A&P Final Review Flashcards


Set Details Share
created 2 years ago by dentalguide
736 views
show moreless
Page to share:
Embed this setcancel
COPY
code changes based on your size selection
Size:
X
Show:

1

A mismatch of blood types during a transfusion is dangerous because ________.

A) white blood cells from the donor's blood cause inflammation

B) antibodies in the donor's plasma will attack and kill the recipient's healthy blood cells

C) clotting factors in the donor's blood will cause unwanted clots known as thrombus

D) preformed antibodies in the recipient's blood will bind and clump (agglutinate) the donated cells

D) preformed antibodies in the recipient's blood will bind and clump (agglutinate) the donated cells

2

If you centrifuge (spin) whole blood you will find the band of white blood cells and platelets (the Buffy coat) is much thinner than the packed red blood cells below it. This difference reflects the fact that ________.

A) white blood cells are fewer in number than red blood cells

B) white blood cells are smaller than red blood cells

C) platelets are larger than red blood cells

D) platelets are larger than white blood cells

A) white blood cells are fewer in number than red blood cells

3

If you centrifuge (spin) whole blood, you will find the red blood cells (erythrocytes) at the bottom of the tube and white blood cells atop them. This implies that ________.

A) red blood cells are larger than white blood cells

B) white blood cells are fewer in number than red blood cells

C) white blood cells are smaller than red blood cells

D) red blood cells have a greater density than white blood cells

D) red blood cells have a greater density than white blood cells

4

True or False?

Positive chemotaxis is a feedback system that signals leukocyte migration into damaged areas.

TRUE

5

The cells responsible for producing platelets are called _____.

A) megakaryocytes.

B) lymphoid stem cells.

C) myeloblasts.

D) monoblasts.

E) erythrocytes.

A) megakaryocytes.

6

True or False

A person with type B blood could receive blood from a person with either type B or type O blood.

TRUE

7

What is the average normal pH range of blood?

A) 4.65-4.75

B) 8.35-8.45

C) 7.75-7.85

D) 7.35-7.45

D) 7.35-7.45

8

True or False?

When erythrocytes are destroyed, some of the heme is converted into bilirubin and then secreted as bile.

TRUE

9

True or False?

Basophils increase in number when parasitic invasion occurs.

FALSE

10

True or False?

Granulocytes called neutrophils are phagocytic and are the most numerous of all white blood cell types.

TRUE

11

Loss of fibrinogen within the plasma would most likely cause which of the following?

A) fever with pain

B) loss of blood clotting

C) edema (swelling)

D) pallor (pale skin)

B) loss of blood clotting

12

True or False?

The immediate response to blood vessel injury is clotting.

FALSE

13

A person with an extremely high count of neutrophils is likely suffering ________.

A) a bacterial infection

B) a viral infection

C) anemia

D) polycythemia

A) a bacterial infection

14

When neither anti-A serum nor anti-B serum clot on a blood plate with donor blood, the blood is type ________.

A) A

B) B

C) O

D) AB

C) O

15

Which blood type is generally called the universal donor?

A) A

B) B

C) AB

D) O

D) O

16

Which of the choices below is the parent cell for all formed elements of blood?

A) normoblast

B) hemocytoblast

C) polymorphonuclear cell

D) megakaryocyte

B) hemocytoblast

17

True or False?

Leukemia refers to cancerous conditions involving white blood cells

TRUE

18

A patient's hematocrit shows an unusually large buffy coat. What is a likely cause of this?
a. anemia
b. lipidemia
c. severe infection
d. thrombocytopenia

c. severe infection

19
card image

Using Figure 19.2, match the following:
Splenic vein.

B

20
card image

Using Figure 19.2, match the following:
inferior mesenteric vein

D

21
card image

Using Figure 19.2, match the following:

superior mesenteric vein

E

22
card image

Using Figure 19.2, match the following:

hepatic portal vein

A

23
card image

Using Figure 19.2, match the following:

right gastroepiploic vein

C

24

Blood flow to the skin ________.
A) is controlled mainly by decreasing pH
B) increases when environmental temperature rises
C) increases when body temperature drops so that the skin does not freeze
D) is not an important source of nutrients and oxygen for skin cells

B) increases when environmental temperature rises

25

True or False?

An increase in blood viscosity will cause an increase in peripheral resistance.

TRUE

26

True or False?

The left side of the heart pumps the same volume of blood as the right.

TRUE

27

In red bone marrow newly formed blood cells enter the circulation. You would expect to see many ________ type of capillaries in red bone marrow.

A) metarterioles

B) continuous capillaries

C) sinusoid capillaries

D) fenestrated capillaries

C) sinusoid capillaries

28

Due to the branching of arteries the type of arteries that would be most numerous would be ________.

A) arterioles

B) pulmonary arteries

C) muscular arteries

D) elastic arteries

A) arterioles

29
card image

Using Figure 18.1, match the following:

Purkinje Fibers

E

30
card image

Using Figure 18.1, match the following:

SA Node

A

31
card image

Using Figure 18.1, match the following:

AV Bundle

C

32
card image

Using Figure 18.1, match the following:

AV Node

B

33
card image

Using Figure 18.1, match the following:

Bundle Branches

D

34
card image

Using Figure 18.4, match the following:

Tricuspid valve

B

35
card image

Using Figure 18.4, match the following:

Mitral valve

D

36
card image

Using Figure 18.4, match the following:

Right atrium

A

37
card image

Using Figure 18.4, match the following:

Left Ventricle

E

38
card image

Using Figure 18.4, match the following:

Pulmonary Veins

C

39

Which chambers of the heart contain oxygenated blood?
A. The right and left atria
B. The right and left ventricles
C. The right atrium and ventricle
D. The left atrium and ventricle

D. The left atrium and ventricle

40

Which of the following is the most significant source of blood flow resistance?

A) blood viscosity

B) blood vessel diameter

C) total blood vessel length

D) blood vessels type

B) blood vessel diameter

41

Which of the following does not contribute to venous blood pressure?

A) skeletal muscle activity

B) venous anastomosis

C) constriction of smooth muscle around veins by the sympathetic nervous system

D) increased abdominal pressure during breathing

A) skeletal muscle activity

42

Atherosclerosis causes elastic arteries to become less stretchy. How does this affect pulse pressure?

A) Pulse pressure is unaffected by atherosclerosis.

B) Pulse pressure is temporarily increased.

C) Pulse pressure is temporarily decreased.

D) Pulse pressure is chronically decreased.

E) Pulse pressure is chronically increased.

E) Pulse pressure is chronically increased.

43

The receiving chambers of the heart include the ________.

A) right atrium and ventricle

B) right and left ventricles

C) right and left atria

D) left atrium and ventricle

C) right and left atria

44

Peripheral resistance ________.
A) decreases with increasing length of the blood vessel
B) increases as blood vessel diameter increases
C) increases as blood viscosity increases
D) is not a major factor in blood pressure in healthy individuals

C) increases as blood viscosity increases

45

True or False?

The myocardium receives its blood supply from the coronary arteries.

TRUE

46

Which will not occur if blood pressure drops below homeostatic levels?

A) The cardioacceleratory center of the medulla will be activated

B) Barorecptors in the carotid sinuses and aortic arch will be stimulated

C) Vasomotor center of the medulla will trigger vasoconstriction

B) Barorecptors in the carotid sinuses and aortic arch will be stimulated

47

Which is NOT a vessel that brings blood directly into the right atrium?

A) superior vena cava

B) inferior vena cava

C) pulmonary vein

D) coronary sinus

C) pulmonary vein

48

Permitting the exchange of nutrients and gases between the blood and tissue cells is the primary function of ________.
A) arterioles
B) arteries
C) veins
D) capillaries

D) capillaries

49

Which coronary artery is the most responsible for supplying blood to the myocardial tissue of the left atrium?

A) anterior interventricular artery

B) posterior interventricular artery

C) right marginal artery

D) circumflex artery

D) circumflex artery

50

True or False?

Anastomoses among coronary arterial branches provide collateral routes for blood delivery to the heart muscle.

TRUE

51

Which of the following signs of hypovolemic shock is a relatively late sign?
A) cold, clammy skin
B) increased heart rate
C) rapid, thready pulse
D) rapidly falling blood pressure

D) rapidly falling blood pressure

52

Compared to skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle ________.
A) has gap junctions that allow it to act as a functional syncytium
B) lacks striations
C) has more nuclei per cell
D) cells are larger than skeletal muscle cells

A) has gap junctions that allow it to act as a functional syncytium

53

Which of the following is NOT a part of the lymphatic system?

A) lymph nodes

B) lymph

C) lymphatic vessels

D) erythrocytes

D) erythrocytes

54

Lymph leaves a lymph node via ________.

A) afferent lymphatic vessels

B) efferent lymphatic vessels

C) the cortical sinus

D) the subcapsular sinus

B) efferent lymphatic vessels

55

Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic system?

A) transporting dietary fats

B) transporting respiratory gases

C) draining excess interstitial fluid

D) carrying out immune responses

B) transporting respiratory gases

56

Peyer's patches are found in the distal portion of the ________.

A) large intestine

B) stomach

C) small intestine

D) esophagus

C) small intestine

57

True or False?

Like blood, lymph flows both to and from the heart.

FALSE

58

The lymphatic capillaries are ________.
A) more permeable than blood capillaries
B) less permeable than blood capillaries
C) equally permeable to blood capillaries
D) completely impermeable

A) more permeable than blood capillaries

59

True or False?

When tissues are inflamed, lymphatic capillaries develop openings that permit uptake of large particles such as cell debris, pathogens, and cancer cells.

TRUE

60

Select the correct statement about lymph transport.

A) Under normal conditions, lymph vessels are very high-pressure conduits.

B) Lymph transport is only necessary when illness causes tissue swelling.

C) Lymph transport is faster than that occurring in veins.

D) Lymph transport depends on the movement of adjacent tissues, such as skeletal muscles.

D) Lymph transport depends on the movement of adjacent tissues, such as skeletal muscles.

61

A flu vaccine is needed seasonally to be effective but a polio vaccine is only needed once. The best explanation of this is ________.

A) the flu vaccine is substantially weaker than the polio vaccine

B) exposure to flu vaccine produces no memory cells from proliferating B-lymphocytes

C) the polio virus is substantially weaker than the flu virus

D) the flu has several strains that change seasonally

D) the flu has several strains that change seasonally

62

True or False?

Peyer's patches are clusters of lymphoid tissue found primarily in the large intestine.

FALSE

63

Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissues include all of the following EXCEPT ________.

A) palatine tonsils

B) islets of Langerhans

C) lingual tonsils

D) Peyer's patches

B) islets of Langerhans

64

A vaccine is effective because ________.

A) B-lymphocytes are unable to mount an immune response the first time they are exposed to a new pathogen

B) the secondary response of the adaptive immunity is faster and more efficient the primary response

C) the vaccine contains the lymphocytes necessary to fight infection

D) the vaccine contains the antibodies necessary to fight infection

B) the secondary response of the adaptive immunity is faster and more efficient the primary response

65

The redness and heat of an inflamed area are due to a local hyperemia caused by ________.

A) phagocyte mobilization

B) complement production

C) vasoconstriction

D) vasodilation

D) vasodilation

66

True or False?

Fever is often a beneficial immune response because it can speed the activities of leucocytes.

TRUE

67

Which of the following is not a type of T cell?

A) helper

B) antigenic

C) cytotoxic

D) regulatory

B) antigenic

68

An advantage to adaptive immunity is ________.

A) the use of antibodies that cause cell lysis and kill invading cells

B) the ability of its individual cells to respond to many different pathogens

C) its memory cells that provide quicker, larger and more efficient immune response upon second exposure to an antigen

D) its need for several cells to be activated over several days on first exposure

C) its memory cells that provide quicker, larger and more efficient immune response upon second exposure to an antigen

69

Which of the following does NOT contain a mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue?

A) appendix

B) tonsil

C) Peyer's patch

D) thymus

D) thymus

70

The thymus is the only lymphoid organ that does NOT ________.

A) directly fight antigens

B) have lymphocytes

C) have a cortex and medulla

D) produce hormones

A) directly fight antigens

71

Natural killer (NK) cells ________.

A) can kill cancer cells before the immune system is activated

B) are also called cytotoxic T cells

C) are cells of the adaptive immune system

D) are a type of phagocyte

A) can kill cancer cells before the immune system is activated

72

B lymphocytes develop immunocompetence in the ________.

A) bone marrow

B) lymph nodes

C) thymus

D) spleen

A) bone marrow

73

True or False?

The lymphatic capillaries function to absorb the excess protein-containing interstitial fluid and return it to the bloodstream.

FALSE

74

Which of the following is associated with passive immunity?

A) booster shot of vaccine

B) exposure to an antigen

C) infusion of weakened viruses

D) passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus

D) passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus

75

Tonsils have blind-ended structures called ________ that trap bacteria and particulate matter.

A) tonsillar crypts

B) germinal centers

C) tonsillar corpuscles

D) lymphoid follicles

A) tonsillar crypts

76

True or False?

Anaphylactic shock is a rare but severe allergic response that may occur if the allergen enters the blood stream.

TRUE

77

True or False?

Lymphatic capillaries are permeable to proteins.

TRUE

78

Vaccines work by ________.

A) boosting innate immunity with cytokines

B) providing the necessary antibodies to fight infections

C) suppressing inflation to help speed healing

D) priming the adaptive immunity with a relatively harmless primary exposure

D) priming the adaptive immunity with a relatively harmless primary exposure

79

Lymph traveling from the left arm would enter the venous circulation via the _______.

A) axillary nodes
B) thoracic duct
C) cisterna chili
D) right lymphatic duct

B) thoracic duct

80

True or False?

Lymph capillary permeability is due to minivalves and protein filaments.

TRUE

81

Which of the following statements regarding the thymus is FALSE?

A) It has follicles similar to those in the spleen.

B) It does not directly fight antigens.

C) It functions strictly in T lymphocyte maturation.

D) Its stroma consists of epithelial tissue.

A) It has follicles similar to those in the spleen.

82

Which of the following would be a component of the body's first line of defense?
A) Natural killer cells
B) phagocytes
C) inflammation
D) mucous membranes

D) mucous membranes

83

Which lymphoid organ atrophies as we age?

A) thymus

B) appendix

C) spleen

D) tonsils

A) thymus

84

A cellular component of the innate defenses includes _____.

A) Plasma cells
B) T cells
C) B cells
D) Natural killer cells

D) Natural killer cells

85

The thymus is most active during ________.

A) childhood

B) fetal development

C) middle age

D) old age

A) childhood

86

True or False?

About 3 liters of fluid are lost to the tissue spaces every 24 hours and are returned to the bloodstream as lymph.

TRUE

87

Inflammation ________.

A) is caused by bacterial activity to enhance the spread of disease

B) brings more leukocytes to the sight of infection

C) is caused by viral activity to enhance the spread of the disease

D) slows the healing process with swelling that can impair bodily function

B) brings more leukocytes to the sight of infection

88

True or False?

In a case of immediate hypersensitivity the immune system responds with an allergic response on the first exposure to the allergen.

FALSE

89

The tonsils located at the base of the tongue are the ________.

A) pharyngeal tonsils

B) Peyer's tonsils

C) palatine tonsils

D) lingual tonsils

D) lingual tonsils

90

Lymphoid tissue that appears as a swelling of the mucosa in the oral cavity is called a(n) ________.

A) Peyer's patch

B) thymus

C) tonsil

D) appendix

C) tonsil

91

True or False?

The functions of the nasal conchae are to enhance the air turbulence in the cavity and to increase the mucosal surface area exposed to the air.

TRUE

92

Factors that influence the rate and depth of breathing include ________.
A) thalamic control
B) voluntary cortical control
C) stretch receptors in the alveoli
D) composition of alveolar gas

B) voluntary cortical control

93

Which of the following is not normally found in saliva?
A) Mucus
B) Lysozyme
C) Amylase
D) Lipase
E) Protease

E) Protease

94

Surfactant helps to prevent the alveoli from collapsing by ________.
A) protecting the surface of alveoli from dehydration and other environmental variations
B) interfering with the cohesiveness of water molecules, thereby reducing the surface tension of alveolar fluid
C) warming the air before it enters
D) humidifying the air before it enters

B) interfering with the cohesiveness of water molecules, thereby reducing the surface tension of alveolar fluid

95
card image

Using Figure 22.1, match the following:
1) Main (primary) bronchus.

2) Pharynx.

3) Larynx.

4) Carina of trachea.

5) Trachea.

1) D

2) A

3) B

4) E

5) C

96

Inspiratory capacity is ________.
A) the total amount of air that can be inspired after a tidal expiration
B) the total amount of exchangeable air
C) functional residual capacity
D) air inspired after a tidal inhalation

A) the total amount of air that can be inspired after a tidal expiration

97

True or False?

Nasal conchae mainly work on inhalation to warm and moisten air. They serve minor functions for exhalation.

FALSE

98

Which of the following maintains the patency (openness) of the trachea?

A) pseudostratified ciliated epithelium

B) C-shaped cartilage rings

C) surfactant production

D) surface tension of water

B) C-shaped cartilage rings

99

Which of the following is not true of saliva?

A) moistens food and aids in compacting of the bolus

B) cleanses the mouth

C) contains enzymes that begin the breakdown of carbohydrates

D) contains acids which aid in chemical digestion

D) contains acids which aid in chemical digestion

100

A ruptured appendix is life threatening because ________.

A) it is likely to cause severe internal bleeding

B) the large intestine will no longer be able to receive digested material from the small intestine

C) loss of the appendix's function will cause an immune deficiency in the digestive system

D) it is likely to cause massive infection of the abdominopelvic cavity

D) it is likely to cause massive infection of the abdominopelvic cavity

101

True or False?

The lingual tonsil is found on the posterior surface of the root of the tongue

TRUE

102

Choose the incorrect statement regarding bile.

A) Bile functions to emulsify fats.

B) Bile contains enzymes for digestion.

C) Bile functions to carry bilirubin formed from breakdown of worn-out RBCs.

D) Bile is both an excretory product and a digestive secretion.

B) Bile contains enzymes for digestion.

103

True or False?

The pancreas has both an endocrine and an exocrine function.

TRUE

104

Most inspired particles such as dust fail to reach the lungs because of the ________.

A) action of the epiglottis

B) ciliated mucous lining in the nose

C) porous structure of turbinate bones

D) abundant blood supply to nasal mucosa

B) ciliated mucous lining in the nose

105

From the esophagus to the anal canal, the walls of every organ of the alimentary canal are made up of the same four basic layers. Arrange them in order from the lumen.

A) serosa, mucosa, submucosa, and muscularis externa

B) mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa

C) submucosa, serosa, muscularis externa, and mucosa

D) muscularis externa, serosa, mucosa, and submucosa

B) mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa

106

Select the best explanation for why protease enzymes are secreted in inactive forms.

A) Inactive enzymes will simply be expelled with the feces if no protein is present in the digesting food, this will help to conserve energy.

B) The immunoglobulins protecting the digestive tract would be digested without proper regulation of protein digesting enzymes.

C) The enzymes would digest each other if they were not properly regulated.

D) The cells producing inactive enzymes are themselves protected from the enzymes until they are safely within the lumen of the GI tract.

D) The cells producing inactive enzymes are themselves protected from the enzymes until they are safely within the lumen of the GI tract.

107

True or False?

Another term for swallowing is deglutition.

TRUE

108

True or False?

The circular folds of the small intestine enhance absorption by causing the chyme to spiral, rather than to move in a straight line, as it passes through the small intestine.

TRUE

109

The function of the hepatic portal circulation is to ________.

A) return glucose to the general circulation when blood sugar is low

B) carry toxins to the kidney for disposal through the urinary tract

C) distribute hormones throughout the body

D) collect absorbed nutrients for metabolic processing in the liver

D) collect absorbed nutrients for metabolic processing in the liver

110

True or False?

The major means of propulsion through the alimentary canal is peristalsis.

TRUE

111

The walls of the alveoli are composed of two types of cells, type I and type II alveolar cells. The function of type II alveolar cells is to ________.

A) replace mucus in the alveoli

B) protect the lungs from bacterial invasion

C) trap dust and other debris

D) secrete surfactant

D) secrete surfactant

112

Pepsinogen, an inactive digestive enzyme, is secreted by the ________.

A) parietal cells of the duodenum

B) goblet cells of the small intestine

C) Brunner's glands

D) chief cells of the stomach

D) chief cells of the stomach

113

Inspiration occurs when the ____________ is less than the ____________.

A) intrapulmonary pressure is less than intrapleural pressure.
B) intrapleural pressure is less than intrapulmonary pressure.
C) intrapleural pressure is exactly equal to intrapulmonary pressure.
D) intrapleural pressure is exactly equal to atmospheric pressure.

B) intrapleural pressure is less than intrapulmonary pressure.

114

The larynx contains ________.

A) lateral cartilage ridges called false vocal folds

B) the thyroid cartilage

C) an upper pair of avascular mucosal folds called true vocal folds

D) a cricoid cartilage also called the Adam's apple

B) the thyroid cartilage

115

When we ingest large molecules such as lipids, carbohydrates, and proteins, they must undergo catabolic reactions whereby enzymes split these molecules. This series of reactions is called ________.

A) mechanical breakdown

B) absorption

C) secretion

D) chemical digestion

D) chemical digestion

116

The absorptive effectiveness of the small intestine is enhanced by increasing the surface area of the mucosal lining. Which of the following accomplish this task?

A) the vast array of digestive enzymes

B) the rugae and haustra

C) villi, and microvilli

D) Brunner's glands and Peyer Patches

C) villi, and microvilli

117

Which of the following is least involved in the mechanical breakdown of food, digestion or absorption of nutrients?

A) the oral cavity

B) the esophagus

C) large intestine

D) the small ingestion

B) the esophagus

118

The chemical and mechanical processes of food breakdown are called ________.

A) secretion

B) ingestion

C) absorption

D) digestion

D) digestion

119

True or False?

The only essential function of the stomach is to begin the digestion of proteins.

FALSE

120

All of the following are true of swallowing (deglutition) except one. Select the statement that is not true of swallowing.

A) The involuntary portion of swallowing takes place in the pharynx.

B) The mouth, pharynx and esophagus all take part in swallowing.

C) The epiglottis assists in propelling food into the trachea.

D) The voluntary phase of swallowing takes place within the mouth.

C) The epiglottis assists in propelling food into the trachea.

121

Intrapulmonary pressure is the ________.

A) difference between atmospheric pressure and respiratory pressure

B) pressure within the pleural cavity

C) pressure within the alveoli of the lungs

D) negative pressure in the intrapleural space

C) pressure within the alveoli of the lungs

122

Which of the following provide the greatest surface area for gas exchange?
A) alveolar sacs
B) alveolar ducts
C) alveoli
D) respiratory bronchioles

C) alveoli

123

True or False?

All the chemical and mechanical phases of digestion from the mouth through the small intestine are directed toward changing food into forms that can pass through the epithelial cells lining the mucosa into the underlying blood and lymphatic vessels.

TRUE

124

True or False?

Under certain conditions, the vocal folds act as a sphincter that prevents air passage.

TRUE

125

Respiratory control centers are located in the ________.
A) medulla and pons
B) midbrain and medulla
C) pons and midbrain
D) upper spinal cord and medulla

A) medulla and pons

126

Some antacid drugs block histamine receptors, resulting in reduction of the production and excretion of stomach acid. These drugs have the biggest effect on which of the following?

A) surface epithelial cells

B) chief cells

C) mucous neck cells

D) parietal cells

D) parietal cells

127

True or False?

Most nutrients are absorbed through the mucosa of the intestinal villi by active transport.

TRUE

128

True or False?

Strong emotions and pain, acting through the limbic system and hypothalamus, send signals to the respiratory centers that modulate respiratory rate and depth.

TRUE

129

True or False?

Smoking diminishes ciliary action and eventually destroys the cilia.

TRUE

130

True or False?

The lungs are perfused by two circulations: the pulmonary and the bronchial. The pulmonary circulation is for oxygenation of blood. The bronchial circulation supplies blood to the lung structures (tissue).

TRUE

131

Tidal volume is air ________.

A) exchanged during normal breathing

B) remaining in the lungs after forced expiration

C) inhaled after normal inspiration

D) forcibly expelled after normal expiration

A) exchanged during normal breathing

132

The function of goblet cells is to ________.

A) provide protection against invading bacteria and other disease-causing organisms that enter the digestive tract in food

B) secrete buffers in order to keep the pH of the digestive tract close to neutral

C) produce mucus that protects parts of the digestive organs from the effects of powerful enzymes needed for food digestion

D) absorb nutrients from digested food and store them for future use

C) produce mucus that protects parts of the digestive organs from the effects of powerful enzymes needed for food digestion

133

Bile salts bind at their hydrophobic regions to large fat globules within the chyme that enters the duodenum. Bile salts break up the fat globule into smaller fat droplets. This role of bile salts is best described as ________.

A) lipid emulsification

B) lipid absorption

C) lipid ingestion

D) lipid digestion

A) lipid emulsification

134

Which structure is lined with simple squamous epithelium?

A) oropharynx

B) alveolus

C) trachea

D) nasopharynx

B) alveolus

135

Which vitamin requires intrinsic factor in order to be absorbed?

A) K
B) C
C) B-12
D) A

C) B-12

136

Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is
A) greater than the intra-alveolar pressure.
B) greater than the pressure in the atmosphere.
C) equal to the pressure in the atmosphere.
D) less than the pressure in the atmosphere.

B) greater than the pressure in the atmosphere.

137

The sheets of peritoneal membrane that hold the digestive tract in place are called ________.

A) mucosal lining

B) lamina propria

C) serosal lining

D) mesenteries

D) mesenteries

138

Select the description below that illustrates a difference between a sphincter and circular muscle.

A) A sphincter is a thickening of circular muscle that can prevent the movement of digesting materials while circular muscle is involved in propulsion digesting material.

B) Sphincters are found throughout the GI tract while circular muscle is found only in the proximal portion of the GI tract.

C) A sphincter is composed of smooth muscle while circular muscle is composed of skeletal muscle tissue.

D) Sphincters are found in the proximal portion of the GI tract while circular muscle is found in the distal portions.

A) A sphincter is a thickening of circular muscle that can prevent the movement of digesting materials while circular muscle is involved in propulsion digesting material.

139

True or False?

The paired lungs occupy the mediastinum of the thoracic cavity.

FALSE

140

Which pressure actually keeps the lungs from collapsing?

A) atmospheric pressure
B) intrapulmonary pressure
C) intrapleural pressure
D) transpulmonary pressure

D) transpulmonary pressure

141

Peristaltic waves are ________.

A) churning movements of the gastrointestinal tract that aid in mechanical breakdown of chyme

B) segmental regions of the gastrointestinal tract

C) waves of muscular contractions that propel contents from one point to another

D) pendular movements of the gastrointestinal tract

C) waves of muscular contractions that propel contents from one point to another

142

Which of the following would likely be absorbed in the stomach?

A) a serving of pasta
B) a serving of alcohol
C) a serving of lean chicken breast
D) a piece of candy

B) a serving of alcohol

143

Which of the following refers to the movement of air into and out of the lungs?

A) pulmonary ventilation

B) external respiration

C) internal respiration

D) gas exchange

A) pulmonary ventilation

144

Gastric pits, as opposed to gastric glands, are completely lined with ________.

A) mucous cells
B) enteroendocrine cells
C) parietal cells
D) chief cells

A) mucous cells

145

True or False?

During normal quiet breathing, males breathe 25% more than females.

TRUE

146

Which of the following is the best explanation of the benefit in the digestive system having the largest collection of lymphoid tissue (MALT) at the distal end of the small intestine?

A) The alkaline secretion of the small intestine aid in the growth of bacteria and must be controlled.

B) The body will actively excrete pathogens out the body, into the digestive system to be removed from the body in feces.

C) The huge numbers of bacteria living in the large intestine must be prevented from entering the lumen of the small intestine and being absorbed with food's nutrients into the blood stream.

D) The digestive systems first and foremost job is to digest and absorb nutrients so it puts off immunity for last.

C) The huge numbers of bacteria living in the large intestine must be prevented from entering the lumen of the small intestine and being absorbed with food's nutrients into the blood stream.

D) The digestive systems first and

147

The bolus is liquefied in the ________ and it is now called chyme.

A) esophagus

B) stomach

C) small intestine

D) mouth

B) stomach

148

The ingestion of which nutrient type results in the greatest food-induced thermogenesis?
A) lipids
B) carbohydrates
C) proteins
D) vitamins

C) proteins

149

True or False?

Triglycerides and cholesterol do NOT circulate freely in the bloodstream.

TRUE

150

True or False?

The increased use of noncarbohydrate molecules for energy to conserve glucose is called glucose sparing.

TRUE

151

Which of the choices below is NOT a mechanism of heat production?

A) enhanced thyroxine release

B) sweating

C) vasoconstriction of cutaneous blood vessels

D) shivering

B) sweating

152

The most abundant dietary lipids are ________.
A) cholesterol
B) phospholipids
C) fatty acids
D) triglycerides

D) triglycerides

153

The process of breaking triglycerides down into glycerol and fatty acids is known as ________.
A) gluconeogenesis
B) fat utilization
C) lipogenesis
D) lipolysis

D) lipolysis

154

Catabolism would be best described as a process that ________.
A) causes a decline in circulating ketone bodies
B) builds up triglycerides during the postabsorptive state
C) breaks down complex structures to simpler ones
D) elevates glucagon levels

C) breaks down complex structures to simpler ones

155

True or False?

For use as fuel, all food carbohydrates are eventually transformed to glucose.

TRUE

156

Several hours after your last meal, declining blood glucose levels stimulate release of the hormone ________, which stimulates glycogenolysis, lipolysis and fat mobilization, and gluconeogenesis.

A) glucagon

B) thyroxine

C) cortisol

D) insulin

A) glucagon

157

Which of the following statements best describes complete protein?
A) derived from meat and fish only
B) meets all the minimum daily requirements for a healthy diet
C) derived only from legumes and other plant material
D) must meet all the body's amino acid requirements for maintenance and growth

D) must meet all the body's amino acid requirements for maintenance and growth

158

Which of the following is a source of complex carbohydrates?

A) soda

B) fruit juice

C) potatoes

D) pudding

C) potatoes

159

Which of the following is the major role of leptin in the body?
A) promote weight loss with activity
B) protect against weight loss during nutritional deprivation
C) shrink fat stores
D) decrease appetite and food intake

A) promote weight loss with activity

160

Glycogen is formed in the liver during the ________.
A) postabsorptive state
B) absorptive state
C) starvation period
D) period when the metabolic rate is lowest

B) absorptive state

161

The term metabolism is best defined as ________.
A) the length of time it takes to digest and absorb fats
B) a measure of carbohydrate utilization, typically involving measurement of calories
C) the number of calories it takes to keep from shivering on a cold day
D) biochemical reactions involved in building cell molecules or breaking down molecules for energy

D) biochemical reactions involved in building cell molecules or breaking down molecules for energy

162

True or False?

The preferred energy fuel for the brain is fat.

FALSE

163

Which of the following is NOT true of the basal metabolic rate (BMR)?
A) It represents the amount of energy the body needs to perform only essential functions.
B) It should account for body surface area.
C) It is measured when the subject is reclining and at rest.
D) It is best calculated when the subject is in the absorptive state.

D) It is best calculated when the subject is in the absorptive state.

164

The most abundant dietary lipids are ________.
A) cholesterol
B) phospholipids
C) fatty acids
D) triglycerides

D) triglycerides

165

Red blood cells lack mitochondria. As a result, ATP production is solely through ________.

A) glycolysis

B) electron transport chain

C) citric acid (Krebs) cycle

D) aerobic respiration

A) glycolysis

166

True or False?

The body is considered to be in nitrogen balance when the amount of nitrogen ingested in lipids equals the amount excreted in urine.

FALSE

167

True or False?

Diets high in cholesterol and saturated fats tend to produce high HDL concentrations.

FALSE

168

Which type of food molecule provides components for cellular structures like plasma membranes, myelin sheaths, and steroid hormones?

A) protein
B) lipids
C) complex carbohydrates
D) glucose

B) lipids

169

Which of the following is the most important function of the liver?
A) carbohydrate and lipid metabolism
B) synthesis of bile salts
C) processing of drugs and hormones and activation of vitamin D
D) protein metabolism

D) protein metabolism

170

When proteins undergo deamination, the waste substance found in the urine is mostly ________.

A) ammonia

B) ketone bodies

C) urea

D) acetyl CoA

C) urea

171

Lipogenesis occurs when ________.
A) there is a shortage of fatty acids
B) glucose levels drop slightly
C) excess proteins are transported through the cell membrane
D) cellular ATP and glucose levels are high

D) cellular ATP and glucose levels are high

172

Which of the choices below is not a fate of carbohydrate taken into the body?
A) ATP production
B) lipogenesis
C) amino acid synthesis
D) conversion to a nucleic acid
E) glycogenesis

D) conversion to a nucleic acid

173

Heat-loss mechanisms do not include ________.
A) reducing activity
B) the evaporation of sweat
C) behavior measures such as wearing light, loose clothing
D) vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels

D) vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels

174

True or False?

The term essential nutrient refers to the chemicals that can be interconverted in the liver so that the body can maintain life and good health.

FALSE

175

True or False?

Except for lactose and some glycogen, the carbohydrates we ingest are mainly from animals.

FALSE

176

True or False?

There are NO nutritionally complete proteins. All animal products should be eaten with plant material to make a nutritionally complete protein.

FALSE

177

True or False?

Vitamins are inorganic compounds that are essential for growth and good health.

FALSE

178

In the case of a person who consumes a normal, balanced diet, proteins are essential to the body for all of the following except ________.
A) production of energy
B) production of some hormones
C) production of enzymes, clotting factors, and antibodies
D) formation of functional molecules like hemoglobin and cytochromes

A) production of energy