Lab Exercises: 7-11 Flashcards


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1

Microbes that require oxygen to grow but at much lower levels than 20%

Microaerophile

2

Microbes that can only grow when oxygen is not present

Obligate anaerobe

3

Microbes that can only grow when oxygen is present

Obligate aerobe

4

Microbes that can grow in oxygen but do not require oxygen for energy metabolism

Aerotolerant anaerobe

5

Microbes that are flexible and can grow with or without oxygen

Facultative anaerobe

6

Which bacteria have optimal growth between -5 to 15°C?

Psychrophile

7

Which bacteria have optimal growth between 45° to 75°C?

Thermophile

8

Which bacteria have optimal growth between 25° to 45°C?

Mesophile

9

Which bacteria have optimal growth above 75°C?

Hyperthermophile

10

A bacterium that grows at a pH of 10

Alkaliphile

11

A bacterium that grows at a pH of 4

Acidophile

12

A bacterium that grows at a pH of 7

Neutrophile

13

These microbes can grow in excessive sugar concentrations

Osmophile

14

These microbes require a high concentration of sodium chloride in order to grow

Obligate halophile

15

These microbes can grow in moderate concentration of sodium chloride

Halotolerant

16

A cell that has more solutes than the surrounding environment is

Hypertonic

17

A cell that has fewer solutes than the surrounding environment is

Hypotonic

18

Water flows (into/out of) a cell that is hypotonic

Out of

19

Water flows (into/out of) a cell that is hypertonic

Into

20

When the temperature increases past the optimal, the hydrogen bonding in the RNA breaks down and the proteins denature in this structure

Ribsosome

21

When the temperature increases past the optimal, lipids can be destroyed affecting which structure?

Cell membrane

22

Which temperature results in white colonies of Serratia?

37°C

23

When the temperature decreases past the optimal, lipids can freeze affecting which strcuture?

Cell membrane

24

When the temperature decreases past the optimal, the activity of this molecule will slow down

Enzyme

25

When the temperature increases past the optimal, these denature

Enzyme

26

Which temperature results in pinkish/red colonies of Serratia?

25°C

27

Based on the absorbance readings, which temperature does Serratia grow best at?

37°C

28

Based on the absorbance readings, which temperature does E. coli grow best at?

37°C

29

Based on the absorbance readings, which temperature does GST grow best at?

55°C

30

Based on the absorbance readings, which temperature does Serratia grow the worst at?

55°C

31

Based on the absorbance readings, which temperature, which temperature does E. coli grow the worst at?

55°C

32

Based on the absorbance readings, which temperature does GST grow the worst at?

37°C

33

Based on the absorbance readings, which pH does E. coli grow best at?

7

34

Based on the absorbance readings, which pH does S. epidermidis grow best at?

5

35

Based on the absorbance readings, which pH does does A. faecalis grow best at?

7

36

Based on the absorbance readings, which pH does E. coli grow the worst at?

3

37

Based on the absorbance readings, which pH does S. epidermidis grow the worst at?

3

38

Based on the absorbance readings, which pH does A. faecalis grow the worst at?

3

39

Antivirals are compounds that kill or inhibit

Viruses

40

Antifungals are compounds that kill or inhibit

Fungi

41

Antibiotics are compounds that kill or inhibit

Bacteria

42

Antiparasitics are compounds that kill or inhibit

Animals

43

Chemical agents that are applied to inanimate objects to kill microbes are

Disinfectants

44

Substances that kill or inhibit microorganisms but are gentle enough to apply to tissue are

Antiseptics

45

What antibiotics target the cell wall of bacteria?

- Penicillin

- Ampicillin

- Bacitracin

46

Which antibiotics target the DNA and RNA synthesis of bacteria?

- Fluoroquinolones

- Rifamycins

47

Which antibiotics target the protein synthesis of bacteria?

- Chloramphenicol

- Streptomycin

- Tetracycline

48
card image

Which antibiotic is E. coli completely resistant to?

- Bacitracin

- Nasitracon

- Optochin

- Penicillin

- Vancomycin

49
card image

Which antibiotic is S. aureus completely resistant to?

Optochin

50
card image

Indicate five antibiotics that E. coli is highly susceptible to.

- Streptomycin

- Gentamycin

- Erythomycin

- Trimethoprim

- Tetracycline

51
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Indicate four antibiotics that S. aureus is mildly resistant to.

- Streptomycin

- Neomycin

- Vancomycin

- Bacitracin

52

Which antibiotic would you not use to treat an infection of E. coli or S. aureus

Optochin

53

Which two antibiotics would be better to treat both E. coli and S. aureus infections?

- Trimethoprim

- Tetracycline

54

Fermentation is a form of energy metabolism where the final electron acceptor is

Organic

55

Anaerobic respiration is a form of energy metabolism where the final electron acceptor is

Inorganic

56

Aerobic respiration is a form of energy metabolism where the final electron acceptor is

Oxygen

57

Which molecule is hydrolyzed by proteases?

Casein

58

Which molecule is hydrolyzed by amylase?

Starch

59

Which molecule is hydrolyzed by lipases?

Fat

60

Which molecule is deaminated into phenylpyruvic acid and ammonia?

Phenylalanine

61

Which molecule is degraded in indole, ammonia, and pyruvic acid?

Tryptophan

62

Which molecule splits in carbon dioxide and ammonia when it's hydrolyzed?

Urea

63

The mixed acid fermentation test uses which reagent to indicate a positive reaction?

Urea

64

Which enzyme is tested for with hydrogen peroxide?

Catalase

65

The 2,3-butanediol fermentation test uses which reagent to indicate a positive reaction?

Barritt

66

Which enzyme is tested for in an oxidation test?

Oxidase

67

Name one of the tests that must be completed under anaerobic conditions in the API20E.

