micro final Flashcards


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1

Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions are also commonly known as

allergic reactions

2

which of the following could result in hemolytic disease of the newborn?

Rh negative mother has a baby with an Rh positive father.

3

an agricultural worker experiences difficulty breathing which becomes progressively worse. tests show inflammation and damage of the lung tissue, but IgE antibodies and granulocytes are in the normal ranges. Which which disorder of the immune system are these signs and symptoms consistent?

type 3 (immune complex mediated) hypersensitivity

4

all autoimmune diseases have genetic cause

false

5

antibody binding to receptors on the thyroid may result in

graves disease

6

the tuberculin response is mediated by

memory t cells

7

type 1 diabetes is a(n)

autoimmune disease

8

the first and second lines of defense against microbial invasion are part of

innate immunity

9

which of the following cells increase in number during an infection with parasitic worms?

eosinophils

10

which of the following mucous membranes has cilia to aid in shedding?

lower respiratory system

11

which of the following is the best definition of "microbial antagonism"

The presence of normal microbiota that protect the body by competing with pathogens in a variety of ways to prevent pathogens from invading the body

12

which of the following statements about eosinophil function is correct?

they attach to the surface of parasitic helminths and make toxins that kill the parasite

13

the majority of mature, self tolerant lymphocytes are found in

the MALT

14

the white blood cells primarily responsible for adaptive immunity are

b lymphocytes and t lymphocytes

15

the type of immunoglobulin illustrated in the diagram below

IgM

16

cell-mediated immunity is a function of

t lymphocytes

17

a sick child may have influenza or RSV these virus infections have different treatment options, so the physician requests antibody titer tests. the results are as follows: anti-influenza antibodies are primarily IgM, and anti-RSV antibodies are all IgA and IgG. which of the following is the most appropriate interpretation?

The child currently has influenza and has previously been exposed to RSV.

18

which of the following is the result when a CTL interacts with a virally infected cell?

the cell undergoes apoptosis

19

immature b lymphocytes undergo clonal deletion in the bone marrow.

true

20

CTLs use the CD95 molecule to recognize their epitope

false

21

t lymphocytes mature in the

thymus

22

proteins produced by the innate immune response to fight virus infection are

interferons

23

some pathogens produce toxins which function as ________ to cause fever

pyrogens

24

the first true vaccine provided immunity to

smallpox

25

the assay shown in figure 17.1 is used for what?

detecting antibodies against a complex mix of antigens

26

because attenuated live vaccines contain viruses that are less virulent, many booster vaccines must be given to produce an effective immune response

false

27

IgE antibodies are best described as

cause of basophil and eosinophil

28

an indirect fluorescent antibody test detects

antibodies specific to anitobodies

29

the role of the interleukins is

signaling between leukocytes

30

the phenomenon known as chemotaxis is defined as

movement of cell towards and away one

31

HIV causes acquired immunodeficiency by infected

helper t cells

32

infection with influenza virus is commonly diagnosed using

both immunochromatogtaphic one

33

a hemagglutination test is useful for

blood typing

34

graft rejection can be reduced by

preventing cell proliferation

35

antigen antibody complexes trapped in tissues and triggering complement activation or mast cell degranulation are a characteristic of

type 3 hypersensitivity

36

graft rejection can be treated by preventing t cell responses with

cyclosporine

37

compare and contrast the structure and components of DNA and RNA in prokaryotes

DNA: double stranded, circular shape, deoxyribonucleotides,

RNA: single stranded, ribonucleotides and mRNA, rRNA and tRNA

38

describe how DNA is packaged in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes

prokaryotes: circular chromosomes located in the nucleoid region

eukaryotes: has chromatin - packaged with histone proteins in that structure

39

how does the genotype of a bacterium determine its phenotype?

through the process of gene expression involves synthesis of mRNA carrying genetic material into the ribosome, used as a template to synthesize a polypeptide

40

draw and label bacterial growth curve

lag (adapt to nutrients, dna synthesis), stationary (stagnant in number), growth (waste build up), death (nutrients are consumed)

41

explain quorum sensing and describe how it related to biofilm formation

bacteria uses quorum sensing to coordinate the production of biofilm

42

why should cardiac nurses and respiratory therapists care about biofilms

because they have suppressed Immune Systems and if you have biofilms they will get an infection

43

what is the main product of the light dependent reactions of photosynthesis

ATP

44

What are plasmids?

extra chromosomal DNA in prokaryotes that replicate independently

45

what is the difference between missense and nonsense mutations?

missense is one letter change to change and nonsense is a stop codon

46

which technique would be useful for locating a particular gene in living cells?

FISH (Fluorescence in situ hybridization) - specialized locator

47

which of the following would not be a potential medical application of recombinant DNA tech?

gene library

48

which technique would be useful in diagnosing an infection ?

DNA microarray

49

which of these is not considered "biotech": baking bread, genetically modified vegetable, using a microbe to make human insulin?

all of them

50

which group of bacteria do the pathogenic species of treponema and borrelia belong to?

spirochates

51

of the genera agrobacterium, which causes human disease and is transmitted by arthropod vectors?

Rickettsia

52

what is a potential role of methanogens in global warming?

methanogens produce methane, which traps more heat than carbon dioxide and may contribute to global warming

53

in which of these ways do archaea differ from bacteria?

- different rRNA sequences
- archaea cell walls do not have peptidoglycan
- all archaea have unique lipids that are linked by ether rather than ester linkages

54

what type of arrangement occurs when bacilli divide by snapping division?

palisades and V-shapes.

55

what type of microbes have a cell wall that consists mostly of peptidoglycan?

gram positive bacteria

56

label the reagents and steps of PCR:

1. denaturation (92-94 degrees)

2. priming (60 degrees)

3. extension (72 degrees)

4. repeat

57

explain the significance of endospores:

Endospores are highly resistant to
heat, which can cause a good deal of harm

58

bdellovibrios are intracellular parasites of

bacteria

59

the reduction of nitrogen gas to ammonia is called nitrogen

fixation

60

small RNAs that bind to an mRNA and alter its expression are known as ____ RNAs

antisense

61

set of clones representing the entire genome of an organism is known as gene

library

62

mRNA

carries genetic material

63

rRNA

reading the order of amino acids and linking amino acids together

64

tRNA

brings amino acids to ribosome during protein synthesis

65

introns

non coding of the gene

66

exons

coding of the gene

67

the technique called ______ blotting: uses probes to identify specific DNA fragments that have been separated by electrophoresis

southern

68

a feature of both restriction enzymes and CRISPR systems is the recognition of

palindromes

69

gene therapy for human genetic diseases has not been successful yet

false

70

reverse transcriptase synthesizes a dna molecule from an RNA template

true

71

the goals of recombinant DNA technology include production of new organisms with useful combinations of traits

true

72

restriction enzymes are useful only on synthetic DNA molecules

false

73

under ideal conditions, the number of DNA molecules produced during PCR increases exponentially

true

74

sticky end fragments generated by EcoRI will hydrogen bond to any other sticky end sequence

false

75

the majority of prokaryotes are capable of forming endospores

false

76

when an endospore germinates, it gives rise to two daughter cells called vegetative cells

false

77

various species of streptomyces are important sources of antibodies

true

78

halophiles grow equally well in the presence or absence of high salt concentrations

false

79

cocci which divide in the same plane and remain attached are streptocci

true

80

bacteria in the genus cytophaga are capable of digesting a wide range of complex are important for degrading raw sewage

true