front 1 Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions are also commonly known as | back 1 allergic reactions |
front 2 which of the following could result in hemolytic disease of the newborn? | back 2 Rh negative mother has a baby with an Rh positive father. |
front 3 an agricultural worker experiences difficulty breathing which becomes progressively worse. tests show inflammation and damage of the lung tissue, but IgE antibodies and granulocytes are in the normal ranges. Which which disorder of the immune system are these signs and symptoms consistent? | back 3 type 3 (immune complex mediated) hypersensitivity |
front 4 all autoimmune diseases have genetic cause | back 4 false |
front 5 antibody binding to receptors on the thyroid may result in | back 5 graves disease |
front 6 the tuberculin response is mediated by | back 6 memory t cells |
front 7 type 1 diabetes is a(n) | back 7 autoimmune disease |
front 8 the first and second lines of defense against microbial invasion are part of | back 8 innate immunity |
front 9 which of the following cells increase in number during an infection with parasitic worms? | back 9 eosinophils |
front 10 which of the following mucous membranes has cilia to aid in shedding? | back 10 lower respiratory system |
front 11 which of the following is the best definition of "microbial antagonism" | back 11 The presence of normal microbiota that protect the body by competing with pathogens in a variety of ways to prevent pathogens from invading the body |
front 12 which of the following statements about eosinophil function is correct? | back 12 they attach to the surface of parasitic helminths and make toxins that kill the parasite |
front 13 the majority of mature, self tolerant lymphocytes are found in | back 13 the MALT |
front 14 the white blood cells primarily responsible for adaptive immunity are | back 14 b lymphocytes and t lymphocytes |
front 15 the type of immunoglobulin illustrated in the diagram below | back 15 IgM |
front 16 cell-mediated immunity is a function of | back 16 t lymphocytes |
front 17 a sick child may have influenza or RSV these virus infections have different treatment options, so the physician requests antibody titer tests. the results are as follows: anti-influenza antibodies are primarily IgM, and anti-RSV antibodies are all IgA and IgG. which of the following is the most appropriate interpretation? | back 17 The child currently has influenza and has previously been exposed to RSV. |
front 18 which of the following is the result when a CTL interacts with a virally infected cell? | back 18 the cell undergoes apoptosis |
front 19 immature b lymphocytes undergo clonal deletion in the bone marrow. | back 19 true |
front 20 CTLs use the CD95 molecule to recognize their epitope | back 20 false |
front 21 t lymphocytes mature in the | back 21 thymus |
front 22 proteins produced by the innate immune response to fight virus infection are | back 22 interferons |
front 23 some pathogens produce toxins which function as ________ to cause fever | back 23 pyrogens |
front 24 the first true vaccine provided immunity to | back 24 smallpox |
front 25 the assay shown in figure 17.1 is used for what? | back 25 detecting antibodies against a complex mix of antigens |
front 26 because attenuated live vaccines contain viruses that are less virulent, many booster vaccines must be given to produce an effective immune response | back 26 false |
front 27 IgE antibodies are best described as | back 27 cause of basophil and eosinophil |
front 28 an indirect fluorescent antibody test detects | back 28 antibodies specific to anitobodies |
front 29 the role of the interleukins is | back 29 signaling between leukocytes |
front 30 the phenomenon known as chemotaxis is defined as | back 30 movement of cell towards and away one |
front 31 HIV causes acquired immunodeficiency by infected | back 31 helper t cells |
front 32 infection with influenza virus is commonly diagnosed using | back 32 both immunochromatogtaphic one |
front 33 a hemagglutination test is useful for | back 33 blood typing |
front 34 graft rejection can be reduced by | back 34 preventing cell proliferation |
front 35 antigen antibody complexes trapped in tissues and triggering complement activation or mast cell degranulation are a characteristic of | back 35 type 3 hypersensitivity |
front 36 graft rejection can be treated by preventing t cell responses with | back 36 cyclosporine |
front 37 compare and contrast the structure and components of DNA and RNA in prokaryotes | back 37 DNA: double stranded, circular shape, deoxyribonucleotides, RNA: single stranded, ribonucleotides and mRNA, rRNA and tRNA |
front 38 describe how DNA is packaged in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes | back 38 prokaryotes: circular chromosomes located in the nucleoid region eukaryotes: has chromatin - packaged with histone proteins in that structure |
