epithelial tissues?

have an apical surface, basement membrane, cover body surfaces both inside and outside

113

Groups of cells that are similar in both structure and function are known as

tissues

114

The specific type of epithelial tissue found lining organs of the digestive system such as the small intestine is

simple columnar

115

A tissue constructed of a single layer of flattened cells is known as

simple squamous epithelium

116

Which type of tissue is situated in the lining of the urinary bladder and urethra where stretching occurs

transitional epithelium

117

The type of tissue that functions to protect, support, insulate, and cushion together body tissues are classified as

connective tissues

118

Tendons and ligaments are classified as

dense connective (regular fibrous) tissue

119

connective tissue is commonly called fat

Adipose

120

Which of the following is not classified as a connective tissue

Skeletal muscle

121

The major cell type of cartilage is the

chondrocyte

122

What forms the hard matrix of osseous tissue (bone)?

Calcium salts

123

Identify the type of connective tissue that is found in lymph nodes, the spleen, and bone marrow.

reticular connective tissue

124

The matrix of hyaline cartilage consists of abundant collagen fibers hidden in a rubbery matrix.

True

125

What characteristic is shared by both cardiac and smooth muscle tissue?

involuntary contractions

126

The type of muscle found in the walls of hollow organs, such as the stomach, and in the walls of blood vessels is

smooth muscle

127

Skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle cells are cells that move organs and body parts.

True

128

Which type of tissue is insulated, supported, and protected by neuroglia?

Nervous tissue

129

Irritability and conductivity are the two major functional characteristics of

nervous tissue

130

Which of the following tissues is constructed of many collagen fibers

scar tissue

131

Which type of tissue is most likely to repair itself if injured?

epithelial tissue

132

What is the first stage to occur during tissue repair (wound healing)

inflammation

133

nuc

center

134

poly

many

135

hydr

water

136

phil

attraction or loving

137

phob

fear or sensitivity to something

138

In a cell membrane, the polar heads of phospholipids are in contact with water-based solutions, meaning they are

hydrophilic

139

The central organelle of a cell is called the

nucleus

140

Many chemical reactions, called______ synthesis reactions, occur by removing water.

dehydration

141

In a cell membrane, the fatty acid tails of phospholipids are hidden inside the membrane away from water, meaning they are

hydrophobic

142

While a dipeptide has two amino acids, a_____ has many

polypeptide

143

Which of these is an example of kinetic energy?

skeletal muscles contracting as a person lifts weights

144

Which statement best describes energy?

it does not have mass or occupy space.

145

All matter consists of elements. The greatest part of living matter is organized using only four elements. Which of the following elements does NOT make up the bulk of living matter?

iron

146

What is the number of neutrons in an atom with atomic mass of 35, three energy levels, and 7 valence electrons?

18

147

What subatomic particle or particles have a mass of 1, a charge of +1, and are located in the nucleus of an atom

proton

148

Which of these statements best describes an element?

An element is composed of identical atoms.

149

What is the most accurate description of C6H12O6?

C6H12O6 is a compound.

150

Choose the best description for the term molecule.

two or more atoms combined chemically

151

A compound is defined as

a molecule composed of two or more elements

152

If an atom has 10 electrons in its valence shell, how will it interact with atoms of a different element

It will give away 2 valence electrons to other atoms.

153

What is an ion

an atom that has either gained or lost electron(s

154

When an ionic bond forms, which part(s) of the atoms are directly involved?

the outermost electrons

155

How do ions form ionic bonds

Ions of opposite electrical charges are attracted to each other to balance the charges.

156

Calcium’s atomic number is 20. It forms ions with 18 electrons. What is the electrical charge of a calcium ion?

+2

157

In a covalent bond

Atoms share one or more pairs of electrons.

158

Covalent bonds

involve the sharing of one to three pairs of electrons.

159

Which of the following is true of polar covalent bonds

The electrons are shared unequally

160

A molecule of water (H2O) is formed by what type of bond?

polar covalent bonds

161

What organic molecule provides an immediate source of chemical energy within all cells?

adenosine triphosphate

162

Which nitrogen-containing base is found only in RNA?

uracil

163

What occurs when acid is added to a solution with a pH of 7?