LDC

68

Name one of the tests that examines carbon utilization in the API20E.

MAN

69

Name one of the tests that examines nitrogen utilization in the API20E.

URE

70

Name one of the tests that examines protein utilization in the API20E.

IND

71
card image

For the starch hydrolysis test, the image shows a ____ response.

Positive

72
card image

For the starch hydrolysis test, the image shows a ____ response.

Negative

73
card image

For the casein hydrolysis test, the image shoes a ____ response.

Positive

74
card image

For the casein hydrolysis test, the image shoes a ____ response.

Negative

75
card image

For the fat hydrolysis test, the image shows a ____ response.

Negative

76
card image

For the fat hydrolysis test, the image shows a ____ response.

Positive

77
card image

For the tryptophan hydrolysis test, the image shows a ____ response.

Positive

78
card image

For the tryptophan hydrolysis test, the image shows a ____ response.

Negative

79
card image

For the urea hydrolysis test, the image shows a ____ response.

Negative

80
card image

For the urea hydrolysis test, the image shows a ____ response.

Positive

81
card image

For the phenylalanine deamination test, the image shows a ____ response.

Negative

82
card image

For the phenylalanine deamination test, the image shows a ____ response.

Positive

83

Which of the following is the most widely used molecular tool in biology?

PCR

84

Which of the following is the most widely used bioinformatic tool in biology?

BLAST

85

Which genetic locus is typically used to identify bacteria and archaea?

16s rRNA

86

Which genetic loci is typically used to identify fungi and other eukaryotes?

- ITS

- CO1

87

In DNA extraction the first step is to ____

Break the cells open to expose the DNA

88

In DNA extraction the second step is to ____

Remove the lipids and proteins

89

In DNA extraction the third step is to ____

Precipitate the DNA with alcohol

90

Which reagent of PCR stabilizes the molecular reactions?

Buffer

91

Which reagent of PCR creates covalent bonds to make the new DNA strand?

Taq polymerase

92

Which reagent of PCR hybridizes with the DNA at the location where amplification will occur?

Primers

93

Which reagent of PCR is the building blocks of the new DNA?

dNTPs

94

Which type of PCR is used to quantify how much RNA is being produced?

Reverse transcriptase PCR

95

Which type of PCR is used to amplify a large amount of a DNA target and then sequenced?

Conventional PCR

96

Which type of PCR is used as a diagnostic to distinguish between different microbes?

Real-time PCR

97

Which phase of PCR allows for the primases to form hydrogen bonds with the single stranded DNA?

Annealing

98

Which phase of PCR raises the temperature to break the DNA into single strands?

Denaturation

99

Which phase of PCR uses the Taq polymerase to add complementary nucleotides to the single strand of DNA?

Extention

100

Which phase of PCR has an optimal temperature at 72°C?

Extension

101

Which phase of PCR has an optimal temperature at 95°C?

Denaturation

102

Which phase of PCR has an optimal temperature at 50-60°C?

Annealing

103

This BLAST result is used as a comparison between searches.

Max or total score

104

This BLAST result illustrates how much of the inputted sequence is used in the alignment.

Percent query coverage

105

This BLAST result is the number of alignments that occur by chance.

Expect value

106

This BLAST result illustrates how well the inputted sequence matches to sequences in the databse.

Percent similarity

107

Mutations create variation in which microbial organisms?

- Bacteria

- Archaea

- Eukaryotes

108

Horizontal gene transfer creates variation in which microbial organisms?

- Bacteria

- Archaea

109

Crossing over and independent assortment create variation in which microbial organisms?

Eukaryotes

110

This type of mutation changes the DNA and changes the protein by shortening or truncating it.

Nonsense

111

This type of mutation changes the DNA but does not change the protein.

Silent

112

This type of mutation changes the DNA and the protein by adding or subtracting DNA nucleotides.

Indel

113

The synonymous substitution rate is used to determine the mutation rate. Which type of mutation results in synonymous substitutions?

Silent

114

This type of mutation changes the DNA and changes the protein by replacing one amino acid with another.

Missense

115

This type of mutation causes frameshifts.

Indel

116

This form of bacterial horizontal gene transfer typically occurs between bacteria of the same species or more directly related.

Transformation

117

This form of bacterial horizontal gene transfer indicates direct contact between two cells.

Conjugation

118

This form of bacterial horizontal gene transfer requires a dead bacterial cell that leaves behind DNA.

Transformation

119

This form of bacterial horizontal gene transfer involves naked DNA.

Transformation

120

This form of bacterial horizontal gene transfer requires a lysed bacterial cell.

Transuction

121

This form of bacterial horizontal gene transfer includes indirect contact between two cells and any gene can be transferred between the cells via a virus.

Generalized transduction.

122

This form of bacterial horizontal gene transfer involves a virus.

Transduction

123

This form of bacterial horizontal gene transfer typically occurs between bacteria of the same strain within a species.

Transduction

124

This form of bacterial horizontal gene transfer involves a plasmid.

Conjugation

125

This form of bacterial horizontal gene transfer includes indirect contact between two cells and only specific genes can be transferred between the cells via a virus.

Specialized transduction

126

This form of bacterial horizontal gene transfer requires two living bacterial cells.

Conjugation

127

This form of bacterial horizontal gene transfer typically occurs between bacteria with the same cell wall type (Gram positive or Gram negative).

Conjugation

128

Growth on all the plates indicates which gene is on the plasmid?

Streptomycin resistance gene

129

Growth on all the plates except the one with nalidixic acid (LB + nal) indicates which gene is on the plasmid?

Ampicillin resistance gene

130

Growth on all the plates except the two with ampicillin (LB + amp, LB + amp + str) indicates which gene is on the plasmid?

Nalidixic acid resistance gene