Print Options

Card layout: ?

← Back to notecard set|Easy Notecards home page

Instructions for Side by Side Printing
  1. Print the notecards
  2. Fold each page in half along the solid vertical line
  3. Cut out the notecards by cutting along each horizontal dotted line
  4. Optional: Glue, tape or staple the ends of each notecard together
  1. Verify Front of pages is selected for Viewing and print the front of the notecards
  2. Select Back of pages for Viewing and print the back of the notecards
    NOTE: Since the back of the pages are printed in reverse order (last page is printed first), keep the pages in the same order as they were after Step 1. Also, be sure to feed the pages in the same direction as you did in Step 1.
  3. Cut out the notecards by cutting along each horizontal and vertical dotted line
To print: Ctrl+PPrint as a list

130 notecards = 33 pages (4 cards per page)

Viewing:

Lab Exercises: 7-11

front 1

Microbes that require oxygen to grow but at much lower levels than 20%

back 1

Microaerophile

front 2

Microbes that can only grow when oxygen is not present

back 2

Obligate anaerobe

front 3

Microbes that can only grow when oxygen is present

back 3

Obligate aerobe

front 4

Microbes that can grow in oxygen but do not require oxygen for energy metabolism

back 4

Aerotolerant anaerobe

front 5

Microbes that are flexible and can grow with or without oxygen

back 5

Facultative anaerobe

front 6

Which bacteria have optimal growth between -5 to 15°C?

back 6

Psychrophile

front 7

Which bacteria have optimal growth between 45° to 75°C?

back 7

Thermophile

front 8

Which bacteria have optimal growth between 25° to 45°C?

back 8

Mesophile

front 9

Which bacteria have optimal growth above 75°C?

back 9

Hyperthermophile

front 10

A bacterium that grows at a pH of 10

back 10

Alkaliphile

front 11

A bacterium that grows at a pH of 4

back 11

Acidophile

front 12

A bacterium that grows at a pH of 7

back 12

Neutrophile

front 13

These microbes can grow in excessive sugar concentrations

back 13

Osmophile

front 14

These microbes require a high concentration of sodium chloride in order to grow

back 14

Obligate halophile

front 15

These microbes can grow in moderate concentration of sodium chloride

back 15

Halotolerant

front 16

A cell that has more solutes than the surrounding environment is

back 16

Hypertonic

front 17

A cell that has fewer solutes than the surrounding environment is

back 17

Hypotonic

front 18

Water flows (into/out of) a cell that is hypotonic

back 18

Out of

front 19

Water flows (into/out of) a cell that is hypertonic

back 19

Into

front 20

When the temperature increases past the optimal, the hydrogen bonding in the RNA breaks down and the proteins denature in this structure

back 20

Ribsosome

front 21

When the temperature increases past the optimal, lipids can be destroyed affecting which structure?

back 21

Cell membrane

front 22

Which temperature results in white colonies of Serratia?

back 22

37°C

front 23

When the temperature decreases past the optimal, lipids can freeze affecting which strcuture?

back 23

Cell membrane

front 24

When the temperature decreases past the optimal, the activity of this molecule will slow down

back 24

Enzyme

front 25

When the temperature increases past the optimal, these denature

back 25

Enzyme

front 26

Which temperature results in pinkish/red colonies of Serratia?

back 26

25°C

front 27

Based on the absorbance readings, which temperature does Serratia grow best at?

back 27

37°C

front 28

Based on the absorbance readings, which temperature does E. coli grow best at?

back 28

37°C

front 29

Based on the absorbance readings, which temperature does GST grow best at?

back 29

55°C

front 30

Based on the absorbance readings, which temperature does Serratia grow the worst at?

back 30

55°C

front 31

Based on the absorbance readings, which temperature, which temperature does E. coli grow the worst at?

back 31

55°C

front 32

Based on the absorbance readings, which temperature does GST grow the worst at?

back 32

37°C

front 33

Based on the absorbance readings, which pH does E. coli grow best at?

back 33

7

front 34

Based on the absorbance readings, which pH does S. epidermidis grow best at?

back 34

5

front 35

Based on the absorbance readings, which pH does does A. faecalis grow best at?

back 35

7

front 36

Based on the absorbance readings, which pH does E. coli grow the worst at?

back 36

3

front 37

Based on the absorbance readings, which pH does S. epidermidis grow the worst at?

back 37

3

front 38

Based on the absorbance readings, which pH does A. faecalis grow the worst at?

back 38

3

front 39

Antivirals are compounds that kill or inhibit

back 39

Viruses

front 40

Antifungals are compounds that kill or inhibit

back 40

Fungi

front 41

Antibiotics are compounds that kill or inhibit

back 41

Bacteria

front 42

Antiparasitics are compounds that kill or inhibit

back 42

Animals

front 43

Chemical agents that are applied to inanimate objects to kill microbes are

back 43

Disinfectants

front 44

Substances that kill or inhibit microorganisms but are gentle enough to apply to tissue are

back 44

Antiseptics

front 45

What antibiotics target the cell wall of bacteria?

back 45

- Penicillin

- Ampicillin

- Bacitracin

front 46

Which antibiotics target the DNA and RNA synthesis of bacteria?

back 46

- Fluoroquinolones

- Rifamycins

front 47

Which antibiotics target the protein synthesis of bacteria?

back 47

- Chloramphenicol

- Streptomycin

- Tetracycline

front 48

Which antibiotic is E. coli completely resistant to?

back 48

- Bacitracin

- Nasitracon

- Optochin

- Penicillin

- Vancomycin

front 49

Which antibiotic is S. aureus completely resistant to?

back 49

Optochin

front 50

Indicate five antibiotics that E. coli is highly susceptible to.

back 50

- Streptomycin

- Gentamycin

- Erythomycin

- Trimethoprim

- Tetracycline

front 51

Indicate four antibiotics that S. aureus is mildly resistant to.

back 51

- Streptomycin

- Neomycin

- Vancomycin

- Bacitracin

front 52

Which antibiotic would you not use to treat an infection of E. coli or S. aureus

back 52

Optochin

front 53

Which two antibiotics would be better to treat both E. coli and S. aureus infections?

back 53

- Trimethoprim

- Tetracycline

front 54

Fermentation is a form of energy metabolism where the final electron acceptor is

back 54

Organic

front 55

Anaerobic respiration is a form of energy metabolism where the final electron acceptor is

back 55

Inorganic

front 56

Aerobic respiration is a form of energy metabolism where the final electron acceptor is

back 56

Oxygen

front 57

Which molecule is hydrolyzed by proteases?

back 57

Casein

front 58

Which molecule is hydrolyzed by amylase?

back 58

Starch

front 59

Which molecule is hydrolyzed by lipases?

back 59

Fat

front 60

Which molecule is deaminated into phenylpyruvic acid and ammonia?

back 60

Phenylalanine

front 61

Which molecule is degraded in indole, ammonia, and pyruvic acid?

back 61

Tryptophan

front 62

Which molecule splits in carbon dioxide and ammonia when it's hydrolyzed?

back 62

Urea

front 63

The mixed acid fermentation test uses which reagent to indicate a positive reaction?

back 63

Urea

front 64

Which enzyme is tested for with hydrogen peroxide?

back 64

Catalase

front 65

The 2,3-butanediol fermentation test uses which reagent to indicate a positive reaction?

back 65

Barritt

front 66

Which enzyme is tested for in an oxidation test?

back 66

Oxidase

front 67

Name one of the tests that must be completed under anaerobic conditions in the API20E.

back 67

LDC

front 68

Name one of the tests that examines carbon utilization in the API20E.

back 68

MAN

front 69

Name one of the tests that examines nitrogen utilization in the API20E.

back 69

URE

front 70

Name one of the tests that examines protein utilization in the API20E.

back 70

IND

front 71

For the starch hydrolysis test, the image shows a ____ response.

back 71

Positive

front 72

For the starch hydrolysis test, the image shows a ____ response.

back 72

Negative

front 73

For the casein hydrolysis test, the image shoes a ____ response.

back 73

Positive

front 74

For the casein hydrolysis test, the image shoes a ____ response.

back 74

Negative

front 75

For the fat hydrolysis test, the image shows a ____ response.

back 75

Negative

front 76

For the fat hydrolysis test, the image shows a ____ response.

back 76

Positive

front 77

For the tryptophan hydrolysis test, the image shows a ____ response.

back 77

Positive

front 78

For the tryptophan hydrolysis test, the image shows a ____ response.

back 78

Negative

front 79

For the urea hydrolysis test, the image shows a ____ response.

back 79

Negative

front 80

For the urea hydrolysis test, the image shows a ____ response.

back 80

Positive

front 81

For the phenylalanine deamination test, the image shows a ____ response.

back 81

Negative

front 82

For the phenylalanine deamination test, the image shows a ____ response.

back 82

Positive

front 83

Which of the following is the most widely used molecular tool in biology?

back 83

PCR

front 84

Which of the following is the most widely used bioinformatic tool in biology?

back 84

BLAST

front 85

Which genetic locus is typically used to identify bacteria and archaea?

back 85

16s rRNA

front 86

Which genetic loci is typically used to identify fungi and other eukaryotes?

back 86

- ITS

- CO1

front 87

In DNA extraction the first step is to ____

back 87

Break the cells open to expose the DNA

front 88

In DNA extraction the second step is to ____

back 88

Remove the lipids and proteins

front 89

In DNA extraction the third step is to ____

back 89

Precipitate the DNA with alcohol

front 90

Which reagent of PCR stabilizes the molecular reactions?

back 90

Buffer

front 91

Which reagent of PCR creates covalent bonds to make the new DNA strand?

back 91

Taq polymerase

front 92

Which reagent of PCR hybridizes with the DNA at the location where amplification will occur?

back 92

Primers

front 93

Which reagent of PCR is the building blocks of the new DNA?

back 93

dNTPs

front 94

Which type of PCR is used to quantify how much RNA is being produced?

back 94

Reverse transcriptase PCR

front 95

Which type of PCR is used to amplify a large amount of a DNA target and then sequenced?

back 95

Conventional PCR

front 96

Which type of PCR is used as a diagnostic to distinguish between different microbes?

back 96

Real-time PCR

front 97

Which phase of PCR allows for the primases to form hydrogen bonds with the single stranded DNA?

back 97

Annealing

front 98

Which phase of PCR raises the temperature to break the DNA into single strands?

back 98

Denaturation

front 99

Which phase of PCR uses the Taq polymerase to add complementary nucleotides to the single strand of DNA?

back 99

Extention

front 100

Which phase of PCR has an optimal temperature at 72°C?

back 100

Extension

front 101

Which phase of PCR has an optimal temperature at 95°C?

back 101

Denaturation

front 102

Which phase of PCR has an optimal temperature at 50-60°C?

back 102

Annealing

front 103

This BLAST result is used as a comparison between searches.

back 103

Max or total score

front 104

This BLAST result illustrates how much of the inputted sequence is used in the alignment.

back 104

Percent query coverage

front 105

This BLAST result is the number of alignments that occur by chance.

back 105

Expect value

front 106

This BLAST result illustrates how well the inputted sequence matches to sequences in the databse.

back 106

Percent similarity

front 107

Mutations create variation in which microbial organisms?

back 107

- Bacteria

- Archaea

- Eukaryotes

front 108

Horizontal gene transfer creates variation in which microbial organisms?

back 108

- Bacteria

- Archaea

front 109

Crossing over and independent assortment create variation in which microbial organisms?

back 109

Eukaryotes

front 110

This type of mutation changes the DNA and changes the protein by shortening or truncating it.

back 110

Nonsense

front 111

This type of mutation changes the DNA but does not change the protein.

back 111

Silent

front 112

This type of mutation changes the DNA and the protein by adding or subtracting DNA nucleotides.

back 112

Indel

front 113

The synonymous substitution rate is used to determine the mutation rate. Which type of mutation results in synonymous substitutions?

back 113

Silent

front 114

This type of mutation changes the DNA and changes the protein by replacing one amino acid with another.

back 114

Missense

front 115

This type of mutation causes frameshifts.

back 115

Indel

front 116

This form of bacterial horizontal gene transfer typically occurs between bacteria of the same species or more directly related.

back 116

Transformation

front 117

This form of bacterial horizontal gene transfer indicates direct contact between two cells.

back 117

Conjugation

front 118

This form of bacterial horizontal gene transfer requires a dead bacterial cell that leaves behind DNA.

back 118

Transformation

front 119

This form of bacterial horizontal gene transfer involves naked DNA.

back 119

Transformation

front 120

This form of bacterial horizontal gene transfer requires a lysed bacterial cell.

back 120

Transuction

front 121

This form of bacterial horizontal gene transfer includes indirect contact between two cells and any gene can be transferred between the cells via a virus.

back 121

Generalized transduction.

front 122

This form of bacterial horizontal gene transfer involves a virus.

back 122

Transduction

front 123

This form of bacterial horizontal gene transfer typically occurs between bacteria of the same strain within a species.

back 123

Transduction

front 124

This form of bacterial horizontal gene transfer involves a plasmid.

back 124

Conjugation

front 125

This form of bacterial horizontal gene transfer includes indirect contact between two cells and only specific genes can be transferred between the cells via a virus.

back 125

Specialized transduction

front 126

This form of bacterial horizontal gene transfer requires two living bacterial cells.

back 126

Conjugation

front 127

This form of bacterial horizontal gene transfer typically occurs between bacteria with the same cell wall type (Gram positive or Gram negative).

back 127

Conjugation

front 128

Growth on all the plates indicates which gene is on the plasmid?

back 128

Streptomycin resistance gene

front 129

Growth on all the plates except the one with nalidixic acid (LB + nal) indicates which gene is on the plasmid?

back 129

Ampicillin resistance gene

front 130

Growth on all the plates except the two with ampicillin (LB + amp, LB + amp + str) indicates which gene is on the plasmid?

back 130

Nalidixic acid resistance gene