The pH drops below 7

164

What is the main type of lipid found in cellular membranes

phospholipids

165

carbohydrates

commonly used source of energy with the ratio 1 carbon, 2 hydrogen, 1 oxygen

166

lipids

not soluble in water, make up the majority of cell membrane structure, concentrated source of usable energy made up of hydrocarbon chains or rings

167

proteins

structural and biological catalyst macromolecules of amino acids with various functions, has different levels of folding

168

nucleic acids

genetic information comprising a sugar-phosphate backbone and complementary base pairing. ATP is a modified version

169

triglycerides

at least one fatty acid chain. Fatty acid chains can be saturated with hydrogens or unsaturated, 3 fatty acids attached to one glycerol molecule

170

phospholipids

charged "head" region with an uncharged "tail" region, bilayer forms selectively permeable cell membrane, fats that contain phosphate groups

171

steroids

composed of 4 interlocking carbon rings, most physiologically important example is cholesterol, fats that are the basis for some hormones,

172

Guanine always pairs with

cytosine

173

Besides replicating before cell division, the other fundamental role of DNA is

instructions to make protein

174

The sugar in DNA is ________, while the sugar in RNA is ________.

deoxyribose , ribose

175

n DNA, adenine pairs with ________but in RNA, adenine pairs with ___________.

Thymine, uracil

176

ATP is a modified nucleotide used for cellular energy that contains the sugar

ribose

177

What is/are the product(s) of a dehydration synthesis reaction that occurs between two subunits of a polymer

Two combined monomers and a water molecule

178

Select the options that are examples of disaccharides

Maltose, sucrose

179

Select the correct statement about proteins:

A protein is denatured when it loses its shape and is no longer functional.

180

The most abundant lipids in the body are triglycerides, phospholipids, and steroids.

Lipids are made mostly of carbon and hydrogen with a small amount of oxygen.

181

Which option contains the correct base pairing for building an RNA and DNA molecule?

DNA: A-T, C-G and RNA: A-U, C-G

182

In which category of organic molecules would you place compounds that catalyze chemical reactions?

proteins

183

The pH scale is based on

hydrogen ion concentration in solution

184

The brain and spinal cord are surrounded by water in cerebrospinal fluid. What purpose do you think this fluid serves in protecting these organs?

Cushioning

185

Blood is considered a weak base. Select the pH that best represents blood

pH 7.4

186

Enzymes are

biological catalysts

187

Keratin is a protein that provide toughness to skin and forms hair and nails. Due to its role in the body, it is best classified as

a structural protein

188

Gastric juices produced by the stomach are strongly acidic. Without the neutralizing effect of fluids from the pancreas, the stomach acids could be absorbed directly into the blood. What would be a likely outcome for blood pH if this happened?

Blood pH would become 6.9.

189

Electrolytes conduct electrical currents in solution.

true

190

At a pH of 7, the number of hydroxide ions exceeds the number of hydrogen ions.

false

191

What cells of the nervous system are responsible for anchoring neurons to their blood vessels and controlling the extracellular fluid concentrations of potassium and neurotransmitters

astrocytes

192

What part of a neuron receives signals and sends a message to the cell body?

dendrite

193

What is the first event of an action potential?

Sodium gates open and the membrane depolarizes

194

What ion depolarizes the membrane when it diffuses into the axon of a neuron?

sodium

195

CVA

brain damage due to a blocked blood supply, paralysis, numbness

196

Alzheimer's disease

progressive brain degenration

197

Both Alzheimer's disease & CVA

personality change, memory loss, disorientation & confusion, short attention span, language impairment

198

Usually, brain injury is slight in a

concussion

199

In a _________, the victim may be dizzy, "see stars," or lose consciousness briefly.

Concussion

200

Typically, little permanent brain damage occurs in a ?

concussion

201

A brain ________ is the result of marked tissue destruction

contusion

202

In a severe case, a _________results in a coma.

contusion

203

Which of these parts of the brain is correctly matched with its region?

thalamus; diencephalon

204

Which of the following conditions would result from damage to the cerebellum?

ataxia

205

The blockage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) outflow in the brain can cause accumulation of fluid, resulting in cranial enlargement in infants. This condition is called

hydrocephalus

206

In flaccid paralysis, muscles atrophy because they are not receiving neural stimulation. Damage to which specific part of the spinal cord would cause flaccid paralysis

ventral root

207

What part of the brain do we use when initiating skeletal muscle movement

primary motor area

208

What produces cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?

choroid plexus

209

cervical plexus

phrenic nerve, serves the diaphragm, shoulders and neck

210

brachial plexus

axillary and radial nerves, median & ulnar nerves, serves the thorax and upper appendages

211

lumbar plexus

femoral & obturator nerves, serves the lower abdomen, thighs, and hips

212

sacral plexus

serves the lower trunk & lower appendages, sciatic & gluteal nerves

213

What cranial nerve pair supplies many organs in the ventral body cavity

vagus nerves

214

Which of these is an effect of the parasympathetic nervous system?

increases peristalsis within the stomach and small intestines

215

Which of these is a sympathetic effect?

Blood vessels constrict

216

What could result if a spinal nerve is severely damaged?

loss of sensation and flaccid paralysis of the area served by the nerve

217

Which of the following can adversely affect brain development in the fetus?

alcohol

218

Select the supporting cells present in the peripheral nervous system.

Schwann cells, satellite cells

219

Select the option that correctly matches the type of neuroglia with its function

Satellite cells; surround and protect peripheral neuron cells bodies

220

How are neurons classified according to their function

Sensory, motor, and interneurons

221

What primarily determines the polarity of the cell membrane when the neuron is at rest

More potassium ions leak out of the cell than sodium ions leak into the cell

222

Depolarized

membrane is more positive inside than outside

223

central nervous system

CNS, brain and spinal cord, integrating and command centers

224

peripheral nervous system

PNS, Cranial and spinal nerves, communication lines with the body

225

dors

back

226

cerebr

brain

227

neur

nerve

228

itis

inflammation or disease

229

auto

self

230

The roots of the spinal cord on the posterior side are called

dorsal roots

231

are supporting cells of the nervous system.

neuroglia

232

An infection of the meninges is called

meningitis

233

The ________ nervous system is the part of the brain under involuntary, or automatic, control.

autonomic

234

The conscious part of the brain is the

cerebrum

235

Fibers that carry information from the skin, joints, and skeletal muscles to the central nervous system are

Both somatic and sensory

236

The ________ is a connective tissue wrapping around fascicles of neuron fibers.

perineurium

237

Which division of the peripheral nervous system activates skeletal muscles?

somatic nervous system

238

Saltatory conduction is a faster type of nerve impulse transmission that occurs along myelinated axons. Why is nerve impulse transmission faster in myelinated neurons?

The nerve impulse can jump from one node of Ranvier to the next, speeding the rate of nerve impulse transmission.

239

Ganglia are collections of

cell bodies

240

What are the two major functional properties of neurons

irritability and conductivity

241

What is the primary role of the interneuron (association neuron)

connect motor and sensory neurons in their pathways

242

Ms. Young feels deep pressure during a tooth extraction. Which type of sensory receptor detects this sensation?

lamellar corpuscle

243

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) does not flow through the

corpus callosum

244

What cells form the myelin sheaths around nerve fibers in the PNS?

Schwann cells

245

Which of these lists the components of a reflex arc in the correct sequence?

receptor; afferent neuron; control center; efferent neuron; effector

246

Why is white matter "white"

It contains a high concentration of myelin.

247

What is the most abundant glial cell in the central nervous system (CNS)?

astrocytes

248

Which of the following neurons is classified as a unipolar neuron?

sensory neuron

249

Which of the following neurons is classified as a unipolar neuron?

sensory neuron

250

The blood-brain barrier is effective against the passage of

metabolic waste such as urea

251

The spinal cord terminates by vertebra

L3

252

The primary motor area allows us to consciously move our skeletal muscles.

True

253

Wendy had a few alcoholic drinks, then found walking and maintaining her balance difficult. Which part of her brain was sedated by the alcohol?

cerebellum

254

The vital centers for the control of visceral activities such as heart rate, breathing, blood pressure, swallowing, and vomiting are located in the

medulla oblongata

255

A special group of neurons in the gray matter of the brain stem that plays a role in consciousness and the awake/sleep cycles is the

reticular activating system (RAS

256

Which meningeal layer is filled with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

Subarachnoid space

257

The hypothalamus is the "emotional-visceral" center of the brain and, thus, is an important part of the

limbic system

258

A stroke in the primary motor area has caused Don to lose control over his skeletal muscles on the right side of his body. What lobe of his brain was damaged?

frontal lobe

259

Which cranial nerve pairs are purely motor and control eye movement?

Oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens

260

How many pairs of spinal nerves emerge from the spinal cord

31

261

Which pair of cranial nerves is mismatched with its name

Cranial nerve II: oculomotor

262

Both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems operate with a chain of two motor neurons.

true

263

Which nerves dominate parasympathetic division activities?

Craniosacral nerves

264

In contrast to the somatic nervous system, the autonomic nervous system

has a chain of two motor neurons

265

The ventral rami of the spinal nerves form a complex network of nerves known as a

plexus

266

Myelinated fibers (tracts) form ________ matter while unmyelinated fibers form ________ matter.

white; gray

267

The part of the neuron that typically conducts nerve impulses away from the cell body is the

axon

268

Which cranial nerves control movement of the eyes

oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens