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A&P Final Review

front 1

A mismatch of blood types during a transfusion is dangerous because ________.

A) white blood cells from the donor's blood cause inflammation

B) antibodies in the donor's plasma will attack and kill the recipient's healthy blood cells

C) clotting factors in the donor's blood will cause unwanted clots known as thrombus

D) preformed antibodies in the recipient's blood will bind and clump (agglutinate) the donated cells

back 1

D) preformed antibodies in the recipient's blood will bind and clump (agglutinate) the donated cells

front 2

If you centrifuge (spin) whole blood you will find the band of white blood cells and platelets (the Buffy coat) is much thinner than the packed red blood cells below it. This difference reflects the fact that ________.

A) white blood cells are fewer in number than red blood cells

B) white blood cells are smaller than red blood cells

C) platelets are larger than red blood cells

D) platelets are larger than white blood cells

back 2

A) white blood cells are fewer in number than red blood cells

front 3

If you centrifuge (spin) whole blood, you will find the red blood cells (erythrocytes) at the bottom of the tube and white blood cells atop them. This implies that ________.

A) red blood cells are larger than white blood cells

B) white blood cells are fewer in number than red blood cells

C) white blood cells are smaller than red blood cells

D) red blood cells have a greater density than white blood cells

back 3

D) red blood cells have a greater density than white blood cells

front 4

True or False?

Positive chemotaxis is a feedback system that signals leukocyte migration into damaged areas.

back 4

TRUE

front 5

The cells responsible for producing platelets are called _____.

A) megakaryocytes.

B) lymphoid stem cells.

C) myeloblasts.

D) monoblasts.

E) erythrocytes.

back 5

A) megakaryocytes.

front 6

True or False

A person with type B blood could receive blood from a person with either type B or type O blood.

back 6

TRUE

front 7

What is the average normal pH range of blood?

A) 4.65-4.75

B) 8.35-8.45

C) 7.75-7.85

D) 7.35-7.45

back 7

D) 7.35-7.45

front 8

True or False?

When erythrocytes are destroyed, some of the heme is converted into bilirubin and then secreted as bile.

back 8

TRUE

front 9

True or False?

Basophils increase in number when parasitic invasion occurs.

back 9

FALSE

front 10

True or False?

Granulocytes called neutrophils are phagocytic and are the most numerous of all white blood cell types.

back 10

TRUE

front 11

Loss of fibrinogen within the plasma would most likely cause which of the following?

A) fever with pain

B) loss of blood clotting

C) edema (swelling)

D) pallor (pale skin)

back 11

B) loss of blood clotting

front 12

True or False?

The immediate response to blood vessel injury is clotting.

back 12

FALSE

front 13

A person with an extremely high count of neutrophils is likely suffering ________.

A) a bacterial infection

B) a viral infection

C) anemia

D) polycythemia

back 13

A) a bacterial infection

front 14

When neither anti-A serum nor anti-B serum clot on a blood plate with donor blood, the blood is type ________.

A) A

B) B

C) O

D) AB

back 14

C) O

front 15

Which blood type is generally called the universal donor?

A) A

B) B

C) AB

D) O

back 15

D) O

front 16

Which of the choices below is the parent cell for all formed elements of blood?

A) normoblast

B) hemocytoblast

C) polymorphonuclear cell

D) megakaryocyte

back 16

B) hemocytoblast

front 17

True or False?

Leukemia refers to cancerous conditions involving white blood cells

back 17

TRUE

front 18

A patient's hematocrit shows an unusually large buffy coat. What is a likely cause of this?
a. anemia
b. lipidemia
c. severe infection
d. thrombocytopenia

back 18

c. severe infection

front 19

Using Figure 19.2, match the following:
Splenic vein.

back 19

B

front 20

Using Figure 19.2, match the following:
inferior mesenteric vein

back 20

D

front 21

Using Figure 19.2, match the following:

superior mesenteric vein

back 21

E

front 22

Using Figure 19.2, match the following:

hepatic portal vein

back 22

A

front 23

Using Figure 19.2, match the following:

right gastroepiploic vein

back 23

C

front 24

Blood flow to the skin ________.
A) is controlled mainly by decreasing pH
B) increases when environmental temperature rises
C) increases when body temperature drops so that the skin does not freeze
D) is not an important source of nutrients and oxygen for skin cells

back 24

B) increases when environmental temperature rises

front 25

True or False?

An increase in blood viscosity will cause an increase in peripheral resistance.

back 25

TRUE

front 26

True or False?

The left side of the heart pumps the same volume of blood as the right.

back 26

TRUE

front 27

In red bone marrow newly formed blood cells enter the circulation. You would expect to see many ________ type of capillaries in red bone marrow.

