Microbes that require oxygen to grow but at much lower levels than 20%

Microaerophile

Microbes that can only grow when oxygen is not present

Obligate anaerobe

Microbes that can only grow when oxygen is present

Obligate aerobe

Microbes that can grow in oxygen but do not require oxygen for energy metabolism

Aerotolerant anaerobe

Microbes that are flexible and can grow with or without oxygen

Facultative anaerobe

Which bacteria have optimal growth between -5 to 15°C?

Psychrophile

Which bacteria have optimal growth between 45° to 75°C?

Thermophile

Which bacteria have optimal growth between 25° to 45°C?

Mesophile

Which bacteria have optimal growth above 75°C?

Hyperthermophile

A bacterium that grows at a pH of 10

Alkaliphile

A bacterium that grows at a pH of 4

Acidophile

A bacterium that grows at a pH of 7

Neutrophile

These microbes can grow in excessive sugar concentrations

Osmophile

These microbes require a high concentration of sodium chloride in order to grow

Obligate halophile

These microbes can grow in moderate concentration of sodium chloride

Halotolerant

A cell that has more solutes than the surrounding environment is

Hypertonic

A cell that has fewer solutes than the surrounding environment is

Hypotonic

Water flows (into/out of) a cell that is hypotonic

Out of

Water flows (into/out of) a cell that is hypertonic

Into

When the temperature increases past the optimal, the hydrogen bonding in the RNA breaks down and the proteins denature in this structure

Ribsosome

When the temperature increases past the optimal, lipids can be destroyed affecting which structure?

Cell membrane

Which temperature results in white colonies of Serratia?

37°C

When the temperature decreases past the optimal, lipids can freeze affecting which strcuture?

Cell membrane

When the temperature decreases past the optimal, the activity of this molecule will slow down

Enzyme

When the temperature increases past the optimal, these denature

Enzyme

Which temperature results in pinkish/red colonies of Serratia?

25°C

Based on the absorbance readings, which temperature does Serratia grow best at?

37°C

Based on the absorbance readings, which temperature does E. coli grow best at?

37°C

Based on the absorbance readings, which temperature does GST grow best at?

55°C

Based on the absorbance readings, which temperature does Serratia grow the worst at?

55°C

Based on the absorbance readings, which temperature, which temperature does E. coli grow the worst at?

55°C

Based on the absorbance readings, which temperature does GST grow the worst at?

37°C

Based on the absorbance readings, which pH does E. coli grow best at?

7

Based on the absorbance readings, which pH does S. epidermidis grow best at?

5

Based on the absorbance readings, which pH does does A. faecalis grow best at?

7

Based on the absorbance readings, which pH does E. coli grow the worst at?

3

Based on the absorbance readings, which pH does S. epidermidis grow the worst at?

3

Based on the absorbance readings, which pH does A. faecalis grow the worst at?

3

Antivirals are compounds that kill or inhibit

Viruses

Antifungals are compounds that kill or inhibit

Fungi

Antibiotics are compounds that kill or inhibit

Bacteria

Antiparasitics are compounds that kill or inhibit

Animals

Chemical agents that are applied to inanimate objects to kill microbes are

Disinfectants

Substances that kill or inhibit microorganisms but are gentle enough to apply to tissue are

Antiseptics

What antibiotics target the cell wall of bacteria?

- Penicillin

- Ampicillin

- Bacitracin

Which antibiotics target the DNA and RNA synthesis of bacteria?

- Fluoroquinolones

- Rifamycins

Which antibiotics target the protein synthesis of bacteria?

- Chloramphenicol

- Streptomycin

- Tetracycline

Which antibiotic is E. coli completely resistant to?

- Bacitracin

- Nasitracon

- Optochin

- Penicillin

- Vancomycin

Which antibiotic is S. aureus completely resistant to?

Optochin

Indicate five antibiotics that E. coli is highly susceptible to.

- Streptomycin

- Gentamycin

- Erythomycin

- Trimethoprim

- Tetracycline

Indicate four antibiotics that S. aureus is mildly resistant to.

- Streptomycin

- Neomycin

- Vancomycin

- Bacitracin

Which antibiotic would you not use to treat an infection of E. coli or S. aureus

Optochin

Which two antibiotics would be better to treat both E. coli and S. aureus infections?

- Trimethoprim

- Tetracycline

Fermentation is a form of energy metabolism where the final electron acceptor is

Organic

Anaerobic respiration is a form of energy metabolism where the final electron acceptor is

Inorganic

Aerobic respiration is a form of energy metabolism where the final electron acceptor is

Oxygen

Which molecule is hydrolyzed by proteases?

Casein

Which molecule is hydrolyzed by amylase?

Starch

Which molecule is hydrolyzed by lipases?

Fat

Which molecule is deaminated into phenylpyruvic acid and ammonia?

Phenylalanine

Which molecule is degraded in indole, ammonia, and pyruvic acid?

Tryptophan

Which molecule splits in carbon dioxide and ammonia when it's hydrolyzed?

Urea

The mixed acid fermentation test uses which reagent to indicate a positive reaction?

Urea

Which enzyme is tested for with hydrogen peroxide?

Catalase

The 2,3-butanediol fermentation test uses which reagent to indicate a positive reaction?

Barritt

Which enzyme is tested for in an oxidation test?

Oxidase

Name one of the tests that must be completed under anaerobic conditions in the API20E.

LDC

Name one of the tests that examines carbon utilization in the API20E.

MAN

Name one of the tests that examines nitrogen utilization in the API20E.

URE

Name one of the tests that examines protein utilization in the API20E.

IND

For the starch hydrolysis test, the image shows a ____ response.

Positive

For the starch hydrolysis test, the image shows a ____ response.

Negative

For the casein hydrolysis test, the image shoes a ____ response.

Positive

For the casein hydrolysis test, the image shoes a ____ response.

Negative

For the fat hydrolysis test, the image shows a ____ response.

Negative

For the fat hydrolysis test, the image shows a ____ response.

Positive

For the tryptophan hydrolysis test, the image shows a ____ response.

Positive

For the tryptophan hydrolysis test, the image shows a ____ response.

Negative

For the urea hydrolysis test, the image shows a ____ response.

Negative

For the urea hydrolysis test, the image shows a ____ response.

Positive

For the phenylalanine deamination test, the image shows a ____ response.

Negative

For the phenylalanine deamination test, the image shows a ____ response.

Positive

Which of the following is the most widely used molecular tool in biology?

PCR

Which of the following is the most widely used bioinformatic tool in biology?

BLAST

Which genetic locus is typically used to identify bacteria and archaea?

16s rRNA

Which genetic loci is typically used to identify fungi and other eukaryotes?

- ITS

- CO1

In DNA extraction the first step is to ____

Break the cells open to expose the DNA

In DNA extraction the second step is to ____

Remove the lipids and proteins

In DNA extraction the third step is to ____

Precipitate the DNA with alcohol

Which reagent of PCR stabilizes the molecular reactions?

Buffer

Which reagent of PCR creates covalent bonds to make the new DNA strand?

Taq polymerase

Which reagent of PCR hybridizes with the DNA at the location where amplification will occur?

Primers

Which reagent of PCR is the building blocks of the new DNA?

dNTPs

Which type of PCR is used to quantify how much RNA is being produced?

Reverse transcriptase PCR

Which type of PCR is used to amplify a large amount of a DNA target and then sequenced?

Conventional PCR

Which type of PCR is used as a diagnostic to distinguish between different microbes?

Real-time PCR

Which phase of PCR allows for the primases to form hydrogen bonds with the single stranded DNA?

Annealing

Which phase of PCR raises the temperature to break the DNA into single strands?

Denaturation

Which phase of PCR uses the Taq polymerase to add complementary nucleotides to the single strand of DNA?

Extention

Which phase of PCR has an optimal temperature at 72°C?

Extension

Which phase of PCR has an optimal temperature at 95°C?

Denaturation

Which phase of PCR has an optimal temperature at 50-60°C?

Annealing

This BLAST result is used as a comparison between searches.

Max or total score

This BLAST result illustrates how much of the inputted sequence is used in the alignment.

Percent query coverage

This BLAST result is the number of alignments that occur by chance.

Expect value

This BLAST result illustrates how well the inputted sequence matches to sequences in the databse.

Percent similarity

Mutations create variation in which microbial organisms?

- Bacteria

- Archaea

- Eukaryotes

Horizontal gene transfer creates variation in which microbial organisms?

- Bacteria

- Archaea

Crossing over and independent assortment create variation in which microbial organisms?

Eukaryotes

This type of mutation changes the DNA and changes the protein by shortening or truncating it.

Nonsense

This type of mutation changes the DNA but does not change the protein.

Silent

This type of mutation changes the DNA and the protein by adding or subtracting DNA nucleotides.

Indel

The synonymous substitution rate is used to determine the mutation rate. Which type of mutation results in synonymous substitutions?

Silent

This type of mutation changes the DNA and changes the protein by replacing one amino acid with another.

Missense

This type of mutation causes frameshifts.

Indel

This form of bacterial horizontal gene transfer typically occurs between bacteria of the same species or more directly related.

Transformation

This form of bacterial horizontal gene transfer indicates direct contact between two cells.

Conjugation

This form of bacterial horizontal gene transfer requires a dead bacterial cell that leaves behind DNA.

Transformation

This form of bacterial horizontal gene transfer involves naked DNA.

Transformation

This form of bacterial horizontal gene transfer requires a lysed bacterial cell.

Transuction

This form of bacterial horizontal gene transfer includes indirect contact between two cells and any gene can be transferred between the cells via a virus.

Generalized transduction.

This form of bacterial horizontal gene transfer involves a virus.

Transduction

This form of bacterial horizontal gene transfer typically occurs between bacteria of the same strain within a species.

Transduction

This form of bacterial horizontal gene transfer involves a plasmid.

Conjugation

This form of bacterial horizontal gene transfer includes indirect contact between two cells and only specific genes can be transferred between the cells via a virus.

Specialized transduction

This form of bacterial horizontal gene transfer requires two living bacterial cells.

Conjugation

This form of bacterial horizontal gene transfer typically occurs between bacteria with the same cell wall type (Gram positive or Gram negative).

Conjugation

Growth on all the plates indicates which gene is on the plasmid?

Streptomycin resistance gene

Growth on all the plates except the one with nalidixic acid (LB + nal) indicates which gene is on the plasmid?

Ampicillin resistance gene

Growth on all the plates except the two with ampicillin (LB + amp, LB + amp + str) indicates which gene is on the plasmid?

Nalidixic acid resistance gene