front 39 how does the genotype of a bacterium determine its phenotype? | back 39 through the process of gene expression involves synthesis of mRNA carrying genetic material into the ribosome, used as a template to synthesize a polypeptide |
front 40 draw and label bacterial growth curve | back 40 lag (adapt to nutrients, dna synthesis), stationary (stagnant in number), growth (waste build up), death (nutrients are consumed) |
front 41 explain quorum sensing and describe how it related to biofilm formation | back 41 bacteria uses quorum sensing to coordinate the production of biofilm |
front 42 why should cardiac nurses and respiratory therapists care about biofilms | back 42 because they have suppressed Immune Systems and if you have biofilms they will get an infection |
front 43 what is the main product of the light dependent reactions of photosynthesis | back 43 ATP |
front 44 What are plasmids? | back 44 extra chromosomal DNA in prokaryotes that replicate independently |
front 45 what is the difference between missense and nonsense mutations? | back 45 missense is one letter change to change and nonsense is a stop codon |
front 46 which technique would be useful for locating a particular gene in living cells? | back 46 FISH (Fluorescence in situ hybridization) - specialized locator |
front 47 which of the following would not be a potential medical application of recombinant DNA tech? | back 47 gene library |
front 48 which technique would be useful in diagnosing an infection ? | back 48 DNA microarray |
front 49 which of these is not considered "biotech": baking bread, genetically modified vegetable, using a microbe to make human insulin? | back 49 all of them |
front 50 which group of bacteria do the pathogenic species of treponema and borrelia belong to? | back 50 spirochates |
front 51 of the genera agrobacterium, which causes human disease and is transmitted by arthropod vectors? | back 51 Rickettsia |
front 52 what is a potential role of methanogens in global warming? | back 52 methanogens produce methane, which traps more heat than carbon dioxide and may contribute to global warming |
front 53 in which of these ways do archaea differ from bacteria? | back 53 - different rRNA sequences |
front 54 what type of arrangement occurs when bacilli divide by snapping division? | back 54 palisades and V-shapes. |
front 55 what type of microbes have a cell wall that consists mostly of peptidoglycan? | back 55 gram positive bacteria |
front 56 label the reagents and steps of PCR: | back 56 1. denaturation (92-94 degrees) 2. priming (60 degrees) 3. extension (72 degrees) 4. repeat |
front 57 explain the significance of endospores: | back 57 Endospores are highly resistant to |
front 58 bdellovibrios are intracellular parasites of | back 58 bacteria |
front 59 the reduction of nitrogen gas to ammonia is called nitrogen | back 59 fixation |
front 60 small RNAs that bind to an mRNA and alter its expression are known as ____ RNAs | back 60 antisense |
front 61 set of clones representing the entire genome of an organism is known as gene | back 61 library |
front 62 mRNA | back 62 carries genetic material |
front 63 rRNA | back 63 reading the order of amino acids and linking amino acids together |
front 64 tRNA | back 64 brings amino acids to ribosome during protein synthesis |
front 65 introns | back 65 non coding of the gene |
front 66 exons | back 66 coding of the gene |
front 67 the technique called ______ blotting: uses probes to identify specific DNA fragments that have been separated by electrophoresis | back 67 southern |
front 68 a feature of both restriction enzymes and CRISPR systems is the recognition of | back 68 palindromes |
front 69 gene therapy for human genetic diseases has not been successful yet | back 69 false |
front 70 reverse transcriptase synthesizes a dna molecule from an RNA template | back 70 true |
front 71 the goals of recombinant DNA technology include production of new organisms with useful combinations of traits | back 71 true |
front 72 restriction enzymes are useful only on synthetic DNA molecules | back 72 false |
front 73 under ideal conditions, the number of DNA molecules produced during PCR increases exponentially | back 73 true |
front 74 sticky end fragments generated by EcoRI will hydrogen bond to any other sticky end sequence | back 74 false |
front 75 the majority of prokaryotes are capable of forming endospores | back 75 false |
front 76 when an endospore germinates, it gives rise to two daughter cells called vegetative cells | back 76 false |
front 77 various species of streptomyces are important sources of antibodies | back 77 true |
front 78 halophiles grow equally well in the presence or absence of high salt concentrations | back 78 false |
front 79 cocci which divide in the same plane and remain attached are streptocci | back 79 true |
front 80 bacteria in the genus cytophaga are capable of digesting a wide range of complex are important for degrading raw sewage | back 80 true |