A) metarterioles

B) continuous capillaries

C) sinusoid capillaries

D) fenestrated capillaries

back 27

C) sinusoid capillaries

front 28

Due to the branching of arteries the type of arteries that would be most numerous would be ________.

A) arterioles

B) pulmonary arteries

C) muscular arteries

D) elastic arteries

back 28

A) arterioles

front 29

Using Figure 18.1, match the following:

Purkinje Fibers

back 29

E

front 30

Using Figure 18.1, match the following:

SA Node

back 30

A

front 31

Using Figure 18.1, match the following:

AV Bundle

back 31

C

front 32

Using Figure 18.1, match the following:

AV Node

back 32

B

front 33

Using Figure 18.1, match the following:

Bundle Branches

back 33

D

front 34

Using Figure 18.4, match the following:

Tricuspid valve

back 34

B

front 35

Using Figure 18.4, match the following:

Mitral valve

back 35

D

front 36

Using Figure 18.4, match the following:

Right atrium

back 36

A

front 37

Using Figure 18.4, match the following:

Left Ventricle

back 37

E

front 38

Using Figure 18.4, match the following:

Pulmonary Veins

back 38

C

front 39

Which chambers of the heart contain oxygenated blood?
A. The right and left atria
B. The right and left ventricles
C. The right atrium and ventricle
D. The left atrium and ventricle

back 39

D. The left atrium and ventricle

front 40

Which of the following is the most significant source of blood flow resistance?

A) blood viscosity

B) blood vessel diameter

C) total blood vessel length

D) blood vessels type

back 40

B) blood vessel diameter

front 41

Which of the following does not contribute to venous blood pressure?

A) skeletal muscle activity

B) venous anastomosis

C) constriction of smooth muscle around veins by the sympathetic nervous system

D) increased abdominal pressure during breathing

back 41

A) skeletal muscle activity

front 42

Atherosclerosis causes elastic arteries to become less stretchy. How does this affect pulse pressure?

A) Pulse pressure is unaffected by atherosclerosis.

B) Pulse pressure is temporarily increased.

C) Pulse pressure is temporarily decreased.

D) Pulse pressure is chronically decreased.

E) Pulse pressure is chronically increased.

back 42

E) Pulse pressure is chronically increased.

front 43

The receiving chambers of the heart include the ________.

A) right atrium and ventricle

B) right and left ventricles

C) right and left atria

D) left atrium and ventricle

back 43

C) right and left atria

front 44

Peripheral resistance ________.
A) decreases with increasing length of the blood vessel
B) increases as blood vessel diameter increases
C) increases as blood viscosity increases
D) is not a major factor in blood pressure in healthy individuals

back 44

C) increases as blood viscosity increases

front 45

True or False?

The myocardium receives its blood supply from the coronary arteries.

back 45

TRUE

front 46

Which will not occur if blood pressure drops below homeostatic levels?

A) The cardioacceleratory center of the medulla will be activated

B) Barorecptors in the carotid sinuses and aortic arch will be stimulated

C) Vasomotor center of the medulla will trigger vasoconstriction

back 46

B) Barorecptors in the carotid sinuses and aortic arch will be stimulated

front 47

Which is NOT a vessel that brings blood directly into the right atrium?

A) superior vena cava

B) inferior vena cava

C) pulmonary vein

D) coronary sinus

back 47

C) pulmonary vein

front 48

Permitting the exchange of nutrients and gases between the blood and tissue cells is the primary function of ________.
A) arterioles
B) arteries
C) veins
D) capillaries

back 48

D) capillaries

front 49

Which coronary artery is the most responsible for supplying blood to the myocardial tissue of the left atrium?

A) anterior interventricular artery

B) posterior interventricular artery

C) right marginal artery

D) circumflex artery

back 49

D) circumflex artery

front 50

True or False?

Anastomoses among coronary arterial branches provide collateral routes for blood delivery to the heart muscle.

back 50

TRUE

front 51

Which of the following signs of hypovolemic shock is a relatively late sign?
A) cold, clammy skin
B) increased heart rate
C) rapid, thready pulse
D) rapidly falling blood pressure

back 51

D) rapidly falling blood pressure

front 52

Compared to skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle ________.
A) has gap junctions that allow it to act as a functional syncytium
B) lacks striations
C) has more nuclei per cell
D) cells are larger than skeletal muscle cells

back 52

A) has gap junctions that allow it to act as a functional syncytium

front 53

Which of the following is NOT a part of the lymphatic system?

A) lymph nodes

B) lymph

C) lymphatic vessels

D) erythrocytes

back 53

D) erythrocytes

front 54

Lymph leaves a lymph node via ________.

A) afferent lymphatic vessels

B) efferent lymphatic vessels

C) the cortical sinus

D) the subcapsular sinus

back 54

B) efferent lymphatic vessels

front 55

Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic system?

A) transporting dietary fats

B) transporting respiratory gases

C) draining excess interstitial fluid

D) carrying out immune responses

back 55

B) transporting respiratory gases

front 56

Peyer's patches are found in the distal portion of the ________.

A) large intestine

B) stomach

C) small intestine

D) esophagus

back 56

C) small intestine

front 57

True or False?

Like blood, lymph flows both to and from the heart.

back 57

FALSE

front 58

The lymphatic capillaries are ________.
A) more permeable than blood capillaries
B) less permeable than blood capillaries
C) equally permeable to blood capillaries
D) completely impermeable

back 58

A) more permeable than blood capillaries

front 59

True or False?

When tissues are inflamed, lymphatic capillaries develop openings that permit uptake of large particles such as cell debris, pathogens, and cancer cells.

back 59

TRUE

front 60

Select the correct statement about lymph transport.

A) Under normal conditions, lymph vessels are very high-pressure conduits.

B) Lymph transport is only necessary when illness causes tissue swelling.

C) Lymph transport is faster than that occurring in veins.

D) Lymph transport depends on the movement of adjacent tissues, such as skeletal muscles.

back 60

D) Lymph transport depends on the movement of adjacent tissues, such as skeletal muscles.

front 61

A flu vaccine is needed seasonally to be effective but a polio vaccine is only needed once. The best explanation of this is ________.

A) the flu vaccine is substantially weaker than the polio vaccine

B) exposure to flu vaccine produces no memory cells from proliferating B-lymphocytes

C) the polio virus is substantially weaker than the flu virus

D) the flu has several strains that change seasonally

back 61

D) the flu has several strains that change seasonally

front 62

True or False?

Peyer's patches are clusters of lymphoid tissue found primarily in the large intestine.

back 62

FALSE

front 63

Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissues include all of the following EXCEPT ________.

A) palatine tonsils

B) islets of Langerhans

C) lingual tonsils

D) Peyer's patches

back 63

B) islets of Langerhans

front 64

A vaccine is effective because ________.

A) B-lymphocytes are unable to mount an immune response the first time they are exposed to a new pathogen

B) the secondary response of the adaptive immunity is faster and more efficient the primary response

C) the vaccine contains the lymphocytes necessary to fight infection

D) the vaccine contains the antibodies necessary to fight infection

back 64

B) the secondary response of the adaptive immunity is faster and more efficient the primary response

front 65

The redness and heat of an inflamed area are due to a local hyperemia caused by ________.

A) phagocyte mobilization

B) complement production

C) vasoconstriction

D) vasodilation

back 65

D) vasodilation

front 66

True or False?

Fever is often a beneficial immune response because it can speed the activities of leucocytes.

back 66

TRUE

front 67

Which of the following is not a type of T cell?

A) helper

B) antigenic

C) cytotoxic

D) regulatory

back 67

B) antigenic

front 68

An advantage to adaptive immunity is ________.

A) the use of antibodies that cause cell lysis and kill invading cells

B) the ability of its individual cells to respond to many different pathogens

C) its memory cells that provide quicker, larger and more efficient immune response upon second exposure to an antigen

D) its need for several cells to be activated over several days on first exposure

back 68

C) its memory cells that provide quicker, larger and more efficient immune response upon second exposure to an antigen

front 69

Which of the following does NOT contain a mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue?

A) appendix

B) tonsil

C) Peyer's patch

D) thymus

back 69

D) thymus

front 70

The thymus is the only lymphoid organ that does NOT ________.

A) directly fight antigens

B) have lymphocytes

C) have a cortex and medulla

D) produce hormones

back 70

A) directly fight antigens

front 71

Natural killer (NK) cells ________.

A) can kill cancer cells before the immune system is activated

B) are also called cytotoxic T cells

C) are cells of the adaptive immune system

D) are a type of phagocyte

back 71

A) can kill cancer cells before the immune system is activated

front 72

B lymphocytes develop immunocompetence in the ________.

A) bone marrow

B) lymph nodes

C) thymus

D) spleen

back 72

A) bone marrow

front 73

True or False?

The lymphatic capillaries function to absorb the excess protein-containing interstitial fluid and return it to the bloodstream.

back 73

FALSE

front 74

Which of the following is associated with passive immunity?

A) booster shot of vaccine

B) exposure to an antigen

C) infusion of weakened viruses

D) passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus

back 74

D) passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus

front 75

Tonsils have blind-ended structures called ________ that trap bacteria and particulate matter.

A) tonsillar crypts

B) germinal centers

C) tonsillar corpuscles

D) lymphoid follicles

back 75

A) tonsillar crypts

front 76

True or False?

Anaphylactic shock is a rare but severe allergic response that may occur if the allergen enters the blood stream.

back 76

TRUE

front 77

True or False?

Lymphatic capillaries are permeable to proteins.

back 77

TRUE

front 78

Vaccines work by ________.

A) boosting innate immunity with cytokines

B) providing the necessary antibodies to fight infections

C) suppressing inflation to help speed healing

D) priming the adaptive immunity with a relatively harmless primary exposure

back 78

D) priming the adaptive immunity with a relatively harmless primary exposure

front 79

Lymph traveling from the left arm would enter the venous circulation via the _______.

A) axillary nodes
B) thoracic duct
C) cisterna chili
D) right lymphatic duct

back 79

B) thoracic duct

front 80

True or False?

Lymph capillary permeability is due to minivalves and protein filaments.

back 80

TRUE

front 81

Which of the following statements regarding the thymus is FALSE?

A) It has follicles similar to those in the spleen.

B) It does not directly fight antigens.

C) It functions strictly in T lymphocyte maturation.

D) Its stroma consists of epithelial tissue.

back 81

A) It has follicles similar to those in the spleen.

front 82

Which of the following would be a component of the body's first line of defense?
A) Natural killer cells
B) phagocytes
C) inflammation
D) mucous membranes

back 82

D) mucous membranes

front 83

Which lymphoid organ atrophies as we age?

A) thymus

B) appendix

C) spleen

D) tonsils

back 83

A) thymus

front 84

A cellular component of the innate defenses includes _____.

A) Plasma cells
B) T cells
C) B cells
D) Natural killer cells

back 84

D) Natural killer cells

front 85

The thymus is most active during ________.

A) childhood

B) fetal development

C) middle age

D) old age

back 85

A) childhood

front 86

True or False?

About 3 liters of fluid are lost to the tissue spaces every 24 hours and are returned to the bloodstream as lymph.

back 86

TRUE

front 87

Inflammation ________.

A) is caused by bacterial activity to enhance the spread of disease

B) brings more leukocytes to the sight of infection

C) is caused by viral activity to enhance the spread of the disease

D) slows the healing process with swelling that can impair bodily function

back 87

B) brings more leukocytes to the sight of infection

front 88

True or False?

In a case of immediate hypersensitivity the immune system responds with an allergic response on the first exposure to the allergen.

back 88

FALSE

front 89

The tonsils located at the base of the tongue are the ________.

A) pharyngeal tonsils

B) Peyer's tonsils

C) palatine tonsils

D) lingual tonsils

back 89

D) lingual tonsils

front 90

Lymphoid tissue that appears as a swelling of the mucosa in the oral cavity is called a(n) ________.

A) Peyer's patch

B) thymus

C) tonsil

D) appendix

back 90

C) tonsil

front 91

True or False?

The functions of the nasal conchae are to enhance the air turbulence in the cavity and to increase the mucosal surface area exposed to the air.

back 91

TRUE

front 92

Factors that influence the rate and depth of breathing include ________.
A) thalamic control
B) voluntary cortical control
C) stretch receptors in the alveoli
D) composition of alveolar gas

back 92

B) voluntary cortical control

front 93

Which of the following is not normally found in saliva?
A) Mucus
B) Lysozyme
C) Amylase
D) Lipase
E) Protease

back 93

E) Protease

front 94

Surfactant helps to prevent the alveoli from collapsing by ________.
A) protecting the surface of alveoli from dehydration and other environmental variations
B) interfering with the cohesiveness of water molecules, thereby reducing the surface tension of alveolar fluid
C) warming the air before it enters
D) humidifying the air before it enters

back 94

B) interfering with the cohesiveness of water molecules, thereby reducing the surface tension of alveolar fluid

front 95

Using Figure 22.1, match the following:
1) Main (primary) bronchus.

2) Pharynx.

3) Larynx.

4) Carina of trachea.

5) Trachea.

back 95

1) D

2) A

3) B

4) E

5) C

front 96

Inspiratory capacity is ________.
A) the total amount of air that can be inspired after a tidal expiration
B) the total amount of exchangeable air
C) functional residual capacity
D) air inspired after a tidal inhalation

back 96

A) the total amount of air that can be inspired after a tidal expiration

front 97

True or False?

Nasal conchae mainly work on inhalation to warm and moisten air. They serve minor functions for exhalation.

back 97

FALSE

front 98

Which of the following maintains the patency (openness) of the trachea?

A) pseudostratified ciliated epithelium

B) C-shaped cartilage rings

C) surfactant production

D) surface tension of water

back 98

B) C-shaped cartilage rings

front 99

Which of the following is not true of saliva?

A) moistens food and aids in compacting of the bolus

B) cleanses the mouth

C) contains enzymes that begin the breakdown of carbohydrates

D) contains acids which aid in chemical digestion

back 99

D) contains acids which aid in chemical digestion

front 100

A ruptured appendix is life threatening because ________.

A) it is likely to cause severe internal bleeding

B) the large intestine will no longer be able to receive digested material from the small intestine

C) loss of the appendix's function will cause an immune deficiency in the digestive system

D) it is likely to cause massive infection of the abdominopelvic cavity

back 100

D) it is likely to cause massive infection of the abdominopelvic cavity

front 101

True or False?

The lingual tonsil is found on the posterior surface of the root of the tongue

back 101

TRUE

front 102

Choose the incorrect statement regarding bile.

A) Bile functions to emulsify fats.

B) Bile contains enzymes for digestion.

C) Bile functions to carry bilirubin formed from breakdown of worn-out RBCs.

D) Bile is both an excretory product and a digestive secretion.

back 102

B) Bile contains enzymes for digestion.

front 103

True or False?

The pancreas has both an endocrine and an exocrine function.

back 103

TRUE

front 104

Most inspired particles such as dust fail to reach the lungs because of the ________.

A) action of the epiglottis

B) ciliated mucous lining in the nose

C) porous structure of turbinate bones

D) abundant blood supply to nasal mucosa

back 104

B) ciliated mucous lining in the nose

front 105

From the esophagus to the anal canal, the walls of every organ of the alimentary canal are made up of the same four basic layers. Arrange them in order from the lumen.

A) serosa, mucosa, submucosa, and muscularis externa

B) mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa

C) submucosa, serosa, muscularis externa, and mucosa

D) muscularis externa, serosa, mucosa, and submucosa

back 105

B) mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa

front 106

Select the best explanation for why protease enzymes are secreted in inactive forms.

A) Inactive enzymes will simply be expelled with the feces if no protein is present in the digesting food, this will help to conserve energy.

B) The immunoglobulins protecting the digestive tract would be digested without proper regulation of protein digesting enzymes.

C) The enzymes would digest each other if they were not properly regulated.

D) The cells producing inactive enzymes are themselves protected from the enzymes until they are safely within the lumen of the GI tract.

back 106

D) The cells producing inactive enzymes are themselves protected from the enzymes until they are safely within the lumen of the GI tract.

front 107

True or False?

Another term for swallowing is deglutition.

back 107

TRUE

front 108

True or False?

The circular folds of the small intestine enhance absorption by causing the chyme to spiral, rather than to move in a straight line, as it passes through the small intestine.

back 108

TRUE

front 109

The function of the hepatic portal circulation is to ________.

A) return glucose to the general circulation when blood sugar is low

B) carry toxins to the kidney for disposal through the urinary tract

C) distribute hormones throughout the body

D) collect absorbed nutrients for metabolic processing in the liver

back 109

D) collect absorbed nutrients for metabolic processing in the liver

front 110

True or False?

The major means of propulsion through the alimentary canal is peristalsis.

back 110

TRUE

front 111

The walls of the alveoli are composed of two types of cells, type I and type II alveolar cells. The function of type II alveolar cells is to ________.

A) replace mucus in the alveoli

B) protect the lungs from bacterial invasion

C) trap dust and other debris

D) secrete surfactant

back 111

D) secrete surfactant

front 112

Pepsinogen, an inactive digestive enzyme, is secreted by the ________.

A) parietal cells of the duodenum

B) goblet cells of the small intestine

C) Brunner's glands

D) chief cells of the stomach

back 112

D) chief cells of the stomach

front 113

Inspiration occurs when the ____________ is less than the ____________.

A) intrapulmonary pressure is less than intrapleural pressure.
B) intrapleural pressure is less than intrapulmonary pressure.
C) intrapleural pressure is exactly equal to intrapulmonary pressure.
D) intrapleural pressure is exactly equal to atmospheric pressure.

back 113

B) intrapleural pressure is less than intrapulmonary pressure.

front 114

The larynx contains ________.

A) lateral cartilage ridges called false vocal folds

B) the thyroid cartilage

C) an upper pair of avascular mucosal folds called true vocal folds

D) a cricoid cartilage also called the Adam's apple

back 114

B) the thyroid cartilage

front 115

When we ingest large molecules such as lipids, carbohydrates, and proteins, they must undergo catabolic reactions whereby enzymes split these molecules. This series of reactions is called ________.

A) mechanical breakdown

B) absorption

C) secretion

D) chemical digestion

back 115

D) chemical digestion

front 116

The absorptive effectiveness of the small intestine is enhanced by increasing the surface area of the mucosal lining. Which of the following accomplish this task?

A) the vast array of digestive enzymes

B) the rugae and haustra

C) villi, and microvilli

D) Brunner's glands and Peyer Patches

back 116

C) villi, and microvilli

front 117

Which of the following is least involved in the mechanical breakdown of food, digestion or absorption of nutrients?

A) the oral cavity

B) the esophagus

C) large intestine

D) the small ingestion

back 117

B) the esophagus

front 118

The chemical and mechanical processes of food breakdown are called ________.

A) secretion

B) ingestion

C) absorption

D) digestion

back 118

D) digestion

front 119

True or False?

The only essential function of the stomach is to begin the digestion of proteins.

back 119

FALSE

front 120

All of the following are true of swallowing (deglutition) except one. Select the statement that is not true of swallowing.

A) The involuntary portion of swallowing takes place in the pharynx.

B) The mouth, pharynx and esophagus all take part in swallowing.

C) The epiglottis assists in propelling food into the trachea.

D) The voluntary phase of swallowing takes place within the mouth.

back 120

C) The epiglottis assists in propelling food into the trachea.

front 121

Intrapulmonary pressure is the ________.

A) difference between atmospheric pressure and respiratory pressure

B) pressure within the pleural cavity

C) pressure within the alveoli of the lungs

D) negative pressure in the intrapleural space

back 121

C) pressure within the alveoli of the lungs

front 122

Which of the following provide the greatest surface area for gas exchange?
A) alveolar sacs
B) alveolar ducts
C) alveoli
D) respiratory bronchioles

back 122

C) alveoli

front 123

True or False?

All the chemical and mechanical phases of digestion from the mouth through the small intestine are directed toward changing food into forms that can pass through the epithelial cells lining the mucosa into the underlying blood and lymphatic vessels.

back 123

TRUE

front 124

True or False?

Under certain conditions, the vocal folds act as a sphincter that prevents air passage.

back 124

TRUE

front 125

Respiratory control centers are located in the ________.
A) medulla and pons
B) midbrain and medulla
C) pons and midbrain
D) upper spinal cord and medulla

back 125

A) medulla and pons

front 126

Some antacid drugs block histamine receptors, resulting in reduction of the production and excretion of stomach acid. These drugs have the biggest effect on which of the following?

A) surface epithelial cells

B) chief cells

C) mucous neck cells

D) parietal cells

back 126

D) parietal cells

front 127

True or False?

Most nutrients are absorbed through the mucosa of the intestinal villi by active transport.

back 127

TRUE

front 128

True or False?

Strong emotions and pain, acting through the limbic system and hypothalamus, send signals to the respiratory centers that modulate respiratory rate and depth.

back 128

TRUE

front 129

True or False?

Smoking diminishes ciliary action and eventually destroys the cilia.

back 129

TRUE

front 130

True or False?

The lungs are perfused by two circulations: the pulmonary and the bronchial. The pulmonary circulation is for oxygenation of blood. The bronchial circulation supplies blood to the lung structures (tissue).

back 130

TRUE

front 131

Tidal volume is air ________.

A) exchanged during normal breathing

B) remaining in the lungs after forced expiration

C) inhaled after normal inspiration

D) forcibly expelled after normal expiration

back 131

A) exchanged during normal breathing

front 132

The function of goblet cells is to ________.

A) provide protection against invading bacteria and other disease-causing organisms that enter the digestive tract in food

B) secrete buffers in order to keep the pH of the digestive tract close to neutral

C) produce mucus that protects parts of the digestive organs from the effects of powerful enzymes needed for food digestion

D) absorb nutrients from digested food and store them for future use

back 132

C) produce mucus that protects parts of the digestive organs from the effects of powerful enzymes needed for food digestion

front 133

Bile salts bind at their hydrophobic regions to large fat globules within the chyme that enters the duodenum. Bile salts break up the fat globule into smaller fat droplets. This role of bile salts is best described as ________.

A) lipid emulsification

B) lipid absorption

C) lipid ingestion

D) lipid digestion

back 133

A) lipid emulsification

front 134

Which structure is lined with simple squamous epithelium?

A) oropharynx

B) alveolus

C) trachea

D) nasopharynx

back 134

B) alveolus

front 135

Which vitamin requires intrinsic factor in order to be absorbed?

A) K
B) C
C) B-12
D) A

back 135

C) B-12

front 136

Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is
A) greater than the intra-alveolar pressure.
B) greater than the pressure in the atmosphere.
C) equal to the pressure in the atmosphere.
D) less than the pressure in the atmosphere.

back 136

B) greater than the pressure in the atmosphere.

front 137

The sheets of peritoneal membrane that hold the digestive tract in place are called ________.

A) mucosal lining

B) lamina propria

C) serosal lining

D) mesenteries

back 137

D) mesenteries

front 138

Select the description below that illustrates a difference between a sphincter and circular muscle.

A) A sphincter is a thickening of circular muscle that can prevent the movement of digesting materials while circular muscle is involved in propulsion digesting material.

B) Sphincters are found throughout the GI tract while circular muscle is found only in the proximal portion of the GI tract.

C) A sphincter is composed of smooth muscle while circular muscle is composed of skeletal muscle tissue.

D) Sphincters are found in the proximal portion of the GI tract while circular muscle is found in the distal portions.

back 138

A) A sphincter is a thickening of circular muscle that can prevent the movement of digesting materials while circular muscle is involved in propulsion digesting material.

front 139

True or False?

The paired lungs occupy the mediastinum of the thoracic cavity.

back 139

FALSE

front 140

Which pressure actually keeps the lungs from collapsing?

A) atmospheric pressure
B) intrapulmonary pressure
C) intrapleural pressure
D) transpulmonary pressure

back 140

D) transpulmonary pressure

front 141

Peristaltic waves are ________.

A) churning movements of the gastrointestinal tract that aid in mechanical breakdown of chyme

B) segmental regions of the gastrointestinal tract

C) waves of muscular contractions that propel contents from one point to another

D) pendular movements of the gastrointestinal tract

back 141

C) waves of muscular contractions that propel contents from one point to another

front 142

Which of the following would likely be absorbed in the stomach?

A) a serving of pasta
B) a serving of alcohol
C) a serving of lean chicken breast
D) a piece of candy

back 142

B) a serving of alcohol

front 143

Which of the following refers to the movement of air into and out of the lungs?

A) pulmonary ventilation

B) external respiration

C) internal respiration

D) gas exchange

back 143

A) pulmonary ventilation

front 144

Gastric pits, as opposed to gastric glands, are completely lined with ________.

A) mucous cells
B) enteroendocrine cells
C) parietal cells
D) chief cells

back 144

A) mucous cells

front 145

True or False?

During normal quiet breathing, males breathe 25% more than females.

back 145

TRUE

front 146

Which of the following is the best explanation of the benefit in the digestive system having the largest collection of lymphoid tissue (MALT) at the distal end of the small intestine?

A) The alkaline secretion of the small intestine aid in the growth of bacteria and must be controlled.

B) The body will actively excrete pathogens out the body, into the digestive system to be removed from the body in feces.

C) The huge numbers of bacteria living in the large intestine must be prevented from entering the lumen of the small intestine and being absorbed with food's nutrients into the blood stream.

D) The digestive systems first and foremost job is to digest and absorb nutrients so it puts off immunity for last.

back 146

C) The huge numbers of bacteria living in the large intestine must be prevented from entering the lumen of the small intestine and being absorbed with food's nutrients into the blood stream.

D) The digestive systems first and

front 147

The bolus is liquefied in the ________ and it is now called chyme.

A) esophagus

B) stomach

C) small intestine

D) mouth

back 147

B) stomach

front 148

The ingestion of which nutrient type results in the greatest food-induced thermogenesis?
A) lipids
B) carbohydrates
C) proteins
D) vitamins

back 148

C) proteins

front 149

True or False?

Triglycerides and cholesterol do NOT circulate freely in the bloodstream.

back 149

TRUE

front 150

True or False?

The increased use of noncarbohydrate molecules for energy to conserve glucose is called glucose sparing.

back 150

TRUE

front 151

Which of the choices below is NOT a mechanism of heat production?

A) enhanced thyroxine release

B) sweating

C) vasoconstriction of cutaneous blood vessels

D) shivering

back 151

B) sweating

front 152

The most abundant dietary lipids are ________.
A) cholesterol
B) phospholipids
C) fatty acids
D) triglycerides

back 152

D) triglycerides

front 153

The process of breaking triglycerides down into glycerol and fatty acids is known as ________.
A) gluconeogenesis
B) fat utilization
C) lipogenesis
D) lipolysis

back 153

D) lipolysis

front 154

Catabolism would be best described as a process that ________.
A) causes a decline in circulating ketone bodies
B) builds up triglycerides during the postabsorptive state
C) breaks down complex structures to simpler ones
D) elevates glucagon levels

back 154

C) breaks down complex structures to simpler ones

front 155

True or False?

For use as fuel, all food carbohydrates are eventually transformed to glucose.

back 155

TRUE

front 156

Several hours after your last meal, declining blood glucose levels stimulate release of the hormone ________, which stimulates glycogenolysis, lipolysis and fat mobilization, and gluconeogenesis.

A) glucagon

B) thyroxine

C) cortisol

D) insulin

back 156

A) glucagon

front 157

Which of the following statements best describes complete protein?
A) derived from meat and fish only
B) meets all the minimum daily requirements for a healthy diet
C) derived only from legumes and other plant material
D) must meet all the body's amino acid requirements for maintenance and growth

back 157

D) must meet all the body's amino acid requirements for maintenance and growth

front 158

Which of the following is a source of complex carbohydrates?

A) soda

B) fruit juice

C) potatoes

D) pudding

back 158

C) potatoes

front 159

Which of the following is the major role of leptin in the body?
A) promote weight loss with activity
B) protect against weight loss during nutritional deprivation
C) shrink fat stores
D) decrease appetite and food intake

back 159

A) promote weight loss with activity

front 160

Glycogen is formed in the liver during the ________.
A) postabsorptive state
B) absorptive state
C) starvation period
D) period when the metabolic rate is lowest

back 160

B) absorptive state

front 161

The term metabolism is best defined as ________.
A) the length of time it takes to digest and absorb fats
B) a measure of carbohydrate utilization, typically involving measurement of calories
C) the number of calories it takes to keep from shivering on a cold day
D) biochemical reactions involved in building cell molecules or breaking down molecules for energy

back 161

D) biochemical reactions involved in building cell molecules or breaking down molecules for energy

front 162

True or False?

The preferred energy fuel for the brain is fat.

back 162

FALSE

front 163

Which of the following is NOT true of the basal metabolic rate (BMR)?
A) It represents the amount of energy the body needs to perform only essential functions.
B) It should account for body surface area.
C) It is measured when the subject is reclining and at rest.
D) It is best calculated when the subject is in the absorptive state.

back 163

D) It is best calculated when the subject is in the absorptive state.

front 164

The most abundant dietary lipids are ________.
A) cholesterol
B) phospholipids
C) fatty acids
D) triglycerides

back 164

D) triglycerides

front 165

Red blood cells lack mitochondria. As a result, ATP production is solely through ________.

A) glycolysis

B) electron transport chain

C) citric acid (Krebs) cycle

D) aerobic respiration

back 165

A) glycolysis

front 166

True or False?

The body is considered to be in nitrogen balance when the amount of nitrogen ingested in lipids equals the amount excreted in urine.

back 166

FALSE

front 167

True or False?

Diets high in cholesterol and saturated fats tend to produce high HDL concentrations.

back 167

FALSE

front 168

Which type of food molecule provides components for cellular structures like plasma membranes, myelin sheaths, and steroid hormones?

A) protein
B) lipids
C) complex carbohydrates
D) glucose

back 168

B) lipids

front 169

Which of the following is the most important function of the liver?
A) carbohydrate and lipid metabolism
B) synthesis of bile salts
C) processing of drugs and hormones and activation of vitamin D
D) protein metabolism

back 169

D) protein metabolism

front 170

When proteins undergo deamination, the waste substance found in the urine is mostly ________.

A) ammonia

B) ketone bodies

C) urea

D) acetyl CoA

back 170

C) urea

front 171

Lipogenesis occurs when ________.
A) there is a shortage of fatty acids
B) glucose levels drop slightly
C) excess proteins are transported through the cell membrane
D) cellular ATP and glucose levels are high

back 171

D) cellular ATP and glucose levels are high

front 172

Which of the choices below is not a fate of carbohydrate taken into the body?
A) ATP production
B) lipogenesis
C) amino acid synthesis
D) conversion to a nucleic acid
E) glycogenesis

back 172

D) conversion to a nucleic acid

front 173

Heat-loss mechanisms do not include ________.
A) reducing activity
B) the evaporation of sweat
C) behavior measures such as wearing light, loose clothing
D) vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels

back 173

D) vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels

front 174

True or False?

The term essential nutrient refers to the chemicals that can be interconverted in the liver so that the body can maintain life and good health.

back 174

FALSE

front 175

True or False?

Except for lactose and some glycogen, the carbohydrates we ingest are mainly from animals.

back 175

FALSE

front 176

True or False?

There are NO nutritionally complete proteins. All animal products should be eaten with plant material to make a nutritionally complete protein.

back 176

FALSE

front 177

True or False?

Vitamins are inorganic compounds that are essential for growth and good health.

back 177

FALSE

front 178

In the case of a person who consumes a normal, balanced diet, proteins are essential to the body for all of the following except ________.
A) production of energy
B) production of some hormones
C) production of enzymes, clotting factors, and antibodies
D) formation of functional molecules like hemoglobin and cytochromes

back 178

A) production